Free Printable EYES

1.

Which structure of the eye maintains its shape and protects inner structures?

a)

Cornea

b)

Lens

c)

Sclera

d)

Retina

2.

The cornea contributes approximately how much to light refraction?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

3.

The iris controls which of the following functions?

a)

Drainage of aqueous humor

b)

Size of the pupil

c)

Shape of the lens

d)

Eye lubrication

4.

The conjunctiva is the site of which common infection?

a)

Blepharitis

b)

Conjunctivitis

c)

Keratitis

d)

Uveitis

5.

Presbyopia commonly occurs after age 40 due to:

a)

Thickening of the cornea

b)

Weakening of the optic nerve

c)

Decreased lens elasticity

d)

Retinal detachment

6.

Ptosis can be caused by which neurologic disorder?

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Myasthenia Gravis

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Bell’s palsy

7.

A white or gray ring around the cornea is called:

a)

Xanthelasma

b)

Arcus Senilis

c)

Entropion

d)

Chalazion

8.

Glaucoma results from:

a)

Retinal detachment

b)

Infection of the eyelid

c)

Inflammation of the uveal tract

d)

Increased intraocular pressure damaging the optic nerve

9.

Which population has the highest risk for glaucoma?

a)

Hispanic

b)

African American

c)

Caucasian

d)

Asian

10.

The most common type of glaucoma is:

a)

Angle-closure

b)

Open-angle

c)

Secondary

d)

Congenital

11.

Sudden severe eye pain, halos, and nausea indicate:

a)

Open-angle glaucoma

b)

Retinal detachment

c)

Angle-closure glaucoma

d)

Cataract

12.

Normal intraocular pressure is:

a)

5–10 mmHg

b)

10–21 mmHg

c)

22–35 mmHg

d)

36–50 mmHg

13.

Which glaucoma medication is contraindicated in asthma or COPD?

a)

Pilocarpine

b)

Timolol

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

. Travoprost

14.

The nurse should teach glaucoma patients to avoid:

a)

Bending and straining

b)

Wearing sunglasses

c)

Eating salty foods

d)

Taking stool softeners

15.

Cataracts cause:

a)

Peripheral vision loss

b)

Clouding of the lens and glare sensitivity

c)

Painful red eyes

d)

Floaters and flashes

16.

After cataract surgery, which finding requires immediate reporting?

a)

Mild itching

b)

Blurry vision

c)

Severe pain or vision loss

d)

Sensitivity to light

17.

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) primarily affects:

a)

Central vision

b)

Peripheral vision

c)

Night vision

d)

Color vision only

18.

The rapid, severe type of macular degeneration is:

a)

Dry

b)

Wet

c)

Open-angle

d)

Proliferative

19.

Which nutrient combination slows AGE RELATED MACULAR DEGENERATION progression?

a)

Iron and calcium

b)

Vitamins A, C, E, and zinc

c)

Potassium and magnesium

d)

Sodium and vitamin D

20.

Diabetic retinopathy results from:

a)

Retinal detachment

b)

Microvascular damage from chronic hyperglycemia

c)

Optic nerve inflammation

d)

Vitamin A deficiency

21.

The nurse should instruct diabetic patients to maintain A1C below:

a)

6%

b)

9%

c)

8%

d)

7%

22.

The “visual vital sign” of the eye is:

a)

Color perception

b)

Visual acuity

c)

Intraocular pressure

d)

Corneal reflex

23.

Snellen chart results of 20/60 mean:

a)

Normal vision

b)

You see at 60 ft what normal vision sees at 20 ft

c)

You see at 20 ft what normal vision sees at 60 ft

d)

Perfect vision

24.

In feeding a visually impaired patient, which technique is correct?

a)

Clock method orientation

b)

Feeding the patient yourself

c)

Using contrasting plate colors only

d)

Placing all food in one area

25.

When caring for a blind patient, the nurse’s first action is:

a)

Take their hand

b)

Identify yourself and explain actions

c)

Speak loudly

d)

Turn on bright lights

26.

Correct technique for eye drop administration includes:

a)

Touching the dropper to the eye

b)

Tilting head forward

c)

Pulling lower lid and pressing inner canthus after instillation

d)

Blinking rapidly

27.

Which refractive error means “can see near, not far”?

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Presbyopia

d)

Astigmatism

28.

“Far = fine, near = not” describes which condition?

a)

Presbyopia

b)

Myopia

c)

Hyperopia

d)

Astigmatism

29.

LASIK surgery corrects:

a)

Lens opacity

b)

Myopia

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Retinopathy

30.

The term PERRLA stands for:

a)

Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation

b)

Pupils Equal, Rapid, React to Light Always

c)

Pupils Equal, Red, Responding to Light Activity

d)

Pupils Equal, Regular, React Lightly and Accurately

31.

The first nursing action after an eye chemical burn is:

a)

Apply antibiotic ointment

b)

Cover the eye

c)

Irrigate the eye continuously for 15–20 minutes

d)

Check visual acuity

32.

The main cause of uveitis is:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Inflammation of the uveal tract

c)

Corneal scratch

d)

Blocked tear duct

33.

What finding after corneal transplant requires urgent reporting?

a)

Mild irritation

b)

Temporary blurry vision

c)

Severe pain or redness

d)

Light sensitivity

34.

For glaucoma, which activity increases intraocular pressure?

a)

Sleeping flat

b)

Coughing or bending

c)

Wearing sunglasses

d)

Taking stool softeners

35.

The nurse knows guide dogs should:

a)

Be petted to establish rapport

b)

Always walk in front of the patient

c)

Never be distracted while working

d)

Be offered food for comfort

36.

The “silent thief of sight” refers to:

a)

Cataracts

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Macular degeneration

d)

Retinopathy

37.

The nurse reinforces that missing glaucoma eye drops can lead to:

a)

Temporary blurred vision only

b)

Permanent vision loss

c)

Cataract formation

d)

Eye infection

38.

What is the first action before performing an intervention?

a)

Check vitals

b)

Explain and gain consent

c)

Reposition patient

d)

Assess need and plan evaluation

39.

Vision loss due to lens opacity is called:

a)

Cataract

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Retinopathy

d)

Macular degeneration

40.

Which disorder causes distorted or wavy vision?

a)

Cataract

b)

Macular degeneration

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Retinopathy

EYES

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

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