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Antibiotics P3

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which best describes bacteriostatic action?

a)

Directly kills bacteria

b)

Inhibits bacterial growth

c)

Enhances host antibodies

d)

Neutralizes toxins

2.

Which is NOT a beta-lactam subclass?

a)

Macrolides

b)

Penicillins

c)

Cephalosporins

d)

Carbapenems

3.

First-generation cephalosporins primarily cover:

a)

Gram-positive organisms

b)

Anaerobes only

c)

Fungi

d)

Atypical organisms

4.

Second-generation cephalosporins add better coverage for:

a)

Gram-negative organisms

b)

Fungi

c)

MRSA

d)

Viruses

5.

Which combination provides beta-lactamase inhibition?

a)

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

b)

Cefazolin alone

c)

Penicillin G

d)

Ceftriaxone

6.

Which teaching is correct for oral antibiotics in general?

a)

Stop when you feel better

b)

Take at evenly spaced intervals

c)

Double a missed dose

d)

Avoid all dairy products with all antibiotics

7.

Telithromycin use is limited primarily due to:

a)

Severe liver injury risk

b)

Profound bradycardia

c)

Renal failure

d)

Hypoglycemia

8.

Tigecycline differs from older tetracyclines because it:

a)

Is oral only

b)

Covers many organisms resistant to tetracyclines

c)

Has no nausea risk

d)

Is safe in pregnancy

9.

Erythromycin commonly causes:

a)

Seizures

b)

GI irritation

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Myelosuppression

10.

A patient with G6PD deficiency on sulfonamide therapy is at risk for:

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Agranulocytosis only

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Hyperkalemia only

11.

Penicillin nursing considerations include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Assess allergy history thoroughly

b)

Watch for interactions with warfarin

c)

Expect cross-sensitivity with cephalosporins

d)

Give with antacids to reduce GI upset

e)

Monitor for urticaria and angioedema

12.

General signs of superinfection to report include: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Oral white plaques

b)

Perineal itching

c)

Vaginal discharge

d)

Cough and lethargy

e)

Immediate hypotension

13.

Cefepime (4th gen) is indicated for:

a)

Uncomplicated viral URI

b)

UTIs, skin infections, pneumonia

c)

Fungal meningitis

d)

Helminth infections

14.

Carbapenems must generally be infused over:

a)

10 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

3 hours

d)

IV push

15.

Aztreonam is indicated for:

a)

Moderately severe systemic gram-negative infections and UTIs

b)

Anaerobic intra-abdominal infections alone

c)

MRSA bacteremia

d)

Fungal infections

16.

Which resistant pattern matches the enzyme produced by KPC organisms?

a)

Beta-lactamase that inactivates penicillins only

b)

Carbapenemase that inactivates carbapenems and many beta-lactams

c)

Oxidase that inactivates aminoglycosides

d)

Ligase that blocks macrolides

17.

Which two drugs may retain activity against CRE?

a)

Ceftriaxone and piperacillin

b)

Colistin and tigecycline

c)

Vancomycin and linezolid

d)

Azithromycin and doxycycline

18.

Best statement regarding MRSA epidemiology:

a)

Only hospital-acquired

b)

Now common in community; large fraction of staph infections

c)

Eliminated by vaccines

d)

Only colonizes, never infects

19.

Aminoglycosides primarily bind which ribosomal subunit?

a)

50S

b)

30S

c)

70S

d)

60S

20.

The therapeutic aminoglycoside trough goal is generally:

a)

>3 mcg/mL

b)

≤1 mcg/mL

c)

5–10 mcg/mL

d)

Undetectable only

21.

A key advantage of once-daily aminoglycoside dosing:

a)

Eliminates monitoring needs

b)

Lower or equal toxicity risk with effective peaks

c)

Improves time above MIC

d)

Reduces need for hydration

22.

Quinolones act by:

a)

Inhibiting cell-wall synthesis

b)

Inhibiting DNA replication

c)

Inhibiting folate synthesis

d)

Inhibiting 50S ribosome

23.

Which is a serious quinolone adverse effect requiring counseling?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Photosensitivity only

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Severe hypocalcemia

24.

Linezolid key adverse/interaction points: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Headache, N/V/D

b)

Decreased platelets

c)

Tyramine foods raise BP

d)

Safe with SSRIs

e)

Monitor weekly platelets

25.

Clindamycin counseling includes: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Take oral dose with 8 oz water

b)

Topical: avoid abrasive products

c)

Common GI adverse effects incl. diarrhea

d)

Safe in infants <1 month

e)

Risk of neuromuscular blockade potentiation

26.

Vancomycin nephrotoxicity risk increases with:

a)

Concurrent aminoglycosides

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Probiotics

d)

Acetaminophen

27.

Telavancin/dalbavancin special consideration:

a)

Daily dosing only

b)

Dalbavancin has long half-life—once weekly dosing

c)

Contraindicated in all renal dysfunction

d)

Shortens QT interval

28.

Why is daptomycin not used for pneumonia?

a)

Causes severe hemoptysis

b)

Inactivated by lung surfactant

c)

No gram-positive coverage

d)

Only oral form exists

29.

Quinolone IV administration best practice:

a)

Infuse over 1–1.5 hours

b)

IV push

c)

Mix with antacids

d)

Run with TPN in same line

30.

During aminoglycoside therapy, what should be done with rising troughs and creatinine?

a)

Continue and recheck in a week

b)

Hold doses and notify provider for dosing adjustment

c)

Give extra fluids only

d)

Add another nephrotoxic drug

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