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Worksheets

Unit 4 review

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Angus cattle?

a)

Red with white face, docile

b)

Black, polled, high carcass quality

c)

Light gray to black, resistant to heat

d)

White to light straw color, larger in stature

2.

What is a common trait of Hereford cattle?

a)

Black and white color pattern

b)

Red with white face, good foragers

c)

No set color pattern, large frame

d)

Light gray to black, loose dewlap

3.

Which breed of cattle is known for being the largest framed dairy breed and highest quantity milk producer?

a)

Charolais

b)

Brahman

c)

Holstein

d)

Simmental

4.

What is a phenotypic trait used to categorize food animal breeds?

a)

Diet preferences

b)

Color and/or color patterns

c)

Breeding habits

d)

Lifespan

5.

Which cattle breed originates from India and is known for its heat tolerance?

a)

Angus

b)

Hereford

c)

Brahman

d)

Simmental

6.

Which dairy breed is known for its cream to light fawn color and high butterfat content in milk?

a)

Ayrshire

b)

Jersey

c)

Brown Swiss

d)

Guernsey

7.

What characteristic is associated with the American Landrace pig breed?

a)

Red, drooped ears

b)

Black with white belt

c)

White, long body, big loped forward ears

d)

White, erect ears

8.

Which sheep breed is raised for both wool and meat?

a)

Suffolk

b)

Rambouillet

c)

Dorset

d)

Merino

9.

What is a notable feature of the Hampshire pig breed?

a)

Red, drooped ears

b)

Black with white belt, erect ears

c)

White, long body, big loped forward ears

d)

White, erect ears

10.

Which sheep breed is popular for wool production?

a)

Suffolk

b)

Hampshire

c)

Rambouillet

d)

Dorper

11.

Which of the following is a popular dairy goat breed?

a)

Boer

b)

Nubian

c)

Kiko

d)

Spanish

12.

Which chicken breed is known for laying white eggs?

a)

Rhode Island Red

b)

Cornish Mix

c)

White Leghorn

d)

Jersey Giant

13.

What is a key factor in selecting meat goat breeds?

a)

Egg production

b)

Milk yield

c)

Structural correctness

d)

Plumage color

14.

Which turkey breed is most popular in America?

a)

Broad Breasted Bronze

b)

Broad Breasted White

c)

Jersey Giant

d)

Kosher King

15.

Which organization recognizes 155 breeds of dogs categorized into seven groups?

a)

United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

b)

American Kennel Club (AKC)

c)

World Canine Organization (WCO)

d)

International Dog Federation (IDF)

16.

What is the primary purpose of breeding Sporting dogs?

a)

To be small and require little space

b)

For hunting and regular exercise

c)

To control the movement of other animals

d)

For pulling sleds and heavy work

17.

Which breed group is known for strong scent abilities and good stamina?

a)

Toy

b)

Hounds

c)

Terriers

d)

Non-Sporting

18.

What is a characteristic of Toy dogs?

a)

Large and intelligent

b)

Small in size, do not require a lot of space

c)

Bred for hunting vermin

d)

Good for training exercises

19.

Which cat breed is known for having 34 recognized color patterns with tabby being the most common?

a)

Maine Coon

b)

Persian

c)

American Shorthair

d)

Siamese

20.

Which cat breed is known for having exceptionally large and heavy bodies with blue eyes?

a)

Siamese

b)

Ragdoll

c)

Abyssinian

d)

Manx

21.

What is a distinctive feature of the Siamese cat's appearance?

a)

Short hair coat

b)

Equilateral triangle head shape

c)

Black-colored nose

d)

Unique color markings

22.

Which rabbit breed is known for having a unique three-layer coat structure of wool?

a)

Californian

b)

Dutch

c)

Angora

d)

Mini Rex

23.

What is a characteristic of the English Spot rabbit?

a)

Over 20 recognized colors

b)

Unique chain of markings

c)

Short hair coat

d)

White blaze on the forehead

24.

What is a common trait of intact male animals?

a)

Less muscular overall

b)

More muscular overall

c)

Longer fur

d)

Smaller size

25.

Which of the following characteristics is true for castrated males?

a)

Typically larger in stature and grow faster than females

b)

Slower-growing and have less muscle overall than intact males

c)

Larger body structure than immature females

d)

More feminine head than immature males

26.

What is a mature female goat called?

a)

Ewe

b)

Doe

c)

Bitch

d)

Queen

27.

In poultry, what is the term for an immature castrated male?

a)

Rooster

b)

Capon

c)

Pullet

d)

Hen

28.

Which species has the term "Barrow" for an immature castrated male?

a)

Cattle

b)

Swine

c)

Poultry

d)

Sheep

29.

What is the term for a newborn cat?

a)

Kitten

b)

Chick

c)

Lamb

d)

Puppy

30.

What is the muscled portion of the animal between the loin and tail called?

a)

Round

b)

Rump

c)

Loin

d)

Brisket

31.

Which part of the animal is described as the muscled portion along the backbone?

a)

Shoulder

b)

Loin

c)

Flank

d)

Poll

32.

Where is the switch located on an animal?

a)

Top of the head

b)

Bottom of the tail

c)

Between the front legs

d)

Side of the tailhead

33.

What is the function of the hock in an animal's anatomy?

a)

Muscled portion of the rear leg

b)

Tarsal joint halfway up the hind limb

c)

Side section between the belly and top

d)

Area encircling the body behind the front legs

34.

Which part of the animal is known as the pelvic region?

a)

Flank

b)

Brisket

c)

Heart girth

d)

Pin bones

35.

What part of the animal is referred to as the "ham"?

a)

Rear leg of the animal

b)

Muscled portion along the backbone

c)

Part of the animal between the loin and tail

d)

Underside of the animal

36.

Where is the "loin" located on an animal?

a)

Between the neck and ribs

b)

Along the backbone

c)

Between the loin and tail

d)

Side section between the belly and top

37.

What is the "jowl" area of an animal?

a)

Chin area

b)

Underside of the animal

c)

Rear leg of the animal

d)

Tarsal joint halfway up the hind limb

38.

Which part of the animal is the "pastern"?

a)

Part of the leg between the fetlock and hoof

b)

Muscled portion between the neck and ribs

c)

Side section between the belly and top

d)

Large joint halfway up the hind limb

39.

What is the "hock" in animal anatomy?

a)

Tarsal joint halfway up the hind limb

b)

Rear leg of the animal

c)

Muscled portion along the backbone

d)

Part of the animal between the loin and tail

40.

What is the red structure on top of a bird's head called?

a)

Wattle

b)

Beak

c)

Comb

d)

Eye ring

41.

Which part of a bird is described as fleshy structures on the head just below the beak?

a)

Ear lobe

b)

Wattles

c)

Vent

d)

Shank

42.

What is the pointed structure on the front of a bird's head?

a)

Comb

b)

Beak

c)

Eye ring

d)

Hock

43.

Where is the vent located on a bird?

a)

On top of the head

b)

At the back of the bird

c)

Below the beak

d)

Between the neck and tail

44.

What is the area between the breast and vent of a bird called?

a)

Back

b)

Shank

c)

Abdomen

d)

Ear lobe

45.

What is the fleshy side of the face below the eye called?

a)

Dewlap

b)

Cheek

c)

Muzzle

d)

Flank

46.

Which part of an animal is a loose fold of skin under the chin, most prominent in female rabbits?

a)

Elbow

b)

Guard hairs

c)

Dewlap

d)

Whiskers

47.

What is the upper joint of the front leg just below the shoulder known as?

a)

Elbow

b)

Hock

c)

Stifle

d)

Rump

48.

Where is the pelvic region of an animal located?

a)

Flank

b)

Foot pad

c)

Shoulder

d)

Nose pad

49.

What is the projecting jaw that contains the nose and mouth called?

a)

Muzzle

b)

Nose pad

c)

Whiskers

d)

Guard hairs

50.

Which part of an animal is the tip of the nose that may be sensitive and useful for investigating objects?

a)

Muzzle

b)

Nose pad

c)

Whiskers

d)

Hock

51.

What is the upper rounded part of the hindquarter called?

a)

Rump

b)

Stifle

c)

Elbow

d)

Flank

52.

What are long projecting hairs or bristles growing near the mouth known as?

a)

Guard hairs

b)

Whiskers

c)

Dewlap

d)

Cheek

53.

What is the transparent layer covering the eye that serves as the eyelid for snakes called?

a)

Fins

b)

Gills

c)

Scales

d)

Brille

54.

Which structure enables a fish to move through the water by being supported with bone or cartilage rods?

a)

Scutes

b)

Fins

c)

Gills

d)

Scales

55.

What is the major organ of the respiratory system of fish that allows them to breathe without lungs?

a)

Scales

b)

Brille

c)

Gills

d)

Scutes

56.

What are the extensions of the epidermal layer of skin that have been modified to provide protection?

a)

Scales

b)

Fins

c)

Gills

d)

Brille

57.

What are the epidermal scales found on turtles called?

a)

Brille

b)

Scutes

c)

Fins

d)

Gills

58.

Select the correct drawing that shows a fish/amphibian/reptile with all external anatomy labeled.

a)

A drawing and labeling of a fish

b)

A drawing and labeling of a bird

c)

A drawing and labeling of a mammal

d)

A drawing and labeling of an insect

59.

What does the term "confirmation" refer to in animal selection criteria?

a)

The color of the animal's coat

b)

The physical arrangement of bone and body tissue

c)

The animal's age and weight

d)

The animal's feeding habits

60.

Which of the following is important for carrying offspring and yield in animals?

a)

Muscle distribution

b)

Breed character

c)

Body capacity

d)

Finish

61.

What is typically analyzed from the side view of an animal?

a)

Frame size

b)

Breed character

c)

Body capacity

d)

Balance

62.

What does "finish" refer to in the context of animal selection?

a)

The animal's speed

b)

The amount of fat the animal has

c)

The animal's color pattern

d)

The animal's height

63.

In animal selection, what does "balance" mean?

a)

The animal's ability to stand on one leg

b)

The even distribution of body parts in an attractive manner

c)

The animal's weight compared to its height

d)

The animal's speed and agility

64.

What is the average weight of market hogs?

a)

270 pounds

b)

1300 pounds

c)

125 pounds

d)

75 pounds

65.

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for selecting companion animals?

a)

Pets

b)

Recreation

c)

Entertainment

d)

Processed products

66.

What does the Breeding Soundness Exam (BSE) assess?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Fertility

c)

Body composition

d)

Feeding requirements

67.

Which part of the BSE involves using a microscope to determine sperm movement?

a)

Physical examination

b)

Scrotal circumference measurement

c)

Sperm motility

d)

Sperm morphology

68.

What is the purpose of Expected Progeny Differences (EPD) in the cattle industry?

a)

To measure average daily gain

b)

To assess fertility

c)

To compare animals within a breed based on genetic potential

d)

To evaluate body composition

69.

What does the acronym "WW" stand for in the context of animal selection?

a)

Birth Weight

b)

Fertility

c)

Weaning Weight

d)

Weight Watch

70.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to cull animals or prevent future offspring?

a)

Reproductive efficiency

b)

Age

c)

Color of fur

d)

Genetics

71.

According to the USDA, what do grades for food animals indicate?

a)

Sanitation

b)

Quality

c)

Size

d)

Color

72.

Which of the following is a factor in determining beef quality grades?

a)

Color of the animal

b)

Age or maturity of the animal

c)

Speed of growth

d)

Height of the animal

73.

What is marbling in the context of beef quality?

a)

The color of the meat

b)

The dispersal of fat within the lean meat

c)

The size of the meat cut

d)

The age of the animal

74.

What are the USDA Quality Grades for beef cattle?

a)

Prime, Choice, Select, Standard, Commercial, Utility, Cutter, Canner

b)

Prime, Choice, Select, Standard, Commercial, Utility, Cutter, Premium

c)

Prime, Choice, Select, Standard, Commercial, Utility, Premium, Canner

d)

Prime, Choice, Select, Standard, Commercial, Premium, Cutter, Canner

75.

What is the typical meat color for fresh pork sold in supermarkets with a Quality Grade of Acceptable?

a)

Reddish-pink

b)

Bright red

c)

Dark brown

d)

Pale white

76.

Which factor is NOT used to determine pork yield grades?

a)

Loin Eye Area (LEA)

b)

Hot Carcass Weight (HCW)

c)

Fat Depth/Cover over the Ribeye

d)

Bone Density

77.

What is the relationship between dressing percentage and the value of an animal?

a)

Higher dressing percentage increases the animal's value

b)

Higher dressing percentage decreases the animal's value

c)

Dressing percentage has no effect on the animal's value

d)

Dressing percentage only affects the animal's weight

78.

What is one of the selection criteria for cows in beef cattle?

a)

High fertility rates

b)

Low fertility rates

c)

High birth weight calves

d)

Low milk production

79.

Which trait is important for selecting bulls in beef cattle?

a)

Structurally correct feet and legs

b)

Low birth weight calves

c)

High milk production

d)

Quiet disposition

80.

What is a desirable trait for feeder cattle?

a)

High average daily gain

b)

Low average daily gain

c)

High birth weight

d)

Excessive milk production

81.

What is a characteristic of replacement heifers?

a)

Structurally correct with sound feet and legs

b)

High birth weight

c)

Low fertility rates

d)

Excessive milk production

82.

What is one management decision that accurate records help dairy producers make?

a)

Culling the least profitable cows

b)

Increasing birth weight

c)

Reducing milk production

d)

Increasing calving difficulty

83.

What is the purpose of a pedigree in animal selection?

a)

To measure daily feed costs

b)

To identify members of maternal and paternal lines

c)

To assess reproductive efficiency

d)

To evaluate physical soundness

84.

Which of the following is a criterion for selecting market animals?

a)

High tail setting

b)

Medium height, long- and wide-bodied

c)

Low feed per pound of gain rate

d)

Conception rate

85.

What does reproductive history in animal records include?

a)

Pounds of total milk produced

b)

Conception rate, days open, calving interval

c)

Somatic cell score

d)

Sloping shoulder

86.

Which characteristic is important for breeding animals in terms of physical soundness?

a)

High feed costs

b)

Sloping shoulder, strong pastern

c)

Somatic cell score

d)

Medium height

87.

What is a feature of well-attached udders in animal selection?

a)

Held above the hocks

b)

Low feed per pound of gain rate

c)

High tail setting

d)

Clean over loin edge

88.

What is the ideal backfat measurement for a hog at the 10th rib?

a)

0.5 inch

b)

0.8 inch

c)

1.0 inch

d)

1.2 inch

89.

Which of the following is a criterion for selecting broilers for meat production?

a)

Egg size

b)

Desirable feathering

c)

Color of the beak

d)

Length of the tail

90.

In what order does bleaching occur in layers as they lay more eggs?

a)

Beak, vent, eye ring, ear lobe

b)

Vent, eye ring, ear lobe, beak

c)

Eye ring, vent, beak, ear lobe

d)

Ear lobe, beak, vent, eye ring

91.

What is a sign of freedom from defects in broilers?

a)

Thick feathers

b)

Crooked toes

c)

Swollen hocks

d)

Absence of bruises on the breast

92.

What are the characteristics of high-production birds in terms of conformation?

a)

Small body capacity, rigid abdomen

b)

Large body capacity, soft and flexible abdomen

c)

Narrow pubic bones, rough shanks

d)

Bright eyes, dark eyelids

93.

Which health protocol is important for selecting companion animals?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Vaccination schedule

c)

Grooming routine

d)

Training sessions

94.

What should be avoided in the skin or fur of companion animals?

a)

Bright colors

b)

Dermatitis, mange, or matting

c)

Soft texture

d)

Short length

95.

Which of the following is a genetic disorder to be aware of in sire and dam selection?

a)

Obesity

b)

Congenital heart anomalies

c)

Overactivity

d)

High energy levels

96.

What type of notes are used to identify an animal's unique traits during evaluation?

a)

Behavioral notes

b)

Identification (ID) notes

c)

Health notes

d)

Feeding notes

97.

What is the purpose of comparative or pair notes in animal judging?

a)

To describe individual animal features

b)

To compare traits between animals in each pair

c)

To list the heaviest animals

d)

To determine the species of each animal

98.

How should the length of oral reasons be when explaining a class's placing?

a)

Less than 1 minute

b)

Less than 2 minutes

c)

Less than 3 minutes

d)

Less than 4 minutes