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WorksheetsNCM 112 QUIZ
Total questions: 25
Worksheet time: 13mins
A patient with serum sodium of 120 mEq/L presents with confusion and seizures. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Risk for activity intolerance related to muscle weakness
B. Risk for acute confusion related to electrolyte imbalance
C. Risk for injury related to decreased mobility
D. Risk for fluid volume deficit related to water loss
What is the most important precaution when administering IV potassium chloride (KCl)?
A. Give as a rapid IV bolus
B. Add to a hanging IV bag
C. Administer using an infusion pump after dilution
D. Mix with calcium gluconate to prevent irritation
A positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s sign are indicative of which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Which finding is most associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Flat T waves and presence of U waves
B. Peaked T waves and widened QRS complex
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. Presence of tented P waves
Which finding is most associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Flat T waves and presence of U waves
B. Peaked T waves and widened QRS complex
C. Prolonged QT interval
D. Presence of tented P waves
A patient receiving loop diuretics develops muscle weakness and a flattened T wave on ECG. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer IV calcium gluconate
B. Restrict potassium intake
C. Administer prescribed potassium chloride via infusion pump
D. Encourage increased sodium intake
A nurse is caring for a patient with serum sodium of 150 mEq/L and dry mucous membranes. The patient is alert and can drink fluids. What is the best initial nursing action?
A. Start IV hypotonic saline immediately
B. Encourage oral fluid intake
C. Restrict sodium in the diet only
D. Administer diuretics as ordered
A patient on digoxin therapy presents with hypokalemia. Why is this condition particularly dangerous?
A. It increases renal excretion of digoxin.
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B. It enhances digoxin’s effect, increasing risk of toxicity.
C. It decreases digoxin absorption in the GI tract.
D. It neutralizes the effect of digoxin on cardiac cells
A postoperative thyroidectomy patient begins showing carpal spasms when a blood pressure cuff is inflated. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer IV calcium gluconate as prescribed.
B. Apply warm compresses to relieve the spasm.
C. Encourage deep breathing and relaxation.
D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent edema.
A patient with serum sodium of 118 mEq/L develops confusion and seizures. The physician orders 3% hypertonic saline. What is the nurse’s priority action during administration?
A. Administer the solution rapidly to prevent further sodium loss.
B. Monitor for signs of fluid overload and frequent serum sodium levels.
C. Increase free water intake to promote dilution.
D. Place the patient in high Fowler’s position for comfort.
Which of the following best describes the primary function of the buffer system in acid–base balance?
A. Excretes excess acids through the kidneys
B. Neutralizes strong acids or bases to maintain pH balance
C. Controls carbon dioxide elimination through the lungs
D. Regulates bicarbonate reabsorption in the renal tubules
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is experiencing rapid, deep respirations known as Kussmaul breathing. This is a compensatory mechanism for which condition?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
The nurse identifies which arterial blood gas (ABG) values as respiratory alkalosis?
A. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 28 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L
C. pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 36 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
D. pH 7.46, PaCO₂ 45 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L
A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD who has a PaCO₂ of 56 mmHg and pH of 7.30. Which of the following explains this finding?
A. Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation
B. Respiratory acidosis due to CO₂ retention
C. Metabolic acidosis due to kidney dysfunction
D. Metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting
The nurse is analyzing an ABG result: pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 44 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 32 mEq/L. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
1. Which of the following best describes the main characteristic of cancer cells in terms of proliferation?
A. They divide only when new cells are needed.
B. They stop growing when they contact other cells.
C. They lose contact inhibition and grow uncontrollably.
D. They mature and specialize before dividing.
Which of the following genes, when altered, is associated with an increased risk for breast and ovarian cancer?
A. APC
B. BRCA1 and BRCA2
C. p53
D. CEA
Which of the following genes, when altered, is associated with an increased risk for breast and ovarian cancer?
A. APC
B. BRCA1 and BRCA2
C. p53
D. CEA
Which of the following factors is considered a promoter in cancer development?
A. Ionizing radiation
B. Obesity
C. Viral infection
D. Genetic mutation
What is the most frequent site of metastasis in cancer progression?
A. Kidney
B. Skin
C. Liver
D. Spleen
What is the main function of natural killer (NK) cells in immunologic surveillance?
A. Produce antibodies to tumor cells
B. Directly lyse tumor cells without prior sensitization
C. Promote tumor angiogenesis
D. Secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
Which oncofetal antigen is primarily associated with colorectal cancer?
A. α-fetoprotein (AFP)
B. CA-125
C. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
D. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
During the initiation stage of cancer development, which event primarily occurs?
A. Rapid tumor growth and metastasis
B. Mutation in the cell’s genetic structure
C. Reversible proliferation of altered cells
D. Formation of a vascular network in the tumor
A client receiving chemotherapy has a decreased white blood cell (WBC) count. The nurse recognizes this as which alteration in the immune system’s cancer defense?
A. Enhanced cytotoxic T-cell function
B. Impaired immunologic surveillance
C. Increased production of cytokines
D. Activation of natural killer (NK) cells
The nurse explains to a client that elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels after surgery may indicate:
A. Recurrence or persistence of tumor activity
B. Complete eradication of cancer cells
C. Development of liver cirrhosis
D. Normal immune response to therapy
