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Pediatric Development and Safety Quiz

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse observes a 9-month-old sitting unsupported and banging two blocks together. Which milestone is the nurse documenting?

a)

Walks with assistance

b)

Sits without support

c)

Pincer grasp developed

d)

Transfers objects hand to hand

2.

A toddler repeatedly answers “NO” to requests and insists on dressing himself. This behavior most closely reflects which psychosocial task?

a)

Trust vs mistrust

b)

Autonomy vs shame/doubt

c)

Initiative vs guilt

d)

Industry vs inferiority

3.

A preschool child tells the nurse that the toy car is alive because it moved. This demonstrates:

a)

Conservation

b)

Magical thinking

c)

Concrete operational thinking

d)

Hypothetical reasoning

4.

A parent asks when the pincer grasp is expected. The nurse replies:

a)

5 months

b)

7 months

c)

10 months

d)

12 months

5.

Which safety teaching is most important for parents of an infant to prevent aspiration?

a)

Avoid circular foods like grapes and hot dogs

b)

Use baby powder frequently to keep skin dry

c)

Place stuffed animals in crib for comfort

d)

Dress the infant in button-up clothes only

6.

A 3-year-old who used to nap now resists naps and has decreased daytime sleep. This is typical because:

a)

The child is developing a sleep disorder

b)

The child is experiencing normal developmental changes

c)

The child is not getting enough physical activity

d)

The child is showing signs of illness

7.

A parent asks when the baby should be rear-facing in a car seat. The nurse instructs:

a)

Until 12 months

b)

Until 18 months

c)

Until 2 years

d)

Until the child is 3 years old

8.

Which play style would you expect in a 2-year-old?

a)

Cooperative group play with roles

b)

Parallel play — plays alongside another child

c)

Team sports with complex rules

d)

Very abstract creative play

9.

By about what age should a child be able to build a tower of 2 blocks?

a)

6 months

b)

9 months

c)

12 months

d)

18 months

10.

A 6-month-old with a large VSD is admitted. Which sign is most likely?

a)

Cyanosis at rest

b)

Systolic murmur and signs of heart failure

c)

Bounding pulses in lower extremities

d)

Headache and nosebleeds

11.

A 7-year-old has weak femoral pulses and high blood pressure in the arms. Which defect is most likely?

a)

Ventricular septal defect

b)

Coarctation of the aorta

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot

d)

Atrial septal defect

12.

A child with Tetralogy of Fallot has a hypercyanotic (“Tet”) spell. The nurse’s first action is to:

a)

Lay the child flat and elevate feet

b)

Administer oxygen and call the physician

c)

Place the child in a knee-chest position

d)

Start intravenous fluids immediately

13.

Which congenital heart defect causes increased pulmonary blood flow and is acyanotic?

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot

b)

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

c)

Transposition of the great arteries

d)

Tricuspid atresia

14.

A toddler on furosemide (Lasix) should have which serum monitored regularly?

a)

Calcium

b)

Potassium

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Glucose

15.

An infant tires while feeding and sweats during feeds. Which intervention is best?

a)

Offer larger, less frequent feeds

b)

Provide small, frequent feedings and allow rest

c)

Withhold feeds until stronger

d)

Feed only with formula concentrated to 36 kcal/oz

16.

Which complication of Kawasaki disease is the most life-threatening and a focus of prevention?

a)

Desquamation of hands and feet

b)

Coronary artery aneurysm

c)

Strawberry tongue

d)

Conjunctivitis without exudate

17.

A toddler’s apical pulse is 70 bpm before a scheduled digoxin dose. The nurse should:

a)

Administer digoxin as ordered

b)

Hold dose and notify the provider (low heart rate for age)

c)

Give half the dose and recheck in 30 minutes

d)

Give a double dose at the next scheduled time

18.

Which parent statement shows correct digoxin teaching?

a)

I’ll give the dose double if I missed one earlier.

b)

I’ll check my child’s pulse before giving the medicine.

c)

If my child vomits after the dose, I’ll give it again.

d)

I can stop digoxin when my child seems better.

19.

After a cardiac catheterization, the nurse notes a cool, pale foot distal to the insertion site and a weak pedal pulse. The nurse should:

a)

Continue to observe; this is expected temporarily

b)

Elevate the affected extremity

c)

Notify the provider immediately

d)

Apply a warm compress to the foot

20.

Which is the most common congenital heart defect?

a)

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

b)

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot

d)

Coarctation of the aorta

21.

A child with an ASD may present with:

a)

Loud harsh murmur and cyanosis at rest

b)

Split second heart sound and systolic murmur

c)

Low blood pressure in the arms only

d)

Progressive hepatomegaly early in life

22.

A child with Tetralogy of Fallot squats during play. This behavior indicates:

a)

A respiratory infection

b)

An attempt to increase systemic vascular resistance to improve pulmonary blood flow

c)

A neurological deficit

d)

An unrelated orthopedic problem

23.

Post–cardiac surgery, a child develops sudden cyanosis and a new cough. This is most concerning for:

a)

Normal post-op pain response

b)

Respiratory infection unrelated to surgery

c)

Decreased oxygenation or complication like pulmonary edema — notify provider

d)

Expected postoperative fatigue

24.

For a child with CHF receiving Lasix, which parent teaching is best?

a)

Avoid potassium-rich foods

b)

Encourage potassium-rich foods like bananas and orange juice

c)

Stop the medicine when edema decreases

d)

Limit protein intake

25.

After IVIG for Kawasaki disease, live vaccines should be postponed for:

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

11 months

d)

24 months

26.

Which diagnostic test gives the best information about valvular regurgitation or structural defects?

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c)

Echocardiogram

d)

Cardiac catheterization

27.

An infant shows poor weight gain, tachypnea, and sweating during feeds. These signs most likely indicate:

a)

Normal newborn adjustment

b)

Heart failure from a congenital defect

c)

Gastrointestinal reflux

d)

Dehydration

28.

Hepatomegaly in a child with congenital heart disease most often reflects:

a)

Left-sided heart failure only

b)

Right-sided heart failure or systemic venous congestion

c)

Improved perfusion

d)

Primary liver disease

29.

Fetal alcohol syndrome increases the risk of which congenital anomaly?

a)

Congenital heart defects

b)

Juvenile diabetes

c)

Neural tube defects only

d)

Cystic fibrosis

30.

The primary purpose of IVIG in Kawasaki disease is to:

a)

Eradicate bacteria causing the illness

b)

Reduce inflammation and prevent coronary aneurysm formation

c)

Increase appetite and weight gain

d)

Cure fever immediately

31.

A parent says, “If my child misses a digoxin dose, I’ll give it twice next time.” The nurse should:

a)

Agree — doubled dose restores level

b)

Explain never to double doses and consult provider for missed doses

c)

Teach to stop medication for a day then resume

d)

Encourage giving the missed dose with meals

32.

Which sign is an early indicator of heart failure in an infant?

a)

Clubbing of fingers

b)

Tachypnea and increased respiratory effort

c)

Hypertension

d)

Cyanosis at rest

33.

A 10-year-old scheduled for cardiac cath has a diaper rash in the groin near the femoral site. The nurse should:

a)

Proceed as scheduled

b)

Notify the provider before the procedure

c)

Apply topical ointment and continue

d)

Cover the rash with a sterile dressing

34.

Which is an early sign of digoxin toxicity in a child?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Increased appetite

35.

A toddler with worsening CHF is tachycardic and irritable; the priority nursing intervention is:

a)

Place in semi-Fowler’s position and conserve energy

b)

Offer a new toy to distract the child

c)

Increase oral intake immediately

d)

Encourage active play to strengthen the heart

36.

Which maternal factor is strongly associated with increased risk of congenital heart disease in the infant?

a)

Advanced maternal age only

b)

Fetal alcohol exposure during pregnancy

c)

Low maternal iron stores

d)

Maternal hypothyroidism

37.

A child with a moderate VSD often has which assessment finding?

a)

Cyanosis at rest and clubbing early on

b)

Systolic murmur and signs of heart failure if large

c)

High lower-extremity blood pressure

d)

Crackles in upper lobes only

38.

A child who squats during play is most likely trying to:

a)

Decrease systemic vascular resistance

b)

Increase systemic vascular resistance

c)

Increase venous return to the heart

d)

Reduce intracranial pressure

39.

An infant with CHF should be fed how to reduce oxygen consumption?

a)

Larger volumes less often to minimize handling

b)

Small, frequent feeds with rest periods

c)

Eliminate breast milk and use only formula

d)

Tube feed only and never attempt PO

40.

Which outcome best indicates improvement after CHF treatment?

a)

Increased work of breathing

b)

Decreased heart rate and respiratory rate with improved feeding

c)

New hepatomegaly

d)

Increased peripheral edema

41.

A nurse assesses a small amount of bleeding at the cath site and a weak pedal pulse on the same side. The nurse should:

a)

Apply direct pressure and notify provider immediately

b)

Reassure family this is expected for 24 hours

c)

Remove dressing to inspect more thoroughly and leave site uncovered

d)

Place a splint on the leg and document

42.

During a Tet spell, in addition to knee-chest positioning, which action helps reduce cyanosis?

a)

Give the child a cold drink

b)

Give oxygen and calm the child

c)

Force the child to breathe deeply repeatedly

d)

Encourage the child to stand up

43.

Parents of a child on furosemide should be taught to:

a)

Decrease fruits and vegetables to reduce potassium

b)

Encourage foods high in potassium, monitor for signs of hypokalemia

c)

Avoid all dairy products while on the diuretic

d)

Stop the diuretic when the child feels better

44.

A child with Kawasaki disease has persistent high fever and irritability. The expected treatment includes:

a)

IVIG and high-dose aspirin initially, then low-dose aspirin at discharge

b)

Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics as first line

c)

Immediate packed RBC transfusion

d)

Antiviral therapy

45.

A child has an acquired coarctation repaired surgically. Which finding needs immediate attention?

a)

Warm, well-perfused feet

b)

Sudden onset weak or absent femoral pulses

c)

Mild incision redness without drainage

d)

Age-appropriate activity restrictions

46.

A child with suspected leukemia undergoes bone marrow aspiration. The specimen is usually obtained from the:

a)

Femoral shaft

b)

Posterior iliac crest

c)

Sternum (in small children only)

d)

Tibial plateau

47.

In acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), which laboratory pattern is expected?

a)

Increased RBC, platelets, and neutrophils

b)

Decreased RBC, platelets, and often abnormal WBCs (blasts)

c)

Normal blood counts with increased clotting times only

d)

Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit

48.

A child undergoing chemotherapy develops mucosal ulcerations and refuses to eat. Which nursing action is best?

a)

Offer spicy foods to stimulate appetite

b)

Provide bland, soft, high-calorie foods and pain control measures

c)

Stop all oral intake and place NPO immediately

d)

Encourage hard, crusty breads to increase oral stimulation

49.

The purpose of intrathecal chemotherapy in ALL is to:

a)

Treat or prevent CNS involvement by delivering medication directly to CSF

b)

Reduce systemic side effects of chemotherapy overall

c)

Stimulate bone marrow recovery

d)

Prevent graft-versus-host disease after transplant

50.

Which sign suggests graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) after hematopoietic stem cell transplant?

a)

Dry cough and wheeze only

b)

Maculopapular rash and diarrhea (palms/soles involvement)

c)

Decreased urine output only

d)

Elevated creatinine without skin changes

51.

A child with sickle cell disease presents with sudden severe abdominal pain and marked splenomegaly. The nurse suspects:

a)

Aplastic crisis

b)

Acute splenic sequestration — pooling of blood in spleen

c)

Vaso-occlusive pain crisis only

d)

Hemorrhagic shock unrelated to spleen

52.

To help prevent vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell disease, the nurse teaches families to:

a)

Encourage dehydration to reduce urine output

b)

Keep the child well hydrated and avoid hypoxia

c)

Limit fluid intake and increase physical activity

d)

Restrict salt and protein in the diet

53.

A child with hemophilia A is bleeding after a tooth extraction. Which treatment is most appropriate?

a)

Apply pressure and ice; administer factor VIII replacement as ordered

b)

Give oral vitamin K only and observe

c)

Start high-dose aspirin for pain control

d)

Apply heat to the area and encourage strenuous activity

54.

Which statement is true about hemophilia inheritance?

a)

It is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting both sexes equally

b)

It is X-linked recessive — mainly males affected, females carriers

c)

It is only passed from fathers to sons

d)

It is acquired from infections

55.

A child with ALL is at greatest immediate risk for which complication due to marrow suppression?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Infection from neutropenia

c)

Excessive clotting

d)

Hyperglycemia

56.

A parent is taught how to give factor VIII at home. Which instruction is most important?

a)

Administer only in clinic settings — never at home

b)

Learn sterile technique, dose calculation, and how to recognize bleeding complications

c)

Store factor VIII at room temperature for months after opening

d)

Delay giving factor until bleeding has significantly worsened

57.

A child with sickle cell disease should receive penicillin prophylaxis as an infant primarily to:

a)

Prevent vaso-occlusive crises

b)

Reduce risk of encapsulated organism sepsis due to functional asplenia

c)

Treat chronic pain long-term

d)

Substitute for routine immunizations

58.

Exchange transfusion (erythrocytapheresis) in sickle cell disease is primarily used to:

a)

Increase iron stores quickly

b)

Replace sickled cells with normal RBCs to reduce viscosity and hypoxia

c)

Treat mild anemia at home

d)

Prevent dehydration only

59.

Which immunization is routinely given at birth?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Varicella

d)

MMR

60.

For infants, the recommended injection site for most vaccines is:

a)

Deltoid muscle

b)

Vastus lateralis (anterolateral thigh)

c)

Ventrogluteal

d)

Dorsogluteal

61.

Which of the following is a live vaccine?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

c)

Tdap (adolescent/adult)

d)

Inactivated influenza injection

62.

After receiving IVIG, a child should avoid live vaccines for approximately how long?

a)

2 weeks

b)

6 weeks

c)

11 months

d)

5 years

63.

A parent asks about normal reactions to vaccines. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

My child may have low-grade fever and soreness for a day or two.

b)

If there is redness after a shot, that means the vaccine is bad.

c)

Muscle aches for several weeks is expected.

d)

Never give fever reducers after vaccinations.

64.

The nurse is preparing to administer the influenza nasal spray vaccine. Which statement is true?

a)

It is a live attenuated vaccine and is given intranasally.

b)

It is an inactivated vaccine given IM.

c)

It is contraindicated in all children under 18.

d)

It is given only to children with severe egg allergy.

65.

Which vaccine can be started as early as age 9 to prevent a common STI?

a)

Rotavirus

b)

HPV (human papillomavirus)

c)

Varicella

d)

MMR

66.

A hospitalized toddler begins to cry inconsolably and clings to a parent after separation. This behavior is characteristic of which stage of separation response?

a)

Protest

b)

Despair

c)

Detachment

d)

Denial

67.

A child in the despair phase of separation may display:

a)

Persistent crying and protest

b)

Cessation of crying, withdrawal, and decreased activity

c)

Increased play and social interaction

d)

Hostile outbursts towards staff only

68.

Which intervention best supports a child's coping during hospitalization?

a)

Avoid parental presence to encourage independence

b)

Use therapeutic play and allow parent involvement when possible

c)

Restrict visiting hours to one short block per day

d)

Withhold toys to prevent injury

69.

Which family reaction is common when a child is hospitalized?

a)

Immediate acceptance and relief

b)

Helplessness and anxiety about the child’s condition

c)

Total denial of the illness with no questions asked

d)

Complete refusal to participate in care

70.

Which measure is recommended to reduce SIDS risk?

a)

Placing infant prone to sleep

b)

Bedsharing with parents at all times

c)

Placing infant supine to sleep

d)

Using soft bedding in the crib

71.

A child life specialist is part of the collaborative team primarily to:

a)

Prescribe medications for anxiety

b)

Provide developmentally appropriate play, preparation, and coping strategies

c)

Perform invasive procedures when parents are absent

d)

Diagnose psychiatric disorders

72.

The case manager’s role in pediatric hospitalization most often includes:

a)

Performing surgery if needed

b)

Coordinating discharge planning, home care referrals, and services

c)

Administering blood products

d)

Prescribing long-term medications

73.

Which intervention is appropriate to help a school-age child cope with chronic illness and maintain industry?

a)

Remove school work until full recovery

b)

Encourage participation in age-appropriate tasks and school reintegration when possible

c)

Prevent peer contact to avoid infection

d)

Avoid discussing illness with the child

74.

When collaborating with parents about a procedure, the nurse should:

a)

Exclude them to minimize stress for the child

b)

Provide age-appropriate explanation and involve them when appropriate

c)

Tell them only after the procedure is completed

d)

Require them to sign a waiver to be present