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Activity - Bones, Joints, Muscles, Postural Reflexes, Safety

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a function of bones?

a)

Supports the soft tissues of the body

b)

Produces blood cells

c)

Provides storage areas for minerals and fat

d)

Produces hormones

2.

Bones protect crucial components of the _______.

a)

body

b)

engine

c)

forest

d)

computer

3.

Which type of bone is found in the upper and lower extremities?

a)

Long bones

b)

Short bones

c)

Flat bones

d)

Irregular bones

4.

Which of the following is a free moving joint found in the hip and shoulder?

a)

Ball and socket

b)

Hinge

c)

Pivot

d)

Saddle

5.

The elbow joint is an example of a _______ joint.

a)

Hinge

b)

Ball and socket

c)

Pivot

d)

Gliding

6.

Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Smooth

d)

None of the above

7.

Cardiac muscle is voluntary and found only in the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Ergonomics is the science of designing equipment and work tasks to conform to the capability of the _______.

a)

worker

b)

machine

c)

environment

d)

manager

9.

Which of the following is a variable that leads to patient handling injury?

a)

Uncoordinated lifts, high exertion

b)

Manual lifting/transferring, awkward or static postures

c)

Repetitive movements/tasks, standing for long periods of time

d)

All of the above

10.

Which of the following is an assistive device/equipment used to aid mobility?

a)

Gait belts

b)

Resistance bands

c)

Plank

d)

Increased heart efficiency

11.

Stand-assist, lateral-assist, and repositioning aids are examples of __________.

a)

assistive devices/equipment

b)

personal protective equipment

c)

diagnostic tools

d)

medication administration methods

12.

Problems involving the nervous system can influence mobility.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Which type of exercise involves muscle contraction without shortening and stays the same length?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Isometric

c)

Isokinetic

d)

Cardiovascular

14.

Resistance bands and some weight machines are used in __________ exercises.

a)

isokinetic

b)

isometric

c)

aerobic

d)

anaerobic

15.

Which of the following is a benefit of cardiovascular exercise to the lungs?

a)

Improved alveolar ventilation/diaphragmatic excursion

b)

Increased heart efficiency

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Flexing quad

16.

Increased heart efficiency, decreased heart rate and blood pressure are benefits of __________ exercise.

a)

cardiovascular

b)

anaerobic

c)

flexibility

d)

isometric

17.

Isotonic exercises include jogging, swimming, walking, vacuuming, and stair climbing.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which of the following is a risk associated with exercise?

a)

Precipitation of a cardiac event

b)

Improved sleep quality

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Enhanced memory

19.

What is a possible risk for an 82-year-old patient who hasn’t moved in 10 days?

a)

Muscle atrophy

b)

Improved endurance

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Enhanced memory

20.

One of the risks for immobile patients is ________ skin integrity.

a)

Impaired

b)

Improved

c)

Enhanced

d)

Strengthened

21.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a risk for immobile patients?

a)

DVT

b)

Lungs, GI motility

c)

Improved sleep quality

d)

Failure to thrive, lack of motivation

22.

Which of the following should be asked to a patient during assessment?

a)

Daily activity level, specifics

b)

Favorite color

c)

Preferred music genre

d)

Travel history

23.

During physical assessment, general ease of movement, gait and ________ should be evaluated.

a)

posture

b)

temperature

c)

vision

d)

hearing

24.

Which system facilitates reflex and voluntary movements during sleep?

a)

Regular activating system (RAS)

b)

Digestive system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Respiratory system

25.

The hypothalamus is the control center for sleeping and waking.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

NREM sleep consists of ______ stages.

a)

four

b)

two

c)

five

d)

six

27.

Which stage of sleep accounts for 20-25% of total sleep?

a)

REM

b)

NREM stage 1

c)

NREM stage 2

d)

NREM stage 4

28.

Stages 1 and 2 of NREM sleep account for what percentage of sleep?

a)

5-50%

b)

10-20%

c)

20-25%

d)

60-70%

29.

Stages 3 and 4 of NREM sleep are known as ______ sleep states.

a)

deep sleep states (delta sleep)

b)

REM sleep states

c)

light sleep states

d)

paradoxical sleep states

30.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of insufficient sleep?

a)

May affect growth and development in children

b)

May increase risk of obesity in both children and adults

c)

Increases leptin (full) levels and decreases ghrelin (hungry) levels

d)

Sleep is responsible for growth hormone release

31.

Newborns and infants require ______ hours of sleep per day.

a)

14-20

b)

8-10

c)

10-12

d)

20-24

32.

Which age group typically needs 8-10 hours of sleep per night?

a)

Preschoolers

b)

Teenagers

c)

Young adults

d)

Middle-aged adults

33.

REM sleep increases when psychological stress is high.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which dietary habit promotes sleep?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Caffeine

c)

Amino acid L-tryptophan found in milk

d)

Smoking and nicotine

35.

School aged children (ages 4-12) require ______ hours of sleep per night.

a)

10-12

b)

6-8

c)

12-14

d)

8-10

36.

Which of the following medications can affect sleep?

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Antidepressants

c)

Antihypertensives

d)

All of the above

37.

Smoking and nicotine are associated with poor sleep.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Which of the following is a symptom of insomnia?

a)

Difficulty falling asleep

b)

Excessive daytime sleepiness

c)

Sleep terrors

d)

Gasping for air during sleep

39.

What percentage of adults complain of insomnia?

a)

10-15%

b)

20-25%

c)

30-35%

d)

40-45%

40.

Insomnia is more likely to be experienced if a person is _________.

a)

depressed

b)

well-rested

c)

energetic

d)

hydrated

41.

Sleep apnea is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Cataplexy

b)

Apnea and hypopnea

c)

Sleep terrors

d)

Sleep related eating disorder

42.

Which sleep disorder involves excessive daytime sleepiness and involuntary daytime sleep lapses?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Somnambulism

43.

Cataplexy is a sudden loss of skeletal muscle tone lasting seconds to minutes.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Chronic or recurrent pattern of sleep-wake rhythm disruption is known as _________?

a)

Sleep wake disorder

b)

Insomnia

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Sleep apnea

45.

Which of the following is NOT a type of parasomnia?

a)

Somnambulism

b)

REM sleep behavior disorder

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Sleep terrors

46.

Restless legs syndrome is mainly seen in which age group?

a)

Children

b)

Teenagers

c)

Middle-older adults

d)

Infants

47.

Which sleep disorder is treated with nonpharmacologic treatments and involves unpleasant sensations in the legs?

a)

Restless legs syndrome

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Insomnia

48.

Which of the following is a type of sleep screening tool?

a)

Sleep diary

b)

Blood pressure monitor

c)

Heart rate tracker

d)

Glucose meter

49.

Which scale is used to assess sleepiness?

a)

Epworth sleepiness scale

b)

Pittsburgh sleep quality index

c)

STOP-bang questionnaire

d)

Stanford sleepiness scale

50.

The Pittsburgh sleep quality index is a tool used to assess _______.

a)

sleep quality

b)

blood pressure

c)

lung capacity

d)

body temperature

51.

Which questionnaire is used to screen for sleep apnea risk?

a)

STOP-bang questionnaire

b)

Epworth sleepiness scale

c)

Sleep diary

d)

Stanford sleepiness scale

52.

Which of the following is NOT an assessment area for sleep problems?

a)

Energy level

b)

Facial/behavioral characteristics

c)

Blood sugar level

d)

Physical data suggestive of sleep problems

53.

Does the patient experience restlessness, brainfog, or dark undereye circles?

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of the following is a nursing intervention to promote sleep?

a)

Prepare a restful environment

b)

Increase caffeine intake

c)

Avoid bedtime rituals

d)

Ignore sleep patterns

55.

Offering appropriate bedtime _______ is a nursing intervention for sleep.

a)

snacks/beverages

b)

medications

c)

exercises

d)

lectures

56.

Which of the following is a nonmedication treatment for dyssomnias?

a)

Cognitive behavioral therapy

b)

Sedatives

c)

Hypnotics

d)

Antibiotics

57.

Which of the following is a progressive muscle relaxation measure used in nonmedication treatment for dyssomnias?

a)

Biofeedback

b)

Stimulus control

c)

Sleep restriction

d)

Progressive muscle relaxation measures

58.

What is pain?

a)

Whatever the patient says it is, whenever it is

b)

Only what the doctor observes

c)

Always caused by physical injury

d)

Not influenced by psychological factors

59.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the pain process?

a)

Transduction

b)

Transmission

c)

Perception

d)

Digestion

60.

The gate control theory of pain describes the transmission of painful stimuli and recognizes a relationship between pain and _________.

a)

emotions

b)

digestion

c)

respiration

d)

hearing

61.

Which type of pain is described as 'burning, shooting, tingling sensation' and is due to nerve damage?

a)

Nociceptive

b)

Neuropathic

c)

Nociplastic

d)

Phantom

62.

Which of the following is an example of nociplastic pain?

a)

Tissue damage

b)

Fibromyalgia

c)

Amputation

d)

Bone fracture

63.

Pain always serves an adaptive role and is only expressed verbally.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which response to pain involves how you act, such as restlessness or crying?

a)

Behavioral (voluntary)

b)

Physiologic (involuntary)

c)

Affective (psychological)

65.

Which of the following is a cultural/ethnicity variable that affects pain?

a)

Family, sex, age variables

b)

Environment and support people

c)

Anxiety/other stressors

d)

Past pain experience

66.

Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe the quality of pain?

a)

Sharp

b)

Dull

c)

Moderate

d)

Diffuse

67.

The severity of pain can be described as severe/excruciating, moderate, slight or _____

a)

mild

b)

sharp

c)

burning

d)

chronic

68.

Which pain assessment tool is used for adults and children above 9 years old who can use numbers to rate the intensity of their pain?

a)

FLACC behavioral scale

b)

0-10 numeric rating scale

c)

Faces pain scale

d)

Oucher pain scale

69.

Which pain assessment tool is specifically designed for adults who are sedated and nonresponsive?

a)

Adult nonverbal pain scale

b)

Iowa pain thermometer

c)

Comfort pain scale

d)

Wong-Baker FACES

70.

What does the 'F' in the FLACC behavioral scale stand for?

a)

Faces

b)

Feet

c)

Fingers

d)

Forehead

71.

The Wong-Baker FACES scale is used for pain assessment in children.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which pain assessment tool is used for older adults with cognitive impairment?

a)

Iowa pain thermometer

b)

FLACC behavioral scale

c)

Comfort pain scale

d)

Pain assessment in advanced dementia scale

73.

List two factors that affect pain according to the worksheet.

a)

Emotional state and previous experience

b)

Weather and color preference

c)

Height and eye color

d)

Favorite food and music taste

74.

Which of the following is NOT a nursing intervention for pain?

a)

Establishing good nurse-patient relationship

b)

Manipulating factors affecting pain experience

c)

Ignoring patient complaints

d)

Managing pharmacologic relief measures

75.

Acute pain related to a surgical incision is evidenced by guarding, complaints, and ____ on pain scale.

a)

8/10

b)

2/10

c)

0/10

d)

4/10

76.

Which method is NOT used for giving analgesics?

a)

PCA pump

b)

Epidural analgesia

c)

Peripheral nerve blocks

d)

Topical anesthesia

e)

Oral administration of meds if possible

77.

For pain management in cancer/chronic pain, adjust dose for maximum benefit with minimum _____

a)

side affects

b)

pain

c)

cost

d)

dosage

78.

Which population needs smaller doses due to immature pain pathways?

a)

Children

b)

Older adults

c)

Cancer patients

d)

Chronic pain patients

79.

Older adults may have communication difficulties, denial of pain, and altered physiologic response to analgesics.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Which of the following is NOT an alternative pain reduction technique?

a)

Distraction

b)

Humor

c)

Ignoring pain

d)

Music

81.

Patient education should include _____.

a)

family members or caregivers

b)

only the patient

c)

medical equipment suppliers

d)

insurance representatives

82.

What does BMR stand for and what does it measure?

a)

BMR stands for Basal Metabolic Rate and it measures the number of calories needed to fuel the involuntary actions of the body at rest after 12 hours, energy needed to sustain metabolic activities of cells and tissues.

b)

BMR stands for Body Mass Ratio and it measures the percentage of body fat compared to muscle mass.

c)

BMR stands for Basic Muscle Response and it measures the strength of muscle contractions during exercise.

d)

BMR stands for Blood Mineral Rate and it measures the concentration of minerals in the blood.

83.

Which of the following factors increases BMR?

a)

Aging

b)

Prolonged fasting

c)

Growth

d)

Sleep

84.

Males have higher BMR due to larger muscle mass.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

What does BMI provide an estimate of?

a)

BMI provides an estimate of body fat.

b)

BMI provides an estimate of blood pressure.

c)

BMI provides an estimate of muscle strength.

d)

BMI provides an estimate of bone density.

86.

Which of the following is a good indicator of body fat?

a)

Waist circumference

b)

Height

c)

Weight

d)

Age

87.

More than how many inches of waist circumference for men increases the risk of central abdominal obesity?

a)

More than 40 inches

b)

More than 30 inches

c)

More than 35 inches

d)

More than 25 inches

88.

Which of the following is NOT a function of nutrients?

a)

Supply energy

b)

Build tissue

c)

Regulate body processes

d)

Cause disease

89.

Carbohydrates provide how many calories per gram?

a)

4 calories per gram

b)

2 calories per gram

c)

7 calories per gram

d)

9 calories per gram

90.

Which of the following is the main function of carbohydrates?

a)

Build tissue

b)

Energy supply

c)

Regulate hormones

d)

Provide vitamins

91.

What percentage of carbohydrate intake is ingested?

a)

90%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

100%

92.

Which organ stores glucose and regulates its entry to blood?

a)

Liver

b)

Heart

c)

Kidney

d)

Lung

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