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Aircraft Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

For an aeroplane with a true pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

a)

Water depth is equal to the half of the depth to tyregrooves

b)

Speed is greater than 127 kt.

c)

Speed is greater than 98 kt.

d)

Cross wind is greater than 98 kt.

2.

For an aeroplane with a true pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

a)

Water depth is equal to the half of the depth to tyregrooves

b)

Cross wind is greater than 15 kt.

c)

Speed is greater than 138 kt.

d)

Speed is greater than 117 kt.

3.

Aircraft piston engines have reached a very high state of mechanical perfection and have a relatively long working life. These can be lost due to:

a)

Coarse, rough handling of the throttle and mixture control

b)

Detonation and increased fuel consumption

c)

Performing magneto serviceability checks at 1000 RPM

4.

The capacity of a battery is the:

a)

No-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its output current

b)

Numbers of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells

c)

Intensity withstood by the battery during charging

d)

Amount of Ampere hours that a fully charged battery can supply

5.

All aircraft electrical systems include battery, used to:

a)

Increase the capacitance for normal operations

b)

De-stabilize the power during switching of transitory loads

c)

Supply power to essential services in the event of generator failure

6.

A hung (abortive) start of a gas turbine engine may be caused by:

a)

Compressor surging

b)

A too low pneumatic starter pressure

c)

Failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the starter

7.

In which part of a gas turbine engine are high temperature requirements most critical for the materials used?

a)

The last part of the HP compressor and front part of the HP turbine

b)

The combustion chamber and exhaust nozzle

c)

The combustion chamber and front part of the HP turbine

d)

The turbine and exhaust nozzle

8.

A diluter demand oxygen regulator selected to 100%:

a)

Delivers oxygen flow only above FL100

b)

Is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit

c)

Mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask

d)

Delivers oxygen flow when inhaling

9.

Each cylinder in piston engine has:

a)

3 valves

b)

1 valves

c)

2 valves

10.

Electricity powered ice protection devices on aircraft are:

a)

Used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static port and windshield

b)

Used as anti-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static port and windshield

c)

Used for large surface only

d)

Used primarily because they are very efficient

e)

checks at 1000 RPM

11.

When carrying out a battery condition check using the aircraft’s voltmeter

a)

No load should be applied to the battery because it would reduce the voltage

b)

A load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition

c)

The load condition is unimportant

d)

The battery should be isolated

12.

Transformers are extremely versatile devices that can be used: - To pass Direct Current and block Altering Current

a)

To step up or down Alternating Current voltage

b)

To pass Direct Current and block Altering Current

13.

An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:

a)

(i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4

b)

(i) 1/2 (ii) 1/16

c)

(i) 4 (ii) 1/2

d)

(i) 1/4 (ii) 2

14.

Wind shear is:

a)

A variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance

b)

A variation only in vertical wind velocity over a short distance

c)

A variation only in horizontal wind velocity over a short distance

d)

A large variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance

15.

When selected to normal, the oxygen/air ratio of the mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:

a)

Is 100%

b)

Is constant whatever the altitude

c)

Increases when the altitude increases

d)

Decreases when the altitude increases

16.

While maintaining the same True Air Speed (TAS), with an increase in altitude:

a)

The IAS should also increase

b)

The IAS will be unaffected

c)

The indicated Air Speed (IAS) will reduce

17.

The total reaction has two components:

a)

Lift and relative airflow

b)

Lift and rotational airflow

c)

Lift and drag

18.

208. Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. The amount of control action required to counter the effects of windshear is:

a)

minimal

b)

moderate

c)

significant

d)

none

19.

Transformer rectifiers can:

a)

Generate Alternating Current (AC) of higher or lower voltage

b)

Maintain constant Direct Current (DC) voltage

c)

Generate Direct Current (DC) of higher or lower voltage

20.

In what way do induced drag and parasite drag alter with increasing speed in straight and level flight?

a)

(1) increases and (2) increases

b)

(1) decreases and (2) increases

c)

(1) increases and (2) decrease

d)

(1) decreases and (2) decreases

21.

Lift is generated when:

a)

The flow direction of a certain mass of air is changed

b)

A certain mass of air is retarded

c)

A symmetrical aerofoil is placed in a highly velocity air stream at zero angle of attack

d)

A certain mass of air is accelerated in its flow direction

22.

Which statement is correct for a gas turbine engine with a constant speed propeller and free power turbine, when the power setting is increased?

a)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

b)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

c)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

d)

1 is correct, 2 is correct

23.

The wing ice protection system currently used on most large jet transport aeroplane is an:

a)

Electrical de-icing system

b)

Pneumatic system with inflatable boots

c)

Hot air system

d)

Liquid de-icing system

24.

For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:

a)

Mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder

b)

Mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor

c)

Volume of fuel volume of air entering the cylinder

d)

Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor

25.

The ABS (Auto Brake System) is disconnected during landing:

a)

When selecting the revers thrust

b)

Automatically

c)

Below a specific speed

d)

By pilot action

26.

One of the causes of high oil temperature in a gas turbine engine at constant power setting is:

a)

Usually high scavenge pump oil flow

b)

High outside air temperature

c)

Malfunction of the heat exchanger

d)

High oil pressure

27.

On a normally aspirated engine, the manifold pressure gauge always indicates:

a)

A value equal to the atmospheric pressure when the engine is at full power on the ground

b)

A greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running

c)

A lower value than the atmospheric pressure when the engine is running

d)

Zero on the ground when the engine is speed

28.

In a gas turbine engine, the propelling jet is generated by:

a)

Compression of hot gases resulting in a conversion of kinetic energy (velocity) into (mechanical) work

b)

Expansion of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic energy (velocity)

c)

Compression of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic energy (velocity)

d)

Expansion of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into (mechanical) work

29.

When the combustion gases pass through turbine stage the:

a)

Temperature increases

b)

Pressure drop

c)

Temperature remains constant

d)

Pressure rises

30.

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:

a)

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

b)

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

c)

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway

d)

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

31.

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:

a)

MEDIUM aircraft taking –off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760m.

b)

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

c)

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway

d)

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

32.

Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a LIGHT aircraft behind MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?

a)

4 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

2 minutes

33.

Electrical power is measured in:

a)

Nanos

b)

Amps

c)

Watts

34.

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:

a)

used to supply fuel under pressure to the engines

b)

used only for emergency situations

c)

located outside the fuel tanks

d)

not required for engine operation

35.

Which of the following is a type of pump?

a)

High pressure variable swash plate pumps

b)

Low pressure variable swash plate pumps

c)

Centrifugal high pressure pumps

d)

Centrifugal low pressure type pumps

36.

The “Ram Air Effect” has a significant effect on:

a)

Thrust and airspeed

b)

Thrust

c)

Airspeed

37.

The main purpose of turbocharger is to:

a)

Provide a richer mixture at higher altitudes

b)

Reduce the fuel flow

c)

Maintain power with increasing altitude

d)

Provide a leaner mixture at sea level

38.

Regarding a jet engine:

a)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

b)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

c)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

d)

1 is correct, 2 is correct

39.

Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a microburst situated directly ahead. The initial indications will be:

a)

1,3

b)

2,4

c)

1,4

d)

2,3

40.

The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10.8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:

a)

56 kt

b)

145 kt

c)

87 kt

d)

113 kt

41.

The capacity of a battery is given in:

a)

Ampere hours

b)

Watts

c)

Ohms

d)

Amperes/volts.

42.

The purpose of stingers, used in fuselage construction, is to:

a)

Absorb shear stresses

b)

Carry the loads due to pressurization and convert them into tensile stress

c)

Assist the skin to absorb longitudinal compressive loads

d)

Provide sound and thermal insolation

43.

When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane:

a)

Should use normal landing-braking-and reverse technique

b)

Should use maximum reverse thrust however should start braking below the hydroplaning speed

c)

Should make a positive landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible

d)

Must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer existing

44.

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

a)

Is rough textured

b)

Is very smooth and clean

c)

Is very smooth and dirty

d)

The tyres treads not in a good state

45.

The primary reason for venting an engine oil tank is to:

a)

Cool the oil

b)

Allow for expansion of hot oil

c)

Prevent excessive pressure in the tank

d)

Prevent overflow

46.

When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause:

a)

Low cylinder head

b)

High manifold pressure

c)

High cylinder head

d)

High engine RPM

47.

Regarding a jet engine:

a)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

b)

1 is correct, 2 is correct

c)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

d)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

48.

What will happen in ground effect?

a)

The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases

b)

The induced angle of attack and induced drag decrease

c)

The thrust required will increase significantly

d)

The wing tip vortices increase in strength

49.

The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is called the:

a)

Reduction gear

b)

Camshaft

c)

Crankshaft

d)

Piston

50.

Which statement is correct for a gas turbine engine with a constant speed propeller and free power turbine, when the power setting is decreased?

a)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

b)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

c)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

d)

1 is correct, 2 is correct

51.

One of the advantage of turbocharger is:

a)

To make the power available less effected by altitude

b)

An increased propulsive efficiency

c)

That there is no danger of detonation

d)

That there is no torsion at the crankshaft

52.

Lift is the :

a)

Component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the local airflow

b)

Vertical component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the undisturbed

c)

Component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the mean aerodynamic

d)

Component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the undisturbed airflow

53.

Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:

a)

CL has approximately the same value as CD

b)

CL is much lower than CD

c)

CL is much greater than CD

d)

CL is lower than CD

54.

Input and output of a static inverter are respectively:

a)

AC and AC

b)

AC and DC

c)

DC and DC

d)

DC and AC

55.

An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to:

a)

Absorb starting loads

b)

Facilitate quick removal and installation

c)

Provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting

d)

Advance the ignition timing

56.

One of the advantages of an annular combustion chamber is:

a)

A higher structural strength

b)

A simpler assembly

c)

The fewer igniters are required

57.

Regarding a jet engine:

a)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

b)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

c)

1 is correct, 2 is correct

d)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

58.

Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:

a)

Fin leading edge

b)

Slat leading edge

c)

Elevator leading edges

d)

Pitot tubes

59.

If the electrical load of an AC generator providing a constant output voltage increases, the voltage regulator will:

a)

Decrease the excitation current

b)

Increase the excitation current

c)

Maintain the excitation current constant

d)

Change direction of the excitation current

60.

A flat rated turbofan engine has a constant maximum rated thrust level:

a)

Up to a specific pressure altitude

b)

Above a specific pressure altitude

c)

Above specific OAT

d)

Up to a specific OAT

61.

The lift-and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section:

a)

Are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack

b)

Depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section

c)

Vary linearly with the angle of attack

d)

Are normal to each other at just angle of attack

62.

Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:

a)

A rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plug

b)

The mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre

63.

For a subsonic airflow, in a divergent duct the:

a)

Pressure decreases, velocity increases and temperature decreases

b)

Pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature increases

c)

Pressure decreases, velocity increases and temperature increases

d)

Pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature decreases

64.

Magnetic chip detectors are fitted in the oil system:

a)

Collecting any carbon particles in the oil

b)

To indicate low oil viscosity

c)

Collecting any ferrous metal particles in the oil

65.

Parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit can be:

a)

Pressure, fluid temperature and quantity

b)

Pressure and RPM of the hydraulic pump

c)

Pressure and fluid viscosity

d)

Pressure and hydraulic pump output

66.

The purpose of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut is:

a)

The oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function

b)

The oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function

c)

The oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipating function

d)

The oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function

67.

In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:

a)

Prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude

b)

Enrich the mixture due to decreased air density at altitude

c)

Weaken the mixture because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude

d)

Correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude

68.

The minimum requirements for supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurized aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:

a)

14000 ft

b)

25000 ft

c)

13000 ft

d)

15000 ft

69.

Electrically powered ice protection devices on aircraft are:

a)

Used as de-icing devices for pitot tubes, static ports and windshield

b)

Used as anti-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield

c)

Used for large surfaces only

d)

Used primarily because they are very efficient

70.

The wing ice protection system currently used on most large jet transport aeroplanes is an:

a)

Electrical de-icing system

b)

Pneumatic system with inflatable boots

c)

Hot air system

d)

Liquid de-icing system

71.

On normally aspirated engine, the manifold pressure gauge always indicates:

a)

A value equal to the atmospheric pressure when the engine is at full power on the ground

b)

A greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running

c)

A lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running

d)

Zero on the ground when the engine is stopped

72.

The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:

a)

absorb shear stresses

b)

carry the load due to pressurization and convert them in tensile stress

c)

assist the skin to absorb longitudinal compressive loads

d)

provide sound and thermal insolation

73.

The input and output of a static inverter are respectively:

a)

AC and DC

b)

AC and AC

c)

DC and DC

d)

DC and AC

74.

A flat turbofan engine has a constant maximum rated thrust level

a)

Up to a specific pressure altitude

b)

Above a specific pressure altitude

c)

Above a specific OAT

d)

Up to a specific OAT

75.

Turbine stage in sequence consists of:

a)

Stator, rotor, turbine housing, bearing of the turbine

b)

Bearing, turbine housing, rotor and stator

c)

Turbine housing, rotor, stator, bearing of the turbine

76.

A turbine engine with a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s and HP compressor mass flow of 50 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

1.2

77.

The function of the air inlet is:

a)

To present a relativity disorientation free, high-energy supply of air to the compressor

b)

To prevent foreign object indigestion

c)

To protect the compressor from hail damage

78.

The principle of the 4-stroke internal combustion engine is:

a)

To convert chemical energy into mechanical energy

b)

To convert heat into momentum

c)

To convert mechanical energy into heat

79.

Concerning the starting procedures of a gas turbine engine:

a)

If the air starter sizes, the engine can still be started by means of another air bleed

b)

If the HP fuel valve is opened at a relatively high compressor rpm, this may result in a hot start

c)

The higher the starter air pressure, the higher the EGT during starting

d)

The selected igniters are activated after fuel is delivered to the fuel nozzle

80.

Induced drag is created by the:

a)

Span wise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices

b)

Separation of the boundary layer over the wing

c)

Propeller wash blowing across the wing

d)

Interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage

81.

A slat will:

a)

Prolong the stall to a higher angle of attack

b)

Increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing

c)

Provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing

d)

Increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge

82.

The oil supply to gas turbine engine bearings is maintained in the event of the main oil filter becoming clogged by:

a)

a back-up oil system

b)

differential pressure opening the bypass valve of the main oil filter

c)

the scavange pumps

d)

the HP fuel pump

83.

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by the flight deck crew is to:

a)

Cut off all air conditioning units

b)

Begin an emergency descent

c)

Put on the mask and goggles

d)

Determine which system is causing the smoke

84.

Two methods used to reduce induced drag are:

a)

Decreasing the aspect ratio

b)

Wash-out

c)

Air flow separation control

d)

Vortex de-generation

e)

Wing tip design

85.

A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:

a)

An AC generators

b)

A thermistor

c)

A transformer

d)

An inverter

86.

The purpose of baffles fitted in wing fuel tanks is to:

a)

Prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank

b)

Restrict undesirable fuel movement during side slip

c)

Close the vent lines in case of turbulence

87.

The octane rating:

a)

Is a measure of the velocity of the fuel

b)

Indicates the vapour pressure of the fuel

c)

Is a measure of the fuel's resistance to detonation

88.

A halon fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of:

a)

1,2,3

b)

1,2,3,4

c)

2,3,4

d)

1,2,4

89.

Ohm’s law states that:

a)

The current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to the coulombs that is applied to the circuit

b)

The current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied voltage

c)

The current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance through which the current flows

90.

The purpose of the spark plugs is to:

a)

Assist with impulse coupling

b)

Provide a break to determine the fuel/air ratio

c)

Provide a break in the electrical circuit from the magneto

91.

What is the most effective flap system?

a)

Single slotted flap

b)

Fowler flap

c)

Plain flap

d)

Split flap

92.

The wing anti-ice system has to protect:

a)

The whole upper wing surface and the flaps

b)

The leading edge or the slats, either partially or completely

c)

The whole leading edge and the whole under wing surface

d)

Slats and the leading edge flaps only

93.

Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics: 1. High heating 2. Valve fragility 3. Lower risk of bursting 4. Better adjustment to wheels. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

a)

1,2,3,4

b)

3,4

c)

2,4

d)

2,3

94.

Which statement is correct?

a)

1 is correct and 2 is incorrect

b)

1 is correct and 2 is correct

c)

1 is correct and 2 is correct

d)

1 is correct and 2 is incorrect

95.

Mass balancing of control surfaces is used to:

a)

Limit the stick forces

b)

Increase the stick force stability

c)

Prevent flutter of control surfaces

d)

Ensure that the control surfaces are in the mid-position during landing

96.

In the absence of position and instrument error, IAS is equal to:

a)

EAS

b)

KAS

c)

TAS

97.

Detonation can be caused by a variety of reasons and is normally recognized by:

a)

Loss of power

b)

Increase in cylinder head temperature

c)

Fluctuating oil pressure

98.

One reason to fit a tip shroud to a turbine blade is to:

a)

Reduce turbine temperatures

b)

Provide a seal for the cooling airflow

c)

Increase turbine efficiency

d)

Prevent blade creep

99.

Which of the following statements is correct about the flow divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake?

a)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

b)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

c)

1 is correct, 2 is correct

d)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

100.

Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are:

a)

Dependent on the AC-Generator

b)

Dependent on the DC-Generator

c)

Independent of the electrical system of the aircraft

d)

Dependent on the battery