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WorksheetsCardiac
Total questions: 165
Worksheet time: 28hrs 30mins
Which hormones are released when the sympathetic nervous system is activated?
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Acetylcholine from the vagus nerve
Dopamine and serotonin
Cortisol and aldosterone
Which hormone is primarily released with the parasympathetic nervous system?
Epinephrine from the vagus nerve
Acetylcholine from the vagus nerve
Norepinephrine from the vagus nerve
Cortisol from the vagus nerve
Which reflex involves mechanoreceptors detecting changes in pressure?
Bainbridge reflex
Baroreceptor reflex
Chemoreceptor reflex
Valsalva maneuver
Which reflex describes increased venous return stretching receptors of the right atrium, sending vagal signals to the medulla, and resulting in increased heart rate?
Baroreceptor reflex
Bainbridge reflex
Chemoreceptor reflex
Valsalva maneuver
Which reflex uses chemosensitive cells that respond to changes in pH status and blood oxygen tension?
Bainbridge reflex
Baroreceptor reflex
Chemoreceptor reflex
Valsalva maneuver
Which maneuver involves forced expiration against a closed glottis, producing increased intrathoracic pressure, increased venous pressure, and decreased venous return?
Baroreceptor reflex
Bainbridge reflex
Chemoreceptor reflex
Valsalva maneuver
The contraction phase of the heart is called:
Systole
Diastole
Stroke volume
Cardiac output
The relaxation/repolarization phase of the heart is called:
Stroke volume
Diastole
Systole
Venous return
Which term describes the volume of blood ejected by each contraction of the left ventricle (normal range 60–80 ml)?
Cardiac output
Stroke volume
Venous return
Plasma
Which term describes the amount of blood pumped from the left or right ventricle per minute (normal at rest 4.5–5 L/min; during exercise up to 25 L/min)?
Venous return
Plasma
Cardiac output
Stroke volume
Which term describes the amount of blood that returns to the right atrium each minute?
Cardiac output
Stroke volume
Venous return
Plasma
Which blood component is the liquid portion that consists of water, electrolytes, and proteins, helping regulate blood pressure and temperature?
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Plasma
Platelets
Which blood cells contain hemoglobin, give blood its red color, and bind with oxygen?
Red blood cells (RBCs)
White blood cells (WBCs)
Platelets
Plasma cells
Which condition is described as too few red blood cells, resulting in fatigue and weakness?
Polycythemia
Thrombocythemia
Anemia
Leukocytosis
Which condition is described as too many red blood cells, making blood too thick and increasing the risk of stroke or heart attack?
Thrombocytopenia
Polycythemia
Anemia
Leukopenia
Which blood cells are also called thrombocytes, functioning in clotting and forming plugs to seal blood vessels?
White blood cells
Red blood cells
Platelets
Plasma
Which condition is described as low platelet count, increasing risk of bruising and abnormal bleeding?
Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocythemia
Polycythemia
Anemia
Which condition is described as too many platelets, increasing the risk of thrombosis, stroke, or heart attack?
Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocythemia
Polycythemia
Anemia
Which blood cells, also called leukocytes, protect the body against infections?
Platelets
White blood cells (WBC)
Red blood cells
Plasma
A condition with low white blood cell count, increasing risk of infection is called:
Leukocytosis
Leukopenia
Polycythemia
Anemia
A condition with increased white blood cell count, often indicating infection or leukemia is called:
Leukopenia
Leukocytosis
Thrombocytopenia
Eosinophilia
Which of the following are the five main types of white blood cells?
Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
Platelets, lymphocytes, plasma, RBCs, neutrophils
Neutrophils, thrombocytes, plasma, basophils, eosinophils
Lymphocytes, plasma cells, neutrophils, RBCs, platelets
Which type of WBC protects the body against infections by ingesting bacteria and debris?
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Which type of WBC includes T cells and natural killer cells (fighting viruses and cancer) and B cells that produce antibodies?
Lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Which WBCs ingest dead or damaged cells and defend against infectious organisms?
Monocytes
Basophils
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Which WBCs kill parasites, destroy cancer cells, and are involved in allergic responses?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Which WBCs participate in allergic responses?
Basophils
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
A localized abnormal dilation of a blood vessel, usually an artery, often caused by chronic hypertension or connective tissue disease, is called:
Aneurysm
Angina
Atherosclerosis
Cardiomyopathy
Which condition may present with generalized abdominal or low back pain?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Cerebral aneurysm
Aortic aneurysm
CAD
Which condition may present with pulsations near the navel?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Cerebral aneurysm
Thoracic aneurysm
Angina pectoris
Which condition may present with sudden severe headache, nausea, vomiting, stiff neck, seizure, loss of consciousness, or double vision?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Cerebral aneurysm
Aortic aneurysm
CVI
A condition described as transient chest pressure or discomfort from myocardial ischemia is called:
Angina pectoris
Atherosclerosis
Myocardial infarction
Cor Pulmonale
Which type of angina occurs predictably with exertion or stress and responds to rest or nitroglycerin?
Unstable angina
Stable angina
Variant angina
Nocturnal angina
Which type of angina is more intense, lasts longer, occurs at rest, and is progressive?
Stable angina
Unstable angina
Variant angina
Atherosclerotic angina
Which condition involves the accumulation of fatty plaques in artery walls, restricting blood flow and potentially causing clots?
Atherosclerosis
CAD
CVI
DVT
Which condition describes damage to veins and valves in the lower extremities, impairing return of blood to the heart?
CAD
DVT
Chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)
Cor Pulmonale
Which condition, also called pulmonary heart disease, involves hypertrophy of the right ventricle due to pulmonary pathology?
CAD
CHF
Cor Pulmonale
Cardiomyopathy
Which condition involves narrowing or blockage of coronary arteries due to plaques?
CAD
CVI
Atherosclerosis
CHF
Which condition describes a blood clot in deep veins of the lower extremities that can result in pulmonary embolism?
CHF
CAD
DVT
Aneurysm
Which condition is a progressive inability of the heart to maintain cardiac output, often from LV weakness?
CHF (heart failure)
Cardiomyopathy
Cor Pulmonale
CAD
Signs and symptoms: heart palpitations, SOB, chest pain, coughing, ankle swelling, and fatigue
What condition does this describe?
Coronary Artery Disease
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Valvular heart disease
DVT
Which condition is a disease of the heart muscle causing enlargement, thickening, or stiffening, making pumping less efficient?
Cardiomyopathy
CHF
CAD
Aneurysm
Etiology: HTN, high cholesterol, smoking, or diabetes.
Signs and symptoms:
Coronary arteries: angina pectoris
Cerebral arteries: numbness, weakness, difficulty speaking, drooping face
Peripheral arteries: intermittent claudication
What condition does this describe?
Atherosclerosis
Coronary Artery Disease
Hypertension
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Etiology: obesity, pregnancy, prolonged sitting or standing.
Signs and symptoms: leg swelling, varicose veins, aching, heaviness or cramping, itching, redness, skin ulcers.
What condition does this describe?
Coronary Artery Disease
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Atherosclerosis
Heart Failure
Etiology: pulmonary hypertension.
Signs and symptoms: SOB with exertion, fatigue, palpitations, atypical chest pain, swelling of LE, dizziness, syncope.
What condition does this describe?
Heart Failure
Deep Vein Thrombosis
Cor Pulmonale
Hypertension
Etiology: high cholesterol, diabetes mellitus, smoking, obesity, physical inactivity.
Signs and symptoms: angina; >70% occlusion may cause heart attack.
What condition does this describe?
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Hypertension
Coronary Artery Disease
Atherosclerosis
Etiology: prolonged sitting or bed rest, pregnancy, cancer, hormone therapy, overweight/obesity, smoking.
Signs and symptoms: swelling, pain, redness, warmth in affected leg.
What condition does this describe?
Hypertension
Heart Failure
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Deep Vein Thrombosis
Etiology: CAD, HTN, DM, MI, abnormal valves, cardiomyopathy.
Signs and symptoms: SOB, fatigue, swelling in legs/abdomen, irregular heartbeat, persistent cough, weight gain from fluid retention.
What condition does this describe?
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Coronary Artery Disease
Hypertension
Heart Failure (CHF)
Etiology: often unknown. Secondary form may be due to renal disease.
Signs and symptoms: S4 heart sound, chest pain, dyspnea, CNS symptoms (confusion, seizures).
What condition does this describe?
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
Heart Failure
Cor Pulmonale
A patient with a history of right ventricular myocardial infarction presents with swelling in the lower extremities, jugular vein distention, enlarged liver and spleen, ascites, cyanosis, fatigue, nausea, and weight gain from fluid retention. What is the most likely condition?
Left-sided Heart Failure
Hypertension
Coronary Artery Disease
Right-sided Heart Failure
A patient presents with shortness of breath, difficulty breathing when lying down, nocturnal dyspnea, spasmodic cough with pink frothy sputum, fatigue, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and decreased urine output. What is the most likely condition?
Left-sided Heart Failure
Hypertension
Coronary Artery Disease
Right-sided Heart Failure
A patient is prescribed low-level exercise, including warm-up and cool-down, with careful monitoring of vital signs before, during, and after activity. The patient is advised to avoid isometric exercises or heavy lifting. What is the purpose of this exercise prescription?
Exercise prescription for hypertension
Exercise prescription for left-sided heart failure
Exercise prescription for chronic venous insufficiency
Exercise prescription for DVT
Which blood pressure reading is considered normal?
<120 / <80 mmHg
120–129 / <80 mmHg
130–139 / 80–89 mmHg
140 / 90 mmHg
Which blood pressure range is considered elevated?
120–129 / <80 mmHg
130–139 / 80–89 mmHg
140–159 / 90–99 mmHg
180 / >120 mmHg
Which blood pressure range represents Stage 1 Hypertension?
<120 / <80 mmHg
120–129 / <80 mmHg
130–139 / 80–89 mmHg
140 / 90 mmHg
Which blood pressure range represents Stage 2 Hypertension?
130–139 / 80–89 mmHg
140 / 90 mmHg
120–129 / <80 mmHg
<120 / <80 mmHg
Which blood pressure range represents Hypertension Crisis?
130–139 / 80–89 mmHg
140 / 90 mmHg
120–129 / <80 mmHg
>180 / >120 mmHg
A patient presents with chest pressure and severe pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. Workup reveals irreversible necrosis of the myocardium caused by reduced or blocked blood flow through the coronary arteries. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
Atherosclerosis
Angina Pectoris
A patient complains of fatigue, aching, and numbness in the calf during walking. Physical exam shows poor wound healing in the feet, trophic skin changes, and hair loss on the legs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
Atherosclerosis
Deep Vein Thrombosis
A patient is found to have blood leaking backward through a valve due to improper closure. Imaging also shows stenosis from thickened and stiffened valve leaflets that do not open fully. Which condition is this?
Valvular Heart Disease
Heart Failure
Cardiomyopathy
Aortic Aneurysm
A patient is prescribed a medication that causes dilation of arterioles and veins, lowering blood pressure. What type of drug is this?
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
Diuretic agent
Anticoagulant agent
Cardura is an example of which type of drug?
Beta blocker agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Minipress is an example of which type of drug?
Beta blocker agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
A patient is prescribed medication that decreases blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Which type of drug is this?
Diuretic agent
Anticoagulant agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Beta blocker agent
Vasotec is classified as what type of drug?
ACE inhibitor agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Antithrombotic agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
Capoten is classified as what type of drug?
ACE inhibitor agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Antithrombotic agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
A patient is given medication that inhibits platelet aggregation and thrombus formation, also known as a “blood thinner.” Which drug type is this?
Antithrombotic agent
Anticoagulant agent
Diuretic agent
Beta blocker agent
Coumadin is classified as which type of drug?
Anticoagulant agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
Heparin is classified as which type of drug?
Anticoagulant agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
A patient with high cholesterol is prescribed medication that lowers LDL and triglycerides while raising HDL. What drug class is this?
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Diuretic agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
Lipitor belongs to which drug class?
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Antithrombotic agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Beta blocker agent
Zocor belongs to which drug class?
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Antithrombotic agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Beta blocker agent
A patient with a recent stent placement is prescribed a drug that inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation. What type of medication is this?
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Antithrombotic (antiplatelet) agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
Anticoagulant agent
Plavix is an example of which drug type?
Antithrombotic (antiplatelet) agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Diuretic agent
Bayer is an example of which drug type?
Antithrombotic (antiplatelet) agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Diuretic agent
A patient with hypertension is prescribed a medication that reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility. What drug class is this?
ACE inhibitor agent
Beta blocker agent
Diuretic agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
Lopressor belongs to which drug class?
Beta blocker agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Anticoagulant agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
Tenormin belongs to which drug class?
Beta blocker agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Anticoagulant agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
A patient is prescribed a medication that decreases calcium entry into vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation and reduced oxygen demand of the heart. Which drug class is this?
Calcium channel blocker agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Beta blocker agent
Anticoagulant agent
Procardia is classified as which type of drug?
Calcium channel blocker agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
Antithrombotic agent
Cardizen is classified as which type of drug?
Calcium channel blocker agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
Antithrombotic agent
A patient is prescribed a medication that increases sodium and water excretion, reducing plasma volume and blood pressure. What drug class is this?
Diuretic agent
Beta blocker agent
Anticoagulant agent
Antihyperlipidemia agent
Lasix is an example of which drug type?
Diuretic agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Antithrombotic agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
Diuril is an example of which drug type?
Diuretic agent
ACE inhibitor agent
Antithrombotic agent
Calcium channel blocker agent
A procedure involving a balloon-tipped catheter expanded inside a stenotic artery, often followed by stent placement to reduce risk of restenosis. What is this called?
Balloon angioplasty
CABG
Heart transplant
Ventricular assist device
A surgically implanted, battery-powered device placed in the left anterior chest to prevent slow heart rate, fatigue, and fainting is known as:
Cardiac pacemaker
Ventricular assist device
Heart transplant
CABG
A surgical procedure rerouting blood around narrowed or occluded coronary arteries using grafts from the saphenous vein, internal thoracic artery, or radial artery is called:
CABG
Balloon angioplasty
Heart transplant
Cardiac pacemaker
Replacement of a failing heart with a healthy donor heart in patients with end-stage heart failure, CAD, or valvular disease is called:
Heart transplant
CABG
Balloon angioplasty
Ventricular assist device
A miniature pump implanted in the chest that provides mechanical support to the ventricles, often used while waiting for a transplant, is called:
Ventricular assist device
CABG
Balloon angioplasty
Cardiac pacemaker
What angina pain scale rating describes mild, barely noticeable pain?
1
2
3
4
What angina pain scale rating describes moderate, bothersome pain?
1
2
3
4
What angina pain scale rating describes moderately severe, very uncomfortable pain?
1
2
3
4
What angina pain scale rating describes the most severe or intense pain ever experienced?
1
2
3
4
If a patient’s ABI value is greater than 1.4, what does this indicate?
Rigid, hardened arteries (ultrasound needed)
Normal, no blockage
Mild blockage, early PAD
Severe blockage with claudication at rest
An ABI rating between 1.0–1.4 is classified as:
Normal; no blockage
Mild blockage
Moderate blockage
Severe blockage
An ABI rating between 0.8–0.99 indicates:
Mild blockage, early PAD
Normal; no blockage
Moderate blockage
Severe blockage
An ABI rating between 0.4–0.79 indicates:
Moderate blockage, intermittent claudication
Normal; no blockage
Severe blockage at rest
Mild blockage
An ABI rating less than 0.4 indicates:
Severe blockage with claudication pain at rest
Normal; no blockage
Mild blockage, early PAD
Moderate blockage
Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the aortic area?
2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
2nd intercostal space, left sternal border
4th intercostal space, left sternal border
5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line
Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the pulmonic area?
2nd intercostal space, left sternal border
2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
4th intercostal space, left sternal border
5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line
Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the mitral area?
5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line
2nd intercostal space, left sternal border
4th intercostal space, left sternal border
2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the tricuspid area?
4th intercostal space, left sternal border
5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line
2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
2nd intercostal space, left sternal border
Which heart sound (lub) represents closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the onset of ventricular systole?
S1
S2
S3
S4
Which heart sound (dub) represents closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the onset of ventricular diastole?
S1
S2
S3
S4
Which heart sound is normal in children but abnormal in adults, often associated with heart failure, and called a “ventricular gallop”?
S1
S2
S3
S4
Which heart sound is linked to vibration during atrial contraction, associated with HTN, stenosis, or MI, and called an “atrial gallop”?
S1
S2
S3
S4
A soft, blowing, swishing sound heard due to blood flow disruption past a stenotic or regurgitant valve is called:
Heart murmur
S2
S3
S4
Leaflets that fail to close tightly, allowing backward blood flow, describe which condition?
Regurgitation
Stenosis
Aneurysm
Heart murmur
What BMI classification corresponds to < 18.5?
Underweight
Normal
Overweight
Obesity (Class 1)
What BMI classification corresponds to 18.5–24.9?
Underweight
Normal
Overweight
Obesity (Class 1)
What BMI classification corresponds to 25–29.9?
Extreme obesity (Class 3)
Overweight
Obesity (Class 2)
Obesity (Class 1)
What BMI classification corresponds to 30–34.9?
Extreme obesity (Class 3)
Overweight
Obesity (Class 2)
Obesity (Class 1)
What BMI classification corresponds to 35–39.9?
Extreme obesity (Class 3)
Overweight
Obesity (Class 2)
Obesity (Class 1)
What BMI classification corresponds to > 40?
Extreme obesity (Class 3)
Overweight
Obesity (Class 2)
Obesity (Class 1)
Applying pressure to a nail bed until it blanches, then releasing and measuring the time it takes to regain color, tests for:
Capillary refill time
Pulse oximetry
ABI
Angina pain scale
What capillary refill time is considered normal?
< 2 seconds
2 seconds
0.12–0.20 seconds
0.20–0.40 seconds
What capillary refill time indicates compromised blood flow?
< 2 seconds
2 seconds
0.12–0.20 seconds
0.20–0.40 seconds
A 12-lead recording that graphically represents the heart’s electrical activity and is used to assess cardiac rhythm, ischemia, or infarction is called:
Electrocardiogram
Capillary refill test
Stress echocardiogram
ABI
Which ECG wave represents atrial depolarization?
P wave
QRS complex
T wave
ST segment
Which ECG interval represents atrial depolarization and conduction from the SA node to the AV node?
PR interval
QT interval
QRS complex
ST segment
What is the normal duration of the PR interval?
0.12–0.20 seconds
< 2 seconds
0.20–0.40 seconds
0.06–0.10 seconds
Which ECG waveform represents ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization?
QRS complex
P wave
T wave
ST segment
What is the normal duration of the QRS complex?
0.12–0.20 seconds
0.20–0.40 seconds
0.06–0.10 seconds
< 2 seconds
Which ECG interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization?
PR interval
QT interval
QRS complex
P wave
What is the normal duration of the QT interval?
0.06–0.10 seconds
0.12–0.20 seconds
< 2 seconds
0.20–0.40 seconds
Which ECG segment represents the isoelectric period after the QRS when ventricles are depolarized?
P wave
ST segment
QT interval
T wave
Which ECG wave represents ventricular repolarization?
T wave
P wave
QRS complex
ST segment
What is the term for a heart rate less than 60 bpm?
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Arrhythmia
Normal sinus rhythm
A heart rate between 60–100 bpm with normal conduction from the SA node is called:
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Arrhythmia
Normal sinus rhythm
A heart rate greater than 100 bpm is called:
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Arrhythmia
Normal sinus rhythm
A sinus rhythm with slight beat-to-beat variation in rate due to impulse formation in the SA node is called:
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Arrhythmia
Normal sinus rhythm
Intermittent failure of SA node impulse formation or AV node conduction, resulting in absence of P or QRS waves, is called:
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Arrhythmia
Sinus arrest
An exercise test that monitors ECG, HR, BP, and symptoms while treadmill or cycle workload increases is called:
Exercise stress testing
Capillary refill test
Homan’s sign
ABI
Which of the following is an absolute indication for terminating an exercise test?
Drop in SBP > 10 mmHg from baseline despite workload
Mild fatigue
HR increase with workload
Sweating
Passive dorsiflexion of the foot with the knee straight causing pain in the calf or popliteal space is a positive test for:
DVT
Varicose Veins
Aneurysm
Left Side Heart Failure
What is the test called when you perform passive dorsiflexion of the foot with the knee straight causing pain in the calf or popliteal space?
Where do you palpate the dorsalis pedis artery?
Center of the long axis of the foot, between first and second metatarsal bones
Upper thigh, one-third distance from pubis to ASIS
Wrist, radial side
Behind the knee
A patient develops angina during a treadmill stress test. The pain is rated as moderately severe (3 on angina scale). What should the clinician do?
Continue the test with reduced workload
Terminate the test immediately
Increase treadmill grade
Give additional warm-up time
During an exercise stress test, a patient shows nervous system symptoms such as ataxia and dizziness. What is the appropriate action?
Continue the test while monitoring symptoms
Terminate the test immediately
Increase speed of treadmill to confirm symptoms
Switch to upper extremity ergometer
A patient demonstrates cyanosis and pallor while exercising during a cardiac stress test. This indicates:
Poor perfusion and the test should be terminated
Normal response to exertion
Dehydration that will resolve with rest
Appropriate warm-up reaction
During exercise stress testing, sustained ventricular tachycardia is observed on the ECG. The proper response is:
Terminate the test immediately
Decrease resistance and continue monitoring
Encourage patient to keep exercising through arrhythmia
Ignore unless symptoms appear
Which of the following ECG findings is an absolute indication to terminate an exercise stress test?
1.0 mm ST elevation in leads without diagnostic Q waves
T wave inversion in recovery
PR interval shortening
QRS duration of 0.08 sec
A patient performing an exercise stress test complains of fatigue, shortness of breath, wheezing, leg cramps, and claudication. The appropriate action is:
Terminate the test immediately
Continue with lower resistance
Encourage patient to push through
Stop test only if angina occurs
A patient’s blood pressure rises to 260/120 mmHg during exercise stress testing. This is considered:
Hypertensive response and an absolute indication to terminate the test
Normal response to high intensity exercise
Hypotensive reaction requiring fluids
Sign of mild overexertion, continue with caution
What is the normal resting heart rate for an infant?
60–100 bpm
80–100 bpm
100–130 bpm
130–150 bpm
What is the normal resting heart rate for a child?
40–60 bpm
60–100 bpm
80–100 bpm
100–130 bpm
What is the normal resting heart rate for an adult?
40–60 bpm
60–100 bpm
80–100 bpm
100–130 bpm
A heart rate pulse grade of 3+ indicates:
Small or reduced pulsation
Normal pulsation
Large or bounding pulsation
Absence of pulsation
A heart rate pulse grade of 2+ indicates:
Small or reduced pulsation
Normal pulsation
Large or bounding pulsation
Absence of pulsation
A heart rate pulse grade of 1+ indicates:
Absence of pulsation
Small or reduced pulsation
Normal pulsation
Large or bounding pulsation
A heart rate pulse grade of 0 indicates:
Small or reduced pulsation
Normal pulsation
Large or bounding pulsation
Absence of pulsation
Which measure is calculated by multiplying heart rate (HR) and systolic blood pressure (SBP) to estimate myocardial oxygen demand?
Cardiac Output (CO)
Rate Pressure Product (RPP)
Stroke Volume (SV)
Ejection Fraction (EF)
Which scale is commonly used to measure a patient’s subjective perception of exertion during exercise?
Modified Rankin Scale
Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) Scale
Glasgow Coma Scale
Visual Analog Scale
On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 7 corresponds to:
Fairly light
Very light
Hard
Very, very light
On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 9 corresponds to:
Very light
Fairly light
Somewhat hard
Very hard
On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 11 corresponds to:
Very, very light
Very light
Fairly light
Hard
On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 13 corresponds to:
Fairly light
Somewhat hard
Hard
Very hard
On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 15 corresponds to:
Somewhat hard
Hard
Very hard
Very, very hard
On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 17 corresponds to:
Fairly light
Hard
Very hard
Very, very hard
On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 19 corresponds to:
Hard
Very hard
Very, very hard
Fairly light
Which functional test requires the patient to walk along a 100-foot track or treadmill for six minutes while monitoring vitals and exertion?
Bruce Treadmill Test
Six-Minute Walk Test (6MWT)
VO₂ Max Test
Shuttle Run Test
How is maximum heart rate (HRmax) commonly estimated?
HRmax = Stroke Volume × SBP
HRmax = 220 – Age
HRmax = 200 – Age
HRmax = 180 – Age
Which of the following is a normal cardiorespiratory response to acute aerobic exercise?
Decrease in SBP with increasing workload
Linear increase in SBP by 8–12 mmHg per MET
Significant rise in DBP with workload
Decrease in oxygen consumption during exercise
Which of the following occurs with DBP during normal aerobic exercise?
Increases significantly
Decreases moderately or remains unchanged
Drops sharply below baseline
Rises proportionally with SBP
During normal aerobic exercise, which of the following best describes oxygen consumption?
Decreases as workload increases
Remains stable regardless of workload
Increases due to higher cardiac output and muscle oxygen utilization
Only increases with anaerobic threshold
