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Quiz on Firm and Industry Concepts

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main aim of every private business according to the provided material?

a)

To increase the number of employees

b)

To minimize cost and make profits

c)

To expand internationally

d)

To reduce production speed

2.

What is the main benefit of "Managerial Economies" for large firms?

a)

They can employ competent managers in various fields to increase productivity.

b)

They do not need any managers.

c)

They only hire unskilled workers.

d)

They reduce productivity by hiring more managers.

3.

A firm employs 10 units of labor and produces a total of 200 goods. What is the Average Product (A.P)?

a)

A. 20

b)

B. 2000

c)

C. 10

d)

D. 2

4.

What happens to marginal product (MP) when total product (TP) is at its maximum?

a)

Marginal product is at its maximum

b)

Marginal product is at zero

c)

Marginal product is negative

d)

Marginal product is increasing

5.

Which of the following best defines the location of industry?

a)

The process of selling products in a market

b)

The siting of a firm at a particular place

c)

The transportation of goods to different cities

d)

The employment of skilled labor in a factory

6.

A plastic bottle manufacturing firm set up near a brewery is an example of which advantage of localization?

a)

Provision of infrastructural facilities

b)

Development of subsidiary industries

c)

Organized market

d)

Government policy

7.

Which of the following best describes a demand curve?

a)

A curve that shows the relationship between supply and price.

b)

A graphical representation of demand schedule, sloping downward from left to right.

c)

A straight line showing constant demand at all prices.

d)

A curve that slopes upward from left to right.

8.

What is the income effect in the context of demand?

a)

A decrease in price leads to a decrease in real income

b)

A decrease in price enables a consumer to buy more due to increased real income

c)

An increase in price leads to increased demand

d)

A decrease in price leads to less consumption

9.

Which of the following best describes the substitution effect?

a)

Consumers buy less of a product when its price falls

b)

Consumers substitute a product with another when its price rises

c)

Consumers substitute a product with another when its price falls

d)

Consumers ignore price changes

10.

What is a characteristic of Giffen goods?

a)

Consumption rises as price falls

b)

Consumption falls as price falls

c)

Consumption remains constant regardless of price

d)

Consumption rises as income rises

11.

Which of the following is an example of goods of ostentation?

a)

Salt

b)

Second hand clothes

c)

Luxurious cars

d)

Bread

12.

What happens to the demand for a commodity when a person forms a habit of consuming it?

a)

Demand increases as price increases

b)

Demand decreases as price increases

c)

Demand does not change with price

d)

Demand fluctuates randomly

13.

Why do goods of necessity have zero elasticity of demand?

a)

Consumers can easily reduce the quantity they buy

b)

Consumers cannot reduce the quantity they buy regardless of price changes

c)

The price never changes

d)

They are luxury items

14.

Which of the following is an example of a factor that can cause a shift in the demand curve?

a)

The price of the commodity itself

b)

The income of the consumer

c)

The color of the product

d)

The size of the packaging

15.

According to the text, what does a leftward shift in the demand curve represent?

a)

An increase in demand

b)

A decrease in demand

c)

No change in demand

d)

An increase in supply

16.

How does the supply of a commodity that serves two or more purposes affect the supply for other purposes?

a)

It does not affect the supply for other purposes

b)

It increases the supply for all purposes equally

c)

The supply for one purpose will affect the supply for the other purpose

d)

It decreases the supply for all purposes

17.

What is meant by competitive supply?

a)

When two products satisfy the same want and compete for satisfaction

b)

When two products are always produced together

c)

When the supply of one product does not affect the other

d)

When products are supplied at the same price

18.

Why are products in competitive supply considered rivals?

a)

Because they compete for the satisfaction of the same wants

b)

Because they are always sold together

c)

Because they are produced in the same factory

d)

Because they have the same price

19.

How does the entry of new businesses into the market affect supply?

a)

It decreases supply

b)

It has no effect on supply

c)

It increases supply

d)

It reduces demand

20.

If a firm adopts a capital-intensive method of production, what is the likely effect on supply?

a)

Supply will decrease

b)

Supply will increase

c)

Supply will remain unchanged

d)

Demand will decrease

21.

What is meant by "change in quantity supplied" in economics?

a)

A shift of the entire supply curve due to non-price factors

b)

A movement along the same supply curve due to a change in price

c)

A decrease in demand for a commodity

d)

An increase in production costs

22.

According to the text, what happens when the price of a commodity increases, assuming other factors remain constant?

a)

The supply curve shifts to the left

b)

The quantity supplied increases

c)

The demand decreases

d)

The equilibrium price falls

23.

In a free market, what happens if the quantity demanded is higher than the quantity supplied?

a)

The price will fall due to excess supply

b)

The price will remain constant

c)

The price will increase due to excess demand

d)

The supply curve will shift to the right

24.

Based on the example table, if the price is $10, what is the quantity demanded and quantity supplied?

a)

500 demanded, 100 supplied

b)

100 demanded, 500 supplied

c)

500 demanded, 500 supplied

d)

100 demanded, 100 supplied

25.

The equilibrium price in a capitalist economic system is determined by:

a)

The government setting the price

b)

The interaction of demand and supply forces in the market

c)

Producers only

d)

Consumers only

26.

What does the movement from point A to B on the supply curve represent?

a)

A change in supply due to non-price factors

b)

A change in quantity supplied due to a change in price

c)

A shift in the demand curve

d)

A decrease in equilibrium price

27.

What is the formula for calculating excess demand (Excess DD)?

a)

Excess DD = QD - QS

b)

Excess DD = QS - QD

c)

Excess DD = QD + QS

d)

Excess DD = QD / QS

28.

Given QD = 42 - 2P and QS = 12 + 4P, what is the equilibrium price?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

29.

If the price falls to $4.00, what is the term used to describe the situation where the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied?

a)

Excess supply

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Excess demand

d)

Surplus

30.

Which of the following equations represents a supply curve?

a)

QD = 21 - 3P

b)

QS = 21 + 3P

c)

QD = 12 - 2P

d)

QD = 25 + 0.25P

31.

What is the primary objective of a firm according to traditional economic theory?



a)

A. Maximizing social welfare

b)

B. Maximizing employee satisfaction

c)

C. Maximizing profit

d)

D. Maximizing market share

32.

. In the short run, a firm can vary:




a)

A. All of its inputs

b)

B. Only fixed costs

c)

C. Only variable inputs

d)

D. Neither fixed nor variable inputs

33.

What does the Law of Diminishing Returns state?



a)

A. As more units of a variable input are added to fixed inputs, total output always increases at an increasing rate.

b)

B. Adding more of a variable input to fixed inputs will eventually lead to smaller increases in output.

c)

C. The cost per unit of output always decreases as production increases.

d)

D. Output decreases as inputs increase.

34.

4. In perfect competition, firms are said to be:




a)

A. Price makers

b)

B. Price takers

c)

C. Government regulated

d)

D. Monopolistic

35.

5. Which of the following best describes marginal cost?


a)

The cost of producing one more unit of output

b)

The total cost divided by the number of units produced

c)

The total cost of all inputs used

d)

The change in profit from selling one more unit

36.

What is meant by "scale of production"?

a)

The amount of goods produced in a single batch

b)

The total revenue generated by a company

c)

The number of workers in a business

d)

The size or level at which a business produces goods or services

37.

Which of the following is a benefit of increasing the scale of production?

a)

Diseconomies of scale

b)

Decreased productivity

c)

Higher variable costs

d)

Lower average cost per unit

38.

When a business grows too large and becomes inefficient, it experiences:

a)

Break-even output

b)

Diseconomies of scale

c)

Economies of scale

d)

Constant returns to scale

39.

Which of the following is an example of an internal economy of scale?

a)

Lower interest rates in the economy

b)

Bulk buying of raw materials

c)

Lower corporate tax rates

d)

Improved national infrastructure

40.

A firm that increases its production but sees no change in average cost is experiencing:

a)

Constant returns to scale

b)

Diseconomies of scale

c)

Decreasing returns to scale

d)

Increasing returns to scale

41.

Which of the following is the most important factor for the location of a steel plant?

a)

Government policy

b)

Availability of labor

c)

Availability of water

d)

Proximity to raw materials

42.

The process of industries concentrating in a particular area is known as:

a)

Urbanisation

b)

Localisation

c)

Industrialisation

d)

Globalisation

43.

Which of these is NOT a factor affecting the location of an industry?

a)

Market availability

b)

Entertainment facilities

c)

Transportation

d)

Raw materials

44.

Which type of industry is most likely to be located near the source of raw material?

a)

IT industry

b)

Footwear industry

c)

Cotton textile industry

d)

Iron and steel industry

45.

Which of the following industries is most likely to be located near the market?

a)

Cement industry

b)

Paper industry

c)

Sugar industry

d)

Newspaper printing

46.

Which of the following is an example of a localized industry cluster?

a)

Fishing in Kerala

b)

Tea plantations in Assam

c)

IT companies in Bangalore

d)

Rice farming in Punjab

47.


Why do perishable goods industries prefer to be located near the market?

a)

To reduce taxes

b)

To avoid pollution

c)

To reduce labor costs

d)

To ensure timely delivery

48.

Which factor is most significant for the location of a hydroelectric power plant?

a)

Water availability

b)

Skilled labor

c)

Market proximity

d)

Raw materials

49.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of industrial localization?

a)

Easier infrastructure development

b)

Cost reduction due to shared facilities

c)

Efficient use of resources

d)

Regional imbalance

50.

What does the Law of Demand state?

a)

When price decreases, quantity demanded decreases

b)

Demand remains constant regardless of price

c)

When price increases, demand increases

d)

When price increases, quantity demanded decreases

51.

Which of the following is not a determinant of demand?

a)

Price of related goods

b)

Production cost

c)

Consumer tastes and preferences

d)

Consumer income

52.

A good for which demand increases as consumer income increases is known as a:

a)

Inferior good

b)

Normal good

c)

Giffen good

d)

Complementary good

53.

If the price of coffee rises and the demand for tea increases, these two goods are:

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Normal goods

d)

Inferior goods

54.

The demand curve generally slopes:

a)

Horizontally

b)

Vertically

c)

Downward from left to right

d)

Upward from left to right

55.

What does a demand curve show?

a)


The income level of consumers

b)

The relationship between supply and quantity

c)

The total cost of production

d)


The relationship between price and quantity demanded

56.

If the price of a good decreases, what usually happens to the quantity demanded, according to the law of demand?




a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It stays the same

d)


It becomes negative

57.

A demand schedule is best described as:

a)

A graph showing supply and demand

b)

A table that shows the quantity demanded at different prices

c)

A list of all products in a store

d)

A calendar of production deadlines

58.

When plotting a demand curve, which of the following is typically placed on the horizontal (X) axis?

a)

Price

b)

Time

c)

Income

d)

Quantity demanded

59.

Which of the following would cause a movement along the demand curve, rather than a shift in the curve?

a)

A change in the price of the good itself

b)

A change in consumer income

c)

A change in the price of a related good

d)

A change in consumer preferences

60.

What happens at the point where the demand and supply curves intersect in a market?

a)

Prices will continue to rise

b)

The market is in disequilibrium

c)

There is a surplus of goods

d)

The quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied