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Merchant Banking Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Finance function primarily deals with _______.

a)

Marketing and HR decisions

b)

Acquiring and utilizing funds

c)

Production and logistics

d)

Government budgeting

2.

Which of the following is not an aim of finance function?

a)

Mobilization of funds

b)

Acceleration of profits

c)

Maximization of firm value

d)

Reduction of product cost

3.

The capital structure of a company represents _______.

a)

Total turnover

b)

Combination of debt, equity, and other financing sources

c)

Market share and profit margins

d)

Annual dividend payout

4.

The cost of capital is influenced by _______.

a)

Interest rates

b)

Dividend policy

c)

Management risk appetite

d)

All of the above

5.

Financial markets facilitate exchange of funds between _______.

a)

Sellers and retailers

b)

Borrowers and lenders

c)

Producers and distributors

d)

Consumers and marketers

6.

Organized markets include which of the following?

a)

Money lenders

b)

Capital markets

c)

Indigenous bankers

d)

Private financiers

7.

The unorganized market consists mainly of _______.

a)

Banks and stock exchanges

b)

Money lenders and indigenous bankers

c)

Financial institutions

d)

Stock brokers

8.

Hundis were primarily used for _______.

a)

Trade transactions and remittances

b)

Insurance coverage

c)

Land acquisition

d)

Tax collection

9.

Capital markets deal with instruments having maturity of _______.

a)

Less than one year

b)

More than one year

c)

Exactly one year

d)

One month

10.

The primary market is also known as _______.

a)

New issue market

b)

Old securities market

c)

Money market

d)

Unorganized market

11.

A debenture acknowledges _______.

a)

Ownership in the company

b)

A loan to the company

c)

Dividend claim

d)

Tax benefit

12.

Debentures can be issued _______.

a)

Only at par

b)

Only at a discount

c)

At par, premium, or discount

d)

Only at premium

13.

The Companies Act 2013 permits issue of debentures under which section?

a)

Section 129(3)

b)

Section 179(3)

c)

Section 197(3)

d)

Section 149(3)

14.

The interest rate on debentures as per SEBI guidelines shall not exceed _______.

a)

10%

b)

12%

c)

15%

d)

20%

15.

Credit rating symbols like CRISIL AAA indicate _______.

a)

High risk

b)

Highest safety

c)

Moderate risk

d)

Very high risk

16.

The first sale of stock by a company to the public is called _______.

a)

FPO

b)

IPO

c)

QIP

d)

Rights issue

17.

A company already listed on the stock exchange issues further shares through a _______.

a)

Rights issue

b)

FPO

c)

Private placement

d)

Bonus issue

18.

In a rights issue, shares are offered to _______.

a)

New investors only

b)

Existing shareholders

c)

Government agencies

d)

Underwriters

19.

The price of shares during a rights issue is generally _______.

a)

At premium

b)

Equal to market price

c)

At a discount

d)

Higher than book value

20.

Fast-track issues are permitted only to companies with _______.

a)

Minimum turnover of ₹100 crore

b)

Excellent investor grievance record and ₹10,000 crore free float

c)

No listed shares

d)

Minimum promoter holding of 5%

21.

Public issue refers to _______.

a)

Issue of shares to select group

b)

Issue of shares to the public at large

c)

Employee stock options

d)

Private subscription

22.

The process of allotting shares to select investors like promoters is known as _______.

a)

Preferential allotment

b)

Book building

c)

Rights issue

d)

Public offer

23.

Qualified Institutional Placements (QIP) can be made to _______.

a)

Retail investors only

b)

Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs)

c)

Promoters only

d)

Private individuals

24.

ESOPs are primarily aimed at _______.

a)

Raising funds from the public

b)

Encouraging employee ownership

c)

Reducing share capital

d)

Increasing taxation

25.

The minimum public holding requirement for a rights offer is _______.

a)

₹50 crore

b)

₹250 crore

c)

₹100 crore

d)

₹10 crore

26.

The prospectus must be filed with SEBI when the issue value exceeds _______.

a)

₹10 lakh

b)

₹25 lakh

c)

₹50 lakh

d)

₹1 crore

27.

Draft Offer Document is available for public comments for how many days?

a)

7 days

b)

14 days

c)

21 days

d)

30 days

28.

Which type of prospectus lacks information on price or number of shares?

a)

Offer document

b)

Draft Red Herring Prospectus

c)

Final prospectus

d)

Shelf prospectus

29.

The validity period of SEBI’s observation letter is _______.

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

24 months

d)

36 months

30.

Criminal liability for misstatements in a prospectus may attract imprisonment up to _______.

a)

2 years

b)

5 years

c)

10 years

d)

15 years

31.

Fixed price issue means _______.

a)

Price is decided after listing

b)

Price is pre-determined and disclosed in offer

c)

Price depends on market demand

d)

No price is mentioned

32.

The lowest price in a book-built issue is called _______.

a)

Base price

b)

Floor price

c)

Cap price

d)

Issue price

33.

In a book building process, the issue remains open normally for _______.

a)

1 day

b)

3 days

c)

7 days

d)

10 days

34.

Retail individual investors can bid for shares up to a value of _______.

a)

₹50,000

b)

₹1,00,000

c)

₹2,00,000

d)

₹5,00,000

35.

The percentage of IPO reserved for Qualified Institutional Buyers is _______.

a)

25%

b)

35%

c)

40%

d)

50%

36.

Underwriting means _______.

a)

Guarantee to buy unsold shares

b)

Selling shares at premium

c)

Providing insurance

d)

Allocating shares through lottery

37.

Minimum underwriting obligation by lead merchant banker is _______.

a)

2%

b)

5% or ₹25 lakh, whichever is less

c)

10%

d)

20%

38.

Green Shoe Option allows over-allotment up to _______.

a)

10% of issue size

b)

12% of issue size

c)

15% of issue size

d)

20% of issue size

39.

The commission on underwriting for shares is limited to _______.

a)

1%

b)

1.5%

c)

2%

d)

2.5%

40.

If an issue is subscribed less than 90%, the company must _______.

a)

Proceed with allotment

b)

Refund investor money within 15 days

c)

Extend the issue

d)

Cancel underwriting

41.

Listing refers to _______.

a)

Registration with SEBI

b)

Admission of securities on a stock exchange

c)

Approval of issue price

d)

Filing of prospectus

42.

The opening price on listing day is decided through _______.

a)

Book building

b)

Call auction in pre-open session

c)

Fixed price declaration

d)

SEBI evaluation

43.

The period for call auction order placement for IPOs is approximately _______.

a)

8:30 am to 9:00 am

b)

9:00 am to 9:45 am

c)

10:00 am to 10:30 am

d)

11:00 am to 12:00 pm

44.

In proportional allotment, shares are distributed based on _______.

a)

Random selection

b)

Investor’s relationship with company

c)

Ratio of shares applied to oversubscription

d)

Lottery only

45.

A registrar to an issue is responsible for _______.

a)

Managing company accounts

b)

Processing applications and refunds

c)

Preparing legal notices

d)

Market surveillance

46.

Merchant bankers are also known as _______.

a)

Brokers

b)

Lead managers

c)

Registrars

d)

Underwriters

47.

Net tangible assets are calculated as _______.

a)

Total assets – Intangible assets – Liabilities

b)

Total liabilities – Assets

c)

Current assets – Current liabilities

d)

Fixed assets – Intangibles

48.

The promoters of the issuer must contribute at least _______ of post-issue capital.

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

49.

Differential pricing allows _______.

a)

Same price for all

b)

Different prices for categories like employees or retail investors

c)

Random pricing

d)

Fixed pricing

50.

The company’s shares become ex-rights on _______.

a)

Record date

b)

Announcement date

c)

Closing date

d)

Listing date