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Bond and Investment Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A bondholder becomes a creditor of the issuing organization.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Bonds are considered fixed-income securities because they impose fixed financial obligations on issuers.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

A debenture is secured by specific physical assets of the issuing company.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Government of Canada bonds are always secured by physical assets.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The legal document outlining the details of a bond issue is called a trust deed.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

When market interest rates rise above a bond’s coupon rate, the bond price typically:

a)

Rises

b)

Falls

c)

Stays the same

d)

Doubles

7.

A bond priced at 104 is trading at:

a)

Par

b)

Discount

c)

Premium

d)

Face value

8.

A $1,000 bond quoted at 97 costs:

a)

$1,070

b)

$970

c)

$903

d)

$1,003

9.

Yield to maturity represents:

a)

The coupon divided by par

b)

The annual return if the bond is held to maturity

c)

The interest rate on Treasury bills

d)

The difference between bid and ask price

10.

Bonds that pay no periodic interest and are issued at a discount are called:

a)

Step-up bonds

b)

Index-linked notes

c)

Strip bonds

d)

Floating-rate notes

11.

The income from strip bonds is taxed as:

a)

Capital gain

b)

Dividend income

c)

Interest income

d)

Deferred income

12.

The period during which a callable bond cannot be called is the:

a)

Maturity date

b)

Election period

c)

Call protection period

d)

Grace period

13.

An extendible bond allows the:

a)

Issuer to shorten the maturity

b)

Investor to lengthen the maturity

c)

Issuer to change the coupon

d)

Investor to cancel interest payments

14.

A retractable bond allows the investor to:

a)

Convert to common shares

b)

Redeem early at par

c)

Extend the maturity date

d)

Avoid paying taxes

15.

A convertible bond allows investors to:

a)

Exchange bonds for preferred shares

b)

Exchange bonds for common shares

c)

Redeem for cash anytime

d)

Convert into Treasury bills

16.

The right to exchange a bond for common shares is known as the:

a)

Conversion clause

b)

Conversion privilege

c)

Conversion discount

d)

Conversion rate

17.

Forced conversion benefits primarily the:

a)

Bondholder

b)

Issuer

c)

Trustee

d)

Government

18.

Sinking funds are:

a)

Optional payments made by investors

b)

Mandatory reserves set aside to retire debt

c)

Issuer profits held in trust

d)

Premium payments on callable bonds

19.

Purchase funds retire debt only:

a)

If the price is at or below a specified level

b)

When the issuer defaults

c)

If the bondholder agrees

d)

When rates increase

20.

Protective covenants are:

a)

Promises by the investor

b)

Safeguards in the bond contract to protect investors

c)

Tax shelters for issuers

d)

Penalties for early redemption

21.

Provincial bonds are actually:

a)

Mortgages

b)

Debentures

c)

Promissory notes

d)

Treasury bills

22.

Government of Canada bonds are generally:

a)

Callable

b)

Non-callable

c)

Redeemable at any time

d)

Indexed to the prime rate

23.

Real return bonds adjust:

a)

Coupon only

b)

Principal only

c)

Both coupon and principal for inflation

d)

Neither coupon nor principal

24.

Municipalities primarily raise capital through:

a)

Real return bonds

b)

Treasury bills

c)

Instalment debentures

d)

High-yield bonds

25.

Floating-rate securities are advantageous when:

a)

Interest rates fall

b)

Interest rates rise

c)

Inflation decreases

d)

The issuer defaults

26.

A Maple bond is:

a)

A bond issued in the U.S. by a Canadian company

b)

A Canadian dollar bond issued in Canada by a foreign company

c)

A Eurobond issued in Europe

d)

A provincial bond

27.

High-yield bonds are also known as:

a)

Investment-grade bonds

b)

Speculative bonds

c)

Convertible bonds

d)

Debentures

28.

Commercial paper is generally issued by:

a)

Individuals

b)

Large corporations

c)

Municipalities

d)

Retail investors

29.

A guaranteed investment certificate that increases its rate over time is called a:

a)

Laddered GIC

b)

Escalating-rate GIC

c)

Instalment GIC

d)

Index-linked GIC

30.

Bonds rated “Baa” by Moody’s are:

a)

High quality

b)

Medium grade

c)

Speculative

d)

In default

31.

What is the primary focus of the fixed-income marketplace as described in the chapter overview?

a)

Trading equity securities

b)

Issuing debt securities

c)

Managing corporate mergers

d)

Investing in real estate

32.

Which type of securities is specifically associated with the Government of Canada according to the learning objectives?

a)

Corporate bonds

b)

Provincial securities

c)

Government of Canada securities

d)

Municipal securities

33.

What is the primary reason governments issue fixed-income securities?

a)

To finance operations or growth

b)

To take advantage of financial leverage

c)

To raise money for programs and obligations

d)

To reduce tax revenue

34.

What does the par value of a bond represent?

a)

The interest rate paid by the bond issuer.

b)

The principal amount the bond issuer contracts to pay at maturity.

c)

The annual return on a bond held to maturity.

d)

The time remaining before the bond matures.

35.

What is the coupon rate of a bond?

a)

The annual return on a bond held to maturity.

b)

The present discounted value of all future payments.

c)

The interest rate paid by the bond issuer relative to the bond's par value.

d)

The time remaining before the bond matures.

36.

What is the typical frequency of interest payments for most bonds in North America?

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Twice a year

d)

Annually

37.

What is the most common denomination for bonds issued in a broad retail market?

a)

$500 and $5,000

b)

$1,000 and $10,000

c)

$2,000 and $20,000

d)

$5,000 and $50,000

38.

What does it mean when a bond is trading at a discount?

a)

The bond is trading above its face value.

b)

The bond is trading at its face value.

c)

The bond is trading below its face value.

d)

The bond is trading at a premium.

39.

What does the term "good delivery form" refer to in the context of negotiable bonds?

a)

Bonds that are delivered electronically.

b)

Bonds that are delivered in actual paper copies or fixed-income securities between investment dealers.

c)

Bonds that are delivered with a premium price.

d)

Bonds that are delivered only to international investors.

40.

What is the primary difference between retractable bonds and extendible bonds?

a)

Retractable bonds have a shorter maturity date than extendible bonds.

b)

Retractable bonds allow investors to redeem the bond at par earlier than the maturity date, while extendible bonds allow the maturity date to be extended.

c)

Extendible bonds are issued with a fixed maturity date, while retractable bonds have no fixed maturity date.

d)

Extendible bonds are more commonly issued than retractable bonds.

41.

What happens to the bond price of convertible debt if interest rates rise sharply?

a)

The bond price drops below the conversion price.

b)

The bond price remains unaffected by interest rates.

c)

The bond price does not drop below the conversion price.

d)

The bond price increases above the conversion price.

42.

What is the key difference between a sinking fund and a purchase fund?

a)

A sinking fund is optional, while a purchase fund is mandatory.

b)

A sinking fund involves a fixed schedule, while a purchase fund involves purchases at or below a stipulated price.

c)

A sinking fund is used for equity, while a purchase fund is used for debt.

d)

A sinking fund is for short-term debt, while a purchase fund is for long-term debt.

43.

What does the 'limitation on sale and leaseback transactions' clause protect against?

a)

The firm issuing excessive dividends.

b)

The firm selling and leasing back assets that provide security for the debt.

c)

The firm merging with another company.

d)

The firm exceeding its debt-to-asset ratio.

44.

Which clause establishes rules for the payment of dividends to ensure equity is not drained?

a)

Debt test.

b)

Dividend test.

c)

Sinking fund provision.

d)

Sale of assets or merger clause.

45.

What are provincial bonds, and how do they differ from Government of Canada bonds?

a)

Provincial bonds are secured by assets, while Government of Canada bonds are not.

b)

Provincial bonds are debentures, meaning they are promises to pay without pledged assets, while Government of Canada bonds are secured by assets.

c)

Provincial bonds are issued internationally, while Government of Canada bonds are only issued domestically.

d)

Provincial bonds are guaranteed by the federal government, while Government of Canada bonds are not.

46.

What is one reason provinces borrow extensively in international markets?

a)

To avoid federal government regulations.

b)

To take advantage of lower borrowing costs.

c)

To issue bonds in Canadian dollars only.

d)

To avoid using syndicates of dealers and banks.

47.

What is an instalment debenture, also known as a serial bond?

a)

A bond that matures in a single year.

b)

A bond that matures in equal instalments over its term.

c)

A bond that is callable at any time.

d)

A bond that is issued by private corporations only.

48.

Why are instalment debentures considered non-callable?

a)

Because they can be redeemed by the issuer at any time.

b)

Because they allow investors to know the exact maturity dates in advance.

c)

Because they are issued by private corporations.

d)

Because they are backed by physical assets.

49.

What are bonds issued by a Canadian company in U.S. dollars in the United States called?

a)

Samurai bonds

b)

Maple bonds

c)

Yankee bonds

d)

EuroCanadian bonds

50.

What are Eurobonds denominated in Canadian dollars called?

a)

Maple bonds

b)

EuroCanadian bonds

c)

Yankee bonds

d)

Samurai bonds