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Worksheets

Cardiac

Total questions: 165

Worksheet time: 28hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which hormones are released when the sympathetic nervous system is activated?

a)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

Acetylcholine from the vagus nerve

c)

Dopamine and serotonin

d)

Cortisol and aldosterone

2.

Which hormone is primarily released with the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Epinephrine from the vagus nerve

b)

Acetylcholine from the vagus nerve

c)

Norepinephrine from the vagus nerve

d)

Cortisol from the vagus nerve

3.

Which reflex involves mechanoreceptors detecting changes in pressure?

a)

Bainbridge reflex

b)

Baroreceptor reflex

c)

Chemoreceptor reflex

d)

Valsalva maneuver

4.

Which reflex describes increased venous return stretching receptors of the right atrium, sending vagal signals to the medulla, and resulting in increased heart rate?

a)

Baroreceptor reflex

b)

Bainbridge reflex

c)

Chemoreceptor reflex

d)

Valsalva maneuver

5.

Which reflex uses chemosensitive cells that respond to changes in pH status and blood oxygen tension?

a)

Bainbridge reflex

b)

Baroreceptor reflex

c)

Chemoreceptor reflex

d)

Valsalva maneuver

6.

Which maneuver involves forced expiration against a closed glottis, producing increased intrathoracic pressure, increased venous pressure, and decreased venous return?

a)

Baroreceptor reflex

b)

Bainbridge reflex

c)

Chemoreceptor reflex

d)

Valsalva maneuver

7.

The contraction phase of the heart is called:

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

c)

Stroke volume

d)

Cardiac output

8.

The relaxation/repolarization phase of the heart is called:

a)

Stroke volume

b)

Diastole

c)

Systole

d)

Venous return

9.

Which term describes the volume of blood ejected by each contraction of the left ventricle (normal range 60–80 ml)?

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Stroke volume

c)

Venous return

d)

Plasma

10.

Which term describes the amount of blood pumped from the left or right ventricle per minute (normal at rest 4.5–5 L/min; during exercise up to 25 L/min)?

a)

Venous return

b)

Plasma

c)

Cardiac output

d)

Stroke volume

11.

Which term describes the amount of blood that returns to the right atrium each minute?

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Stroke volume

c)

Venous return

d)

Plasma

12.

Which blood component is the liquid portion that consists of water, electrolytes, and proteins, helping regulate blood pressure and temperature?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

Plasma

d)

Platelets

13.

Which blood cells contain hemoglobin, give blood its red color, and bind with oxygen?

a)

Red blood cells (RBCs)

b)

White blood cells (WBCs)

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma cells

14.

Which condition is described as too few red blood cells, resulting in fatigue and weakness?

a)

Polycythemia

b)

Thrombocythemia

c)

Anemia

d)

Leukocytosis

15.

Which condition is described as too many red blood cells, making blood too thick and increasing the risk of stroke or heart attack?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Anemia

d)

Leukopenia

16.

Which blood cells are also called thrombocytes, functioning in clotting and forming plugs to seal blood vessels?

a)

White blood cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

17.

Which condition is described as low platelet count, increasing risk of bruising and abnormal bleeding?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Thrombocythemia

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Anemia

18.

Which condition is described as too many platelets, increasing the risk of thrombosis, stroke, or heart attack?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Thrombocythemia

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Anemia

19.

Which blood cells, also called leukocytes, protect the body against infections?

a)

Platelets

b)

White blood cells (WBC)

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Plasma

20.

A condition with low white blood cell count, increasing risk of infection is called:

a)

Leukocytosis

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Anemia

21.

A condition with increased white blood cell count, often indicating infection or leukemia is called:

a)

Leukopenia

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Eosinophilia

22.

Which of the following are the five main types of white blood cells?

a)

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

b)

Platelets, lymphocytes, plasma, RBCs, neutrophils

c)

Neutrophils, thrombocytes, plasma, basophils, eosinophils

d)

Lymphocytes, plasma cells, neutrophils, RBCs, platelets

23.

Which type of WBC protects the body against infections by ingesting bacteria and debris?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Basophils

24.

Which type of WBC includes T cells and natural killer cells (fighting viruses and cancer) and B cells that produce antibodies?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocytes

25.

Which WBCs ingest dead or damaged cells and defend against infectious organisms?

a)

Monocytes

b)

Basophils

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

26.

Which WBCs kill parasites, destroy cancer cells, and are involved in allergic responses?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Lymphocytes

27.

Which WBCs participate in allergic responses?

a)

Basophils

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Eosinophils

28.

A localized abnormal dilation of a blood vessel, usually an artery, often caused by chronic hypertension or connective tissue disease, is called:

a)

Aneurysm

b)

Angina

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Cardiomyopathy

29.

Which condition may present with generalized abdominal or low back pain?

a)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

b)

Cerebral aneurysm

c)

Aortic aneurysm

d)

CAD

30.

Which condition may present with pulsations near the navel?

a)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

b)

Cerebral aneurysm

c)

Thoracic aneurysm

d)

Angina pectoris

31.

Which condition may present with sudden severe headache, nausea, vomiting, stiff neck, seizure, loss of consciousness, or double vision?

a)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

b)

Cerebral aneurysm

c)

Aortic aneurysm

d)

CVI

32.

A condition described as transient chest pressure or discomfort from myocardial ischemia is called:

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Cor Pulmonale

33.

Which type of angina occurs predictably with exertion or stress and responds to rest or nitroglycerin?

a)

Unstable angina

b)

Stable angina

c)

Variant angina

d)

Nocturnal angina

34.

Which type of angina is more intense, lasts longer, occurs at rest, and is progressive?

a)

Stable angina

b)

Unstable angina

c)

Variant angina

d)

Atherosclerotic angina

35.

Which condition involves the accumulation of fatty plaques in artery walls, restricting blood flow and potentially causing clots?

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

CAD

c)

CVI

d)

DVT

36.

Which condition describes damage to veins and valves in the lower extremities, impairing return of blood to the heart?

a)

CAD

b)

DVT

c)

Chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)

d)

Cor Pulmonale

37.

Which condition, also called pulmonary heart disease, involves hypertrophy of the right ventricle due to pulmonary pathology?

a)

CAD

b)

CHF

c)

Cor Pulmonale

d)

Cardiomyopathy

38.

Which condition involves narrowing or blockage of coronary arteries due to plaques?

a)

CAD

b)

CVI

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

CHF

39.

Which condition describes a blood clot in deep veins of the lower extremities that can result in pulmonary embolism?

a)

CHF

b)

CAD

c)

DVT

d)

Aneurysm

40.

Which condition is a progressive inability of the heart to maintain cardiac output, often from LV weakness?

a)

CHF (heart failure)

b)

Cardiomyopathy

c)

Cor Pulmonale

d)

CAD

41.

Signs and symptoms: heart palpitations, SOB, chest pain, coughing, ankle swelling, and fatigue

What condition does this describe?

a)

Coronary Artery Disease

b)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

c)

Valvular heart disease

d)

DVT

42.

Which condition is a disease of the heart muscle causing enlargement, thickening, or stiffening, making pumping less efficient?

a)

Cardiomyopathy

b)

CHF

c)

CAD

d)

Aneurysm

43.

Etiology: HTN, high cholesterol, smoking, or diabetes.

Signs and symptoms:

Coronary arteries: angina pectoris

Cerebral arteries: numbness, weakness, difficulty speaking, drooping face

Peripheral arteries: intermittent claudication

What condition does this describe?

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Coronary Artery Disease

c)

Hypertension

d)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

44.

Etiology: obesity, pregnancy, prolonged sitting or standing.

Signs and symptoms: leg swelling, varicose veins, aching, heaviness or cramping, itching, redness, skin ulcers.

What condition does this describe?

a)

Coronary Artery Disease

b)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Heart Failure

45.

Etiology: pulmonary hypertension.

Signs and symptoms: SOB with exertion, fatigue, palpitations, atypical chest pain, swelling of LE, dizziness, syncope.

What condition does this describe?

a)

Heart Failure

b)

Deep Vein Thrombosis

c)

Cor Pulmonale

d)

Hypertension

46.

Etiology: high cholesterol, diabetes mellitus, smoking, obesity, physical inactivity.

Signs and symptoms: angina; >70% occlusion may cause heart attack.

What condition does this describe?

a)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

b)

Hypertension

c)

Coronary Artery Disease

d)

Atherosclerosis

47.

Etiology: prolonged sitting or bed rest, pregnancy, cancer, hormone therapy, overweight/obesity, smoking.

Signs and symptoms: swelling, pain, redness, warmth in affected leg.

What condition does this describe?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart Failure

c)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

d)

Deep Vein Thrombosis

48.

Etiology: CAD, HTN, DM, MI, abnormal valves, cardiomyopathy.

Signs and symptoms: SOB, fatigue, swelling in legs/abdomen, irregular heartbeat, persistent cough, weight gain from fluid retention.

What condition does this describe?

a)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

b)

Coronary Artery Disease

c)

Hypertension

d)

Heart Failure (CHF)

49.

Etiology: often unknown. Secondary form may be due to renal disease.

Signs and symptoms: S4 heart sound, chest pain, dyspnea, CNS symptoms (confusion, seizures).

What condition does this describe?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Heart Failure

d)

Cor Pulmonale

50.

A patient with a history of right ventricular myocardial infarction presents with swelling in the lower extremities, jugular vein distention, enlarged liver and spleen, ascites, cyanosis, fatigue, nausea, and weight gain from fluid retention. What is the most likely condition?

a)

Left-sided Heart Failure

b)

Hypertension

c)

Coronary Artery Disease

d)

Right-sided Heart Failure

51.

A patient presents with shortness of breath, difficulty breathing when lying down, nocturnal dyspnea, spasmodic cough with pink frothy sputum, fatigue, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and decreased urine output. What is the most likely condition?

a)

Left-sided Heart Failure

b)

Hypertension

c)

Coronary Artery Disease

d)

Right-sided Heart Failure

52.

A patient is prescribed low-level exercise, including warm-up and cool-down, with careful monitoring of vital signs before, during, and after activity. The patient is advised to avoid isometric exercises or heavy lifting. What is the purpose of this exercise prescription?

a)

Exercise prescription for hypertension

b)

Exercise prescription for left-sided heart failure

c)

Exercise prescription for chronic venous insufficiency

d)

Exercise prescription for DVT

53.

Which blood pressure reading is considered normal?

a)

<120 / <80 mmHg

b)

120–129 / <80 mmHg

c)

130–139 / 80–89 mmHg

d)

140 / 90 mmHg

54.

Which blood pressure range is considered elevated?

a)

120–129 / <80 mmHg

b)

130–139 / 80–89 mmHg

c)

140–159 / 90–99 mmHg

d)

180 / >120 mmHg

55.

Which blood pressure range represents Stage 1 Hypertension?

a)

<120 / <80 mmHg

b)

120–129 / <80 mmHg

c)

130–139 / 80–89 mmHg

d)

140 / 90 mmHg

56.

Which blood pressure range represents Stage 2 Hypertension?

a)

130–139 / 80–89 mmHg

b)

140 / 90 mmHg

c)

120–129 / <80 mmHg

d)

<120 / <80 mmHg

57.

Which blood pressure range represents Hypertension Crisis?

a)

130–139 / 80–89 mmHg

b)

140 / 90 mmHg

c)

120–129 / <80 mmHg

d)

>180 / >120 mmHg

58.

A patient presents with chest pressure and severe pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. Workup reveals irreversible necrosis of the myocardium caused by reduced or blocked blood flow through the coronary arteries. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

b)

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Angina Pectoris

59.

A patient complains of fatigue, aching, and numbness in the calf during walking. Physical exam shows poor wound healing in the feet, trophic skin changes, and hair loss on the legs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)

b)

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Deep Vein Thrombosis

60.

A patient is found to have blood leaking backward through a valve due to improper closure. Imaging also shows stenosis from thickened and stiffened valve leaflets that do not open fully. Which condition is this?

a)

Valvular Heart Disease

b)

Heart Failure

c)

Cardiomyopathy

d)

Aortic Aneurysm

61.

A patient is prescribed a medication that causes dilation of arterioles and veins, lowering blood pressure. What type of drug is this?

a)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

b)

Calcium channel blocker agent

c)

Diuretic agent

d)

Anticoagulant agent

62.

Cardura is an example of which type of drug?

a)

Beta blocker agent

b)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

63.

Minipress is an example of which type of drug?

a)

Beta blocker agent

b)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

64.

A patient is prescribed medication that decreases blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Which type of drug is this?

a)

Diuretic agent

b)

Anticoagulant agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Beta blocker agent

65.

Vasotec is classified as what type of drug?

a)

ACE inhibitor agent

b)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

c)

Antithrombotic agent

d)

Calcium channel blocker agent

66.

Capoten is classified as what type of drug?

a)

ACE inhibitor agent

b)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

c)

Antithrombotic agent

d)

Calcium channel blocker agent

67.

A patient is given medication that inhibits platelet aggregation and thrombus formation, also known as a “blood thinner.” Which drug type is this?

a)

Antithrombotic agent

b)

Anticoagulant agent

c)

Diuretic agent

d)

Beta blocker agent

68.

Coumadin is classified as which type of drug?

a)

Anticoagulant agent

b)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

69.

Heparin is classified as which type of drug?

a)

Anticoagulant agent

b)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

70.

A patient with high cholesterol is prescribed medication that lowers LDL and triglycerides while raising HDL. What drug class is this?

a)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

b)

Diuretic agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Calcium channel blocker agent

71.

Lipitor belongs to which drug class?

a)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

b)

Antithrombotic agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Beta blocker agent

72.

Zocor belongs to which drug class?

a)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

b)

Antithrombotic agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Beta blocker agent

73.

A patient with a recent stent placement is prescribed a drug that inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation. What type of medication is this?

a)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

b)

Antithrombotic (antiplatelet) agent

c)

Calcium channel blocker agent

d)

Anticoagulant agent

74.

Plavix is an example of which drug type?

a)

Antithrombotic (antiplatelet) agent

b)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Diuretic agent

75.

Bayer is an example of which drug type?

a)

Antithrombotic (antiplatelet) agent

b)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

c)

ACE inhibitor agent

d)

Diuretic agent

76.

A patient with hypertension is prescribed a medication that reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility. What drug class is this?

a)

ACE inhibitor agent

b)

Beta blocker agent

c)

Diuretic agent

d)

Calcium channel blocker agent

77.

Lopressor belongs to which drug class?

a)

Beta blocker agent

b)

ACE inhibitor agent

c)

Anticoagulant agent

d)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

78.

Tenormin belongs to which drug class?

a)

Beta blocker agent

b)

ACE inhibitor agent

c)

Anticoagulant agent

d)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

79.

A patient is prescribed a medication that decreases calcium entry into vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation and reduced oxygen demand of the heart. Which drug class is this?

a)

Calcium channel blocker agent

b)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

c)

Beta blocker agent

d)

Anticoagulant agent

80.

Procardia is classified as which type of drug?

a)

Calcium channel blocker agent

b)

ACE inhibitor agent

c)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

d)

Antithrombotic agent

81.

Cardizen is classified as which type of drug?

a)

Calcium channel blocker agent

b)

ACE inhibitor agent

c)

Alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

d)

Antithrombotic agent

82.

A patient is prescribed a medication that increases sodium and water excretion, reducing plasma volume and blood pressure. What drug class is this?

a)

Diuretic agent

b)

Beta blocker agent

c)

Anticoagulant agent

d)

Antihyperlipidemia agent

83.

Lasix is an example of which drug type?

a)

Diuretic agent

b)

ACE inhibitor agent

c)

Antithrombotic agent

d)

Calcium channel blocker agent

84.

Diuril is an example of which drug type?

a)

Diuretic agent

b)

ACE inhibitor agent

c)

Antithrombotic agent

d)

Calcium channel blocker agent

85.

A procedure involving a balloon-tipped catheter expanded inside a stenotic artery, often followed by stent placement to reduce risk of restenosis. What is this called?

a)

Balloon angioplasty

b)

CABG

c)

Heart transplant

d)

Ventricular assist device

86.

A surgically implanted, battery-powered device placed in the left anterior chest to prevent slow heart rate, fatigue, and fainting is known as:

a)

Cardiac pacemaker

b)

Ventricular assist device

c)

Heart transplant

d)

CABG

87.

A surgical procedure rerouting blood around narrowed or occluded coronary arteries using grafts from the saphenous vein, internal thoracic artery, or radial artery is called:

a)

CABG

b)

Balloon angioplasty

c)

Heart transplant

d)

Cardiac pacemaker

88.

Replacement of a failing heart with a healthy donor heart in patients with end-stage heart failure, CAD, or valvular disease is called:

a)

Heart transplant

b)

CABG

c)

Balloon angioplasty

d)

Ventricular assist device

89.

A miniature pump implanted in the chest that provides mechanical support to the ventricles, often used while waiting for a transplant, is called:

a)

Ventricular assist device

b)

CABG

c)

Balloon angioplasty

d)

Cardiac pacemaker

90.

What angina pain scale rating describes mild, barely noticeable pain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

91.

What angina pain scale rating describes moderate, bothersome pain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

92.

What angina pain scale rating describes moderately severe, very uncomfortable pain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

93.

What angina pain scale rating describes the most severe or intense pain ever experienced?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

94.

If a patient’s ABI value is greater than 1.4, what does this indicate?

a)

Rigid, hardened arteries (ultrasound needed)

b)

Normal, no blockage

c)

Mild blockage, early PAD

d)

Severe blockage with claudication at rest

95.

An ABI rating between 1.0–1.4 is classified as:

a)

Normal; no blockage

b)

Mild blockage

c)

Moderate blockage

d)

Severe blockage

96.

An ABI rating between 0.8–0.99 indicates:

a)

Mild blockage, early PAD

b)

Normal; no blockage

c)

Moderate blockage

d)

Severe blockage

97.

An ABI rating between 0.4–0.79 indicates:

a)

Moderate blockage, intermittent claudication

b)

Normal; no blockage

c)

Severe blockage at rest

d)

Mild blockage

98.

An ABI rating less than 0.4 indicates:

a)

Severe blockage with claudication pain at rest

b)

Normal; no blockage

c)

Mild blockage, early PAD

d)

Moderate blockage

99.

Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the aortic area?

a)

2nd intercostal space, right sternal border

b)

2nd intercostal space, left sternal border

c)

4th intercostal space, left sternal border

d)

5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line

100.

Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the pulmonic area?

a)

2nd intercostal space, left sternal border

b)

2nd intercostal space, right sternal border

c)

4th intercostal space, left sternal border

d)

5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line

101.

Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the mitral area?

a)

5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line

b)

2nd intercostal space, left sternal border

c)

4th intercostal space, left sternal border

d)

2nd intercostal space, right sternal border

102.

Where do you place the stethoscope to listen to the tricuspid area?

a)

4th intercostal space, left sternal border

b)

5th intercostal space, medial to left midclavicular line

c)

2nd intercostal space, right sternal border

d)

2nd intercostal space, left sternal border

103.

Which heart sound (lub) represents closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the onset of ventricular systole?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

104.

Which heart sound (dub) represents closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the onset of ventricular diastole?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

105.

Which heart sound is normal in children but abnormal in adults, often associated with heart failure, and called a “ventricular gallop”?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

106.

Which heart sound is linked to vibration during atrial contraction, associated with HTN, stenosis, or MI, and called an “atrial gallop”?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

107.

A soft, blowing, swishing sound heard due to blood flow disruption past a stenotic or regurgitant valve is called:

a)

Heart murmur

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

108.

Leaflets that fail to close tightly, allowing backward blood flow, describe which condition?

a)

Regurgitation

b)

Stenosis

c)

Aneurysm

d)

Heart murmur

109.

What BMI classification corresponds to < 18.5?

a)

Underweight

b)

Normal

c)

Overweight

d)

Obesity (Class 1)

110.

What BMI classification corresponds to 18.5–24.9?

a)

Underweight

b)

Normal

c)

Overweight

d)

Obesity (Class 1)

111.

What BMI classification corresponds to 25–29.9?

a)

Extreme obesity (Class 3)

b)

Overweight

c)

Obesity (Class 2)

d)

Obesity (Class 1)

112.

What BMI classification corresponds to 30–34.9?

a)

Extreme obesity (Class 3)

b)

Overweight

c)

Obesity (Class 2)

d)

Obesity (Class 1)

113.

What BMI classification corresponds to 35–39.9?

a)

Extreme obesity (Class 3)

b)

Overweight

c)

Obesity (Class 2)

d)

Obesity (Class 1)

114.

What BMI classification corresponds to > 40?

a)

Extreme obesity (Class 3)

b)

Overweight

c)

Obesity (Class 2)

d)

Obesity (Class 1)

115.

Applying pressure to a nail bed until it blanches, then releasing and measuring the time it takes to regain color, tests for:

a)

Capillary refill time

b)

Pulse oximetry

c)

ABI

d)

Angina pain scale

116.

What capillary refill time is considered normal?

a)

< 2 seconds

b)

2 seconds

c)

0.12–0.20 seconds

d)

0.20–0.40 seconds

117.

What capillary refill time indicates compromised blood flow?

a)

< 2 seconds

b)

2 seconds

c)

0.12–0.20 seconds

d)

0.20–0.40 seconds

118.

A 12-lead recording that graphically represents the heart’s electrical activity and is used to assess cardiac rhythm, ischemia, or infarction is called:

a)

Electrocardiogram

b)

Capillary refill test

c)

Stress echocardiogram

d)

ABI

119.

Which ECG wave represents atrial depolarization?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

ST segment

120.

Which ECG interval represents atrial depolarization and conduction from the SA node to the AV node?

a)

PR interval

b)

QT interval

c)

QRS complex

d)

ST segment

121.

What is the normal duration of the PR interval?

a)

0.12–0.20 seconds

b)

< 2 seconds

c)

0.20–0.40 seconds

d)

0.06–0.10 seconds

122.

Which ECG waveform represents ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization?

a)

QRS complex

b)

P wave

c)

T wave

d)

ST segment

123.

What is the normal duration of the QRS complex?

a)

0.12–0.20 seconds

b)

0.20–0.40 seconds

c)

0.06–0.10 seconds

d)

< 2 seconds

124.

Which ECG interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization?

a)

PR interval

b)

QT interval

c)

QRS complex

d)

P wave

125.

What is the normal duration of the QT interval?

a)

0.06–0.10 seconds

b)

0.12–0.20 seconds

c)

< 2 seconds

d)

0.20–0.40 seconds

126.

Which ECG segment represents the isoelectric period after the QRS when ventricles are depolarized?

a)

P wave

b)

ST segment

c)

QT interval

d)

T wave

127.

Which ECG wave represents ventricular repolarization?

a)

T wave

b)

P wave

c)

QRS complex

d)

ST segment

128.

What is the term for a heart rate less than 60 bpm?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Normal sinus rhythm

129.

A heart rate between 60–100 bpm with normal conduction from the SA node is called:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Normal sinus rhythm

130.

A heart rate greater than 100 bpm is called:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Normal sinus rhythm

131.

A sinus rhythm with slight beat-to-beat variation in rate due to impulse formation in the SA node is called:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Normal sinus rhythm

132.

Intermittent failure of SA node impulse formation or AV node conduction, resulting in absence of P or QRS waves, is called:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Sinus arrest

133.

An exercise test that monitors ECG, HR, BP, and symptoms while treadmill or cycle workload increases is called:

a)

Exercise stress testing

b)

Capillary refill test

c)

Homan’s sign

d)

ABI

134.

Which of the following is an absolute indication for terminating an exercise test?

a)

Drop in SBP > 10 mmHg from baseline despite workload

b)

Mild fatigue

c)

HR increase with workload

d)

Sweating

135.

Passive dorsiflexion of the foot with the knee straight causing pain in the calf or popliteal space is a positive test for:

a)

DVT

b)

Varicose Veins

c)

Aneurysm

d)

Left Side Heart Failure

136.

What is the test called when you perform passive dorsiflexion of the foot with the knee straight causing pain in the calf or popliteal space?

a)
Homan's sign
b)
Lachman's test
c)
Thompson's test
d)
McMurray's test
137.

Where do you palpate the dorsalis pedis artery?

a)

Center of the long axis of the foot, between first and second metatarsal bones

b)

Upper thigh, one-third distance from pubis to ASIS

c)

Wrist, radial side

d)

Behind the knee

138.

A patient develops angina during a treadmill stress test. The pain is rated as moderately severe (3 on angina scale). What should the clinician do?

a)

Continue the test with reduced workload

b)

Terminate the test immediately

c)

Increase treadmill grade

d)

Give additional warm-up time

139.

During an exercise stress test, a patient shows nervous system symptoms such as ataxia and dizziness. What is the appropriate action?

a)

Continue the test while monitoring symptoms

b)

Terminate the test immediately

c)

Increase speed of treadmill to confirm symptoms

d)

Switch to upper extremity ergometer

140.

A patient demonstrates cyanosis and pallor while exercising during a cardiac stress test. This indicates:

a)

Poor perfusion and the test should be terminated

b)

Normal response to exertion

c)

Dehydration that will resolve with rest

d)

Appropriate warm-up reaction

141.

During exercise stress testing, sustained ventricular tachycardia is observed on the ECG. The proper response is:

a)

Terminate the test immediately

b)

Decrease resistance and continue monitoring

c)

Encourage patient to keep exercising through arrhythmia

d)

Ignore unless symptoms appear

142.

Which of the following ECG findings is an absolute indication to terminate an exercise stress test?

a)

1.0 mm ST elevation in leads without diagnostic Q waves

b)

T wave inversion in recovery

c)

PR interval shortening

d)

QRS duration of 0.08 sec

143.

A patient performing an exercise stress test complains of fatigue, shortness of breath, wheezing, leg cramps, and claudication. The appropriate action is:

a)

Terminate the test immediately

b)

Continue with lower resistance

c)

Encourage patient to push through

d)

Stop test only if angina occurs

144.

A patient’s blood pressure rises to 260/120 mmHg during exercise stress testing. This is considered:

a)

Hypertensive response and an absolute indication to terminate the test

b)

Normal response to high intensity exercise

c)

Hypotensive reaction requiring fluids

d)

Sign of mild overexertion, continue with caution

145.

What is the normal resting heart rate for an infant?

a)

60–100 bpm

b)

80–100 bpm

c)

100–130 bpm

d)

130–150 bpm

146.

What is the normal resting heart rate for a child?

a)

40–60 bpm

b)

60–100 bpm

c)

80–100 bpm

d)

100–130 bpm

147.

What is the normal resting heart rate for an adult?

a)

40–60 bpm

b)

60–100 bpm

c)

80–100 bpm

d)

100–130 bpm

148.

A heart rate pulse grade of 3+ indicates:

a)

Small or reduced pulsation

b)

Normal pulsation

c)

Large or bounding pulsation

d)

Absence of pulsation

149.

A heart rate pulse grade of 2+ indicates:

a)

Small or reduced pulsation

b)

Normal pulsation

c)

Large or bounding pulsation

d)

Absence of pulsation

150.

A heart rate pulse grade of 1+ indicates:

a)

Absence of pulsation

b)

Small or reduced pulsation

c)

Normal pulsation

d)

Large or bounding pulsation

151.

A heart rate pulse grade of 0 indicates:

a)

Small or reduced pulsation

b)

Normal pulsation

c)

Large or bounding pulsation

d)

Absence of pulsation

152.

Which measure is calculated by multiplying heart rate (HR) and systolic blood pressure (SBP) to estimate myocardial oxygen demand?

a)

Cardiac Output (CO)

b)

Rate Pressure Product (RPP)

c)

Stroke Volume (SV)

d)

Ejection Fraction (EF)

153.

Which scale is commonly used to measure a patient’s subjective perception of exertion during exercise?

a)

Modified Rankin Scale

b)

Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) Scale

c)

Glasgow Coma Scale

d)

Visual Analog Scale

154.

On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 7 corresponds to:

a)

Fairly light

b)

Very light

c)

Hard

d)

Very, very light

155.

On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 9 corresponds to:

a)

Very light

b)

Fairly light

c)

Somewhat hard

d)

Very hard

156.

On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 11 corresponds to:

a)

Very, very light

b)

Very light

c)

Fairly light

d)

Hard

157.

On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 13 corresponds to:

a)

Fairly light

b)

Somewhat hard

c)

Hard

d)

Very hard

158.

On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 15 corresponds to:

a)

Somewhat hard

b)

Hard

c)

Very hard

d)

Very, very hard

159.

On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 17 corresponds to:

a)

Fairly light

b)

Hard

c)

Very hard

d)

Very, very hard

160.

On the Borg RPE scale, a rating of 19 corresponds to:

a)

Hard

b)

Very hard

c)

Very, very hard

d)

Fairly light

161.

Which functional test requires the patient to walk along a 100-foot track or treadmill for six minutes while monitoring vitals and exertion?

a)

Bruce Treadmill Test

b)

Six-Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

c)

VO₂ Max Test

d)

Shuttle Run Test

162.

How is maximum heart rate (HRmax) commonly estimated?

a)

HRmax = Stroke Volume × SBP

b)

HRmax = 220 – Age

c)

HRmax = 200 – Age

d)

HRmax = 180 – Age

163.

Which of the following is a normal cardiorespiratory response to acute aerobic exercise?

a)

Decrease in SBP with increasing workload

b)

Linear increase in SBP by 8–12 mmHg per MET

c)

Significant rise in DBP with workload

d)

Decrease in oxygen consumption during exercise

164.

Which of the following occurs with DBP during normal aerobic exercise?

a)

Increases significantly

b)

Decreases moderately or remains unchanged

c)

Drops sharply below baseline

d)

Rises proportionally with SBP

165.

During normal aerobic exercise, which of the following best describes oxygen consumption?

a)

Decreases as workload increases

b)

Remains stable regardless of workload

c)

Increases due to higher cardiac output and muscle oxygen utilization

d)

Only increases with anaerobic threshold