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Bracket II: Earth Science

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to pieces of rock as they are transported by a river?

a)

they get smaller and rounder

b)

smaller and more jagged

c)

much larger and rounder

d)

gets larger and more jagged

2.

Which is an example of oxidation?

a)

Rust decomposes rocks completely with the passage of time.

b)

Some of the minerals get dissolved in water.

c)

The joints enlarge in size and lime is removed in the solution.

d)

Due to the absorption of water by rocks, its volume increases.

3.

In which of the following climates will chemical weathering be most rapid?

a)

hot and dry

b)

cold and dry

c)

hot and humid

d)

cold and humid

4.

Which is not included in the group?

a)

abrasion

b)

acidification

c)

carbonation

d)

hydration

5.

Weak organic acids are produced by the action of the growing root of lichens. These acids react with some minerals in rocks resulting in the decomposition of rocks. How will you classify this process?

a)

Physical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Biological weathering through physical means

d)

Biological weathering through chemical compounds

6.

Which type of rocks tends to weather more rapidly through the hydrolysis process?

a)

Rocks that contain iron.

b)

Rocks that contain feldspar.

c)

Rocks that contain quartz.

d)

Rocks that are impermeable.

7.

What are the two things that affect the rate of weathering?

a)

rain and ice

b)

type of rock and climate

c)

time and date

d)

size of rock and time of the year

8.
These rocks were broken apart from the continuous freeze/thaw of water in the cracks of the rocks. This is an example of:
a)
ice wedging
b)
dumptruck
c)
permeability
d)
acid rain
9.
thermal fractionation, frost wedging, hydration shattering, exfoliation and abrasion. are forms of what? 
a)
Mechanical Weathering 
b)
Erosion
c)
Chemical Weathering 
d)
Compaction 
10.
What type of Weathering is caused by animal actions?
a)
Chemical Weathering 
b)
Erosion 
c)
Mechanical Weathering 
d)
Animals 
11.
What is likely to cause cracks on the sidewalk?
a)
Repeated freezing and thawing of water
b)
Tree roots or plant roots growing bigger
c)

Both answers

d)

Neither answer

12.

Which of these MOST LIKELY causes small holes (or pits) that cover old concrete statues?

a)

Water freezes in small cracks in the statue.

b)
The concrete is chipped away by sand particles blown by strong winds
c)

The concrete is broken down by acid rain.

d)

Long exposure to sunlight.

13.
These rocks were made smooth by wind blowing smaller rock particles across their surface.  This is an example of:
a)
ice wedging
b)
chemical weathering
c)
acid rain
d)
abrasion
14.
These rocks were broken apart from the continuous freeze/thaw of water in the cracks of the rocks. This is an example of:
a)
ice wedging
b)
acid rain
c)
permeability
d)
abrasion
15.

Exfoliation occurs when water continually seeps into cracks, freezes, and expands eventually breaking the rock apart.

a)

Correct

b)

Incorrect

16.

Earthworms are physical weathering agents.

a)

Correct

b)

Incorrect

17.

Is a form of physical (mechanical) weathering in which curved plates of rock are stripped from rock below.

(a)  

18.

(a)   is the process that happens when the rock type in an area is limestone.

19.

The main type of weathering in these areas is chemical,

a)

Frost climate

b)

Temperate climate

c)

Desert

d)

Humid Tropical climate

20.
Which of these particles in soil has the most water retention?
a)
clay
b)
gravel
c)
silt
d)
sand
21.
When a microorganism depletes oxygen in soil, the soil becomes:
a)
dense
b)
dried out
c)
anaerobic
d)
aerobic
22.
The finest grain soil is richest in:
a)
clay
b)
humus
c)
sand
d)
iron
23.
In order to increase water retention, you should add the following to soil:
a)
organic matter
b)
loose gravel
c)
nitrogen pellets
d)
coarse sand
24.
What is the source of the organic matter needed for most fertile soils?
a)
moving water
b)
eroded sand
c)
decaying plants
d)
weathered bedrock
25.
If soil is permeable, 
a)
water cannot flow through it.
b)
water easily flows through it
c)
it contains many minerals
d)
it contains few minerals
26.
Which type of soil has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
clay
27.
Soil porosity is formed by everything except:
a)
movement of plant roots
b)
movement of worms and insects
c)
the size of the grain
d)
the color of the soil
28.

What is the organic material formed in soil from the decayed remains of plants and animals called?

a)

bedrock

b)

residual soil

c)

humus

d)

parent rock

29.

What is the soil type: 20%-30%-50%?

a)

Clay

b)

Loam

c)

Sandy clay loam

d)

Clay loam

30.

The layer of soil (Layer A) that is underneath the organic material horizon is called ________________.

a)

topsoil

b)

subsoil

c)

bedrock

d)

Weathered rock

31.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
32.
What is the name of Soil Horizon O?
a)
Bedrock
b)
Topsoil
c)
Organic Layer
d)
Subsoil
33.
What is the first step of soil formation?
a)
humus decomposing
b)
nitrates being absorbed by the plant roots
c)
weathering of parent rock
d)
climate changing
34.

What are the five major factors that influence soil formation?

a)

chronological factors (time), temperature, geology, topography, biological factors, and climate

b)

chronological factors (time), precipitation, geology, temperature, climate

c)

chronological factors (time), geology, topography, biological organisms, and climate

d)

geology, topography, biological organisms, climate, and amount of earthworms

35.

The layer of bedrock is found in which soil horizon?

a)

R Horizon

b)

B Horizon

c)

C Horizon

d)

O Horizon

36.

The downward movement of water through soil and rock due to gravity is _________________________?

a)

Infiltration

b)

Drainage

c)

Percolation

d)

Runoff

37.

When water enters the soil, it first goes through the process of _____________________.

a)

Percolation

b)

Draining

c)

Infiltration

d)

Runoff

38.
What is permeability?
a)
Ability for water and air to move through soil
b)
Ability for soil to hold water
c)
Ease of tilling soil after a rain
d)
Measure of the amount of time on emust wait after rain to till soil
39.
What would be the best soil texture for growing crops, such as corn and vegetables?
a)
Loam
b)
Sand
c)
Sandy clay
d)
Silty Loam
40.

One of the following mineral properties can be determined by observing, rather than doing something to a sample.

a)

streak

b)

fracture

c)

luster

d)

hardness

41.

.Cleavage is caused by ____________.

a)

weaknesses in the arrangement of the atoms

b)

strength in the arrangement of the atoms

c)

the hardness of the mineral

d)

the arrangement of the atoms in a repeating pattern

42.

Types of igneous rocks that erupt onto the surface, where they cool quickly to form small crystals.

a)

Ultramafic

b)

Pyroclastic

c)

glassy

d)

Intrusive

43.

Limestone under so much heat and pressure can be transform into _________.

a)

slate

b)

marble

c)

gneiss

d)

granite

44.

Metamorphic rocks that do not have a layered or banded appearance.

a)

Foliated

b)

Carbon based

c)

Silica based

d)

Non foliated

45.

The Mohs scale classifies minerals by their ________.

a)

color

b)

luster

c)

hardness

d)

streak

46.

______________refers to the color of the mineral in its powdered form which may or may not be similar to the color of the mineral.

a)

COLOR

b)

STREAK

c)

HARDNESS

d)

LUSTER

47.

Chemical process where carbonic acid dissolves limestone, forming caves and sinkholes.

(a)  

48.

Clay-rich soil that expands when wet and shrinks when dry.

(a)  

49.

Dark, partially decayed organic matter that improves soil fertility.

(a)  

50.

Igneous rock texture showing large crystals embedded in a fine-grained matrix due to two-stage cooling.

(a)  

51.

The sequence describing how different minerals crystallize from cooling magma.

(a)  

52.

Boundary between the crust and the mantle, marked by a sudden increase in seismic velocity.

(a)  

53.

Rigid outer layer composed of crust and uppermost mantle.

(a)  

54.

Type of stress that pulls rocks apart at divergent plate boundaries.

(a)  

55.

Uplifted block of crust between two normal faults.

(a)  

56.

Lowest layer of the atmosphere where most weather occurs.

(a)  

57.

Electrically charged layer important for radio communication.

(a)  

58.

Fast, narrow current of air in the upper troposphere that influences storm tracks.

(a)  

59.

Boundary between two air masses of different temperature and humidity.

(a)  

60.

Prevailing wind during the wet season (May–October) in the Philippines.

(a)  

61.

Region of icy bodies beyond Neptune that includes Pluto.

(a)  

62.

Path followed by planets around the Sun.

(a)  

63.

Layer of the Sun visible during a total solar eclipse as a pearly glow.

(a)  

64.

Small body of rock or metal traveling through space, smaller than an asteroid.

(a)  

65.

Region between Mars and Jupiter containing numerous small rocky bodies.

(a)  

66.

Remnant core of a massive star composed almost entirely of neutrons.

(a)  

67.

Diagram that plots a star’s luminosity against its surface temperature.

(a)  

68.

Brightness of a star as seen from a standard distance of 10 parsecs.

(a)  

69.

Cloud of gas and dust where new stars form.

(a)  

70.

Principle stating that present geologic processes operated in the past.

(a)  

71.

Fossil used to establish the relative age of rock layers.

(a)  

72.

Difference in elevation between adjacent contour lines.

(a)  

73.

Deepest parts of the ocean, often at subduction zones.

(a)  

74.

Underwater mountain chain formed by seafloor spreading.

(a)  

75.

Isolated volcanic peak rising from the ocean floor but not reaching the surface.

(a)  

76.

Fertile area of the ocean where cold, nutrient-rich water rises to the surface.

(a)  

77.

Floating microscopic plants forming the base of the ocean food web.

(a)  

78.

Large, circular surface current in each major ocean basin.

(a)  

79.
What is the main mineral found in limestone?
a)
Calcite
b)
Feldspar
c)
Mica
d)
Halite
80.
Basalt is an example of which type of igneous rock based on texture?
a)
Intrusive
b)
Extrusive
c)
Foliated
d)
Clastic
81.
When shale undergoes heat and pressure, it becomes:
a)
Marble
b)
Gneiss
c)
Slate
d)
Quartzite
82.
Which mineral is a major source of aluminum?
a)
Galena
b)
Bauxite
c)
Gypsum
d)
Hematite
83.
A granite rock contains quartz, feldspar, and mica. What does this indicate about its origin?
a)
Formed from rapid cooling of lava
b)
Crystallized slowly beneath Earth’s surface
c)
Chemical sedimentary rock
d)
Altered by intense heat and pressure
84.
Which process is directly responsible for the formation of metamorphic rocks with foliation?
a)
Deposition of sediments
b)
Regional metamorphism under differential stress
c)
Rapid volcanic cooling
d)
Chemical precipitation
85.
Which of the following best explains why obsidian lacks crystals even though it is igneous?
a)
Composed entirely of glassy minerals
b)
Cooled too quickly for crystals to form
c)
Contains no silica
d)
Formed from metamorphic processes
86.
In a basaltic magma, which mineral would crystallize first according to Bowen’s reaction series?
a)
Quartz
b)
Olivine
c)
Muscovite mica
d)
Orthoclase feldspar
87.
The diagnostic difference between calcite and aragonite is best identified by:
a)
Streak color
b)
Crystal system
c)
Hardness on Mohs scale
d)
Reaction to dilute HCl
88.
Komatiites are significant because they:
a)
Indicate high-pressure metamorphism
b)
Represent ultramafic lavas from early, hotter Earth
c)
Are typical of continental flood basalts
d)
Contain high quartz content
89.
Which mineral group is defined by the presence of SiO₄ tetrahedra linked in single chains?
a)
Feldspars
b)
Pyroxenes
c)
Amphiboles
d)
Micas
90.
The coarse-grained texture of gabbro compared to the fine texture of basalt indicates:
a)
Higher silica content in gabbro
b)
Slower cooling of gabbro at depth
c)
Faster cooling of gabbro at the surface
d)
Presence of more water in basalt
91.
In the Mohs hardness scale, which mineral can scratch quartz but is softer than corundum?
a)
Orthoclase
b)
Topaz
c)
Fluorite
d)
Apatite
92.
Schistosity in metamorphic rocks is primarily caused by:
a)
Random grain orientation
b)
High porosity
c)
Parallel alignment of platy minerals like mica
d)
Cooling of magma
93.
Which mineral is a common ore of iron and strongly magnetic?
a)
Galena
b)
Magnetite
c)
Hematite
d)
Chalcopyrite
94.
A rock formed by partial melting of continental crust will most likely be:
a)
Ultramafic
b)
Mafic
c)
Intermediate to felsic
d)
Pure carbonate
95.
Bowen’s reaction series predicts that, as magma cools, the last mineral to crystallize in the continuous branch is:
a)
Calcium-rich plagioclase
b)
Sodium-rich plagioclase
c)
Olivine
d)
Pyroxene
96.
The boundary between the Earth’s crust and mantle is called the:
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Mohorovičić discontinuity
d)
Gutenberg discontinuity
97.
Which evidence supports the existence of a liquid outer core?
a)
Ocean drilling data
b)
S-wave shadow zones
c)
Magnetic striping on seafloor
d)
Continental drift
98.
A fracture in Earth’s crust along which displacement has occurred is a:
a)
Joint
b)
Fault
c)
Fissure
d)
Dike
99.
Which type of stress produces normal faults?
a)
Compression
b)
Tension
c)
Shear
d)
Reverse thrust
100.
The point on Earth’s surface directly above an earthquake’s focus is the:
a)
Epicenter
b)
Hypocenter
c)
Fault plane
d)
Seismic gap
101.
Which scale measures the total energy released by an earthquake?
a)
Mercalli scale
b)
Richter scale
c)
Moment magnitude scale
d)
Modified intensity scale
102.
Pyroclastic flows are most common in eruptions of:
a)
Basaltic magma
b)
Andesitic to rhyolitic magma
c)
Peridotite magma
d)
Komatiitic lava
103.
The geothermal gradient averages 30 °C/km. If surface temperature is 20 °C, what is the approximate temperature at 5 km depth?
a)
70 °C
b)
150 °C
c)
170 °C
d)
200 °C
104.
Which seismic discontinuity separates the solid mantle from the liquid outer core?
a)
Mohorovičić
b)
Conrad
c)
Gutenberg
d)
Lehmann
105.
A GPS network shows two points on opposite sides of a transform boundary moving 5 cm/yr in opposite directions. After 200 years, how much total displacement is expected?
a)
1 m
b)
5 m
c)
10 m
d)
20 m
106.
The East African Rift is an example of:
a)
Continental–continental collision
b)
Oceanic–oceanic convergence
c)
Divergent plate boundary
d)
Transform fault
107.
Folded mountain belts such as the Alps primarily result from:
a)
Tensile stress
b)
Shear stress
c)
Compressional stress
d)
Isostatic rebound
108.
A magnitude-7 earthquake releases roughly how many times more energy than a magnitude-5 event?
a)
32×
b)
64×
c)
1,024×
d)
32,000×
109.
During an explosive eruption, a glowing, fast-moving cloud of hot gas and volcanic debris races down the slope. This is called a:
a)
Lahar
b)
Pyroclastic flow
c)
Debris avalanche
d)
Volcanic plume
110.
Which magma composition typically produces the most violent eruptions?
a)
Basaltic, low-silica
b)
Andesitic, intermediate silica
c)
Rhyolitic, high silica
d)
Ultramafic, very low silica
111.
A typhoon with a central pressure of 940 mb moves toward Luzon. Surrounding pressure is 1,010 mb. The steep pressure gradient implies:
a)
Weak winds
b)
Strong winds toward the center
c)
No horizontal motion
d)
Subsiding air only
112.
The ITCZ typically shifts north over the Philippines in:
a)
January
b)
April
c)
July
d)
October
113.
Which atmospheric gas, though minor in concentration, absorbs the most outgoing longwave radiation?
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
Argon
d)
Oxygen
114.
The Asian monsoon is driven primarily by:
a)
Seasonal reversal of land–sea pressure gradients
b)
Earth’s eccentric orbit
c)
Ozone variation
d)
Magnetic field fluctuations
115.
During the Northern Hemisphere summer solstice, which latitude receives the Sun directly overhead?
a)
0°
b)
23.5° N
c)
23.5° S
d)
66.5° N
116.
Kepler’s 3rd law states that P²∝a³. If a planet’s semimajor axis is 4 AU, its orbital period is about:
a)
4 years
b)
8 years
c)
16 years
d)
32 years
117.
The asteroid belt lies between:
a)
Mercury & Venus
b)
Earth & Mars
c)
Mars & Jupiter
d)
Jupiter & Saturn
118.
A star twice as hot as the Sun (≈5,800 K) emits radiation most strongly at:
a)
Longer wavelengths (redder)
b)
Shorter wavelengths (bluer)
c)
Infrared only
d)
Radio frequencies
119.
Which stellar remnant can have a mass greater than the Sun but a diameter of only about 20 km?
a)
White dwarf
b)
Neutron star
c)
Red giant
d)
Brown dwarf
120.
The Milky Way is best classified as a:
a)
Spiral galaxy
b)
Elliptical galaxy
c)
Irregular galaxy
d)
Lenticular galaxy
121.
Spectral lines of distant galaxies are shifted toward the red. This observation supports the:
a)
Big Bang expansion
b)
Steady-state universe
c)
Tidal theory of the Moon
d)
Geocentric model
122.
A climograph shows high annual rainfall with two short dry months and almost no temperature variation. Which Philippine climate type does this suggest?
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV

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