Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Disorders of the Genitourinary (GU) and Renal Systems

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a female-specific genitourinary disorder?

a)

Testicular cancer

b)

Ovarian cancer

c)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

d)

Prostate cancer

2.

Which diagnostic test is used to evaluate and monitor renal function?

a)

PSA

b)

BUN

c)

Creatinine clearance

d)

All of the above

3.

Fill in the blank: The kidneys have dozens of "______".

a)

jobs

b)

colors

c)

wings

d)

songs

4.

Which of the following is NOT a male-specific genitourinary problem?

a)

BPH

b)

Prostate cancer

c)

Menopause

d)

Testicular cancer

5.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom related to renal disorders?

a)

UTI

b)

Gonulonephritis

c)

Ovarian cancer

d)

PID

6.

Fill in the blank: Maintenance of balance / homeostasis of fluid & solute status of body is a function of the ______.

a)

kidneys

b)

lungs

c)

liver

d)

pancreas

7.

Which of the following is a urologic obstructive disorder?

a)

STIs

b)

PID

c)

UTI

d)

Urologic obstructions

8.

Which of the following is a basic treatment modality for genitourinary and renal pathologies?

a)

Diagnostic tests

b)

Clinical manifestations

c)

Treatment modalities

d)

Pathophysiology

9.

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a)

Malignant neoplastic condition of the prostate gland

b)

Enlargement of the prostate due to proliferation of glandular tissue

c)

Malignant neoplastic condition of the testicle

d)

Inflammation of the urethra

10.

At what age does the proliferation of prostate glandular tissue commonly begin, leading to BPH?

a)

20-30

b)

40-45

c)

55-60

d)

65-70

11.

Fill in the blank: By age 60, _____% of men have an enlarged prostate.

a)

60

b)

30

c)

80

d)

45

12.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of BPH?

a)

Urgency

b)

Delay in starting urine flow

c)

Decrease in urine flow

d)

Increased appetite

13.

An enlarged prostate can be felt on digital rectal exam and should be checked yearly beginning at age 50.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is the most common cancer in American males?

a)

Testicular cancer

b)

Prostate cancer

c)

Bladder cancer

d)

Kidney cancer

15.

Which of the following is a risk factor for prostate cancer?

a)

A) Age over 54

b)

B) Family history

c)

C) High fat diet

d)

D) All of the above

16.

Fill in the blank: Testicular cancer occurs most commonly in age range _____ and has a higher incidence in males with unresolved cryptorchidism.

a)

15-35

b)

35-55

c)

5-15

d)

55-75

17.

What is the usual presenting sign of testicular cancer?

a)

Painful testicular mass

b)

Painless testicular mass

c)

Testicular heaviness

d)

Lower abdominal pain

18.

Testicular self-exam has a cure rate of __% when caught early.

a)

95%

b)

60%

c)

80%

d)

40%

19.

Urethritis is inflammation, discomfort in penis, sometimes dysuria, occasionally a discharge.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Both prostatitis and urethritis are most often caused by sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as __ and __.

a)

Chlamydia & gonorrhea

b)

Syphilis & herpes

c)

HIV & HPV

d)

Trichomonas & hepatitis B

21.

Dysmenorrhea is a general term for menstruation that is more painful, and/or larger in bleeding volume than is normal.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Amenorrhea is the absence of menses due to variety of causes (ex: anorexia, over-exercising); in later life can mean onset of __.

a)

menopause

b)

puberty

c)

pregnancy

d)

osteoporosis

23.

Endometriosis affects __% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic bleeding.

a)

15%

b)

5%

c)

25%

d)

40%

24.

Classic symptom of ovarian cancer: "I feel bloated & my pants have gotten tight around the waist, despite diminished appetite and losing overall weight."

a)

True

b)

False

25.

A PAP smear is a test for __ cancer, NOT ovarian.

a)

cervical

b)

lung

c)

breast

d)

colon

26.

What does 'salpingo' refer to in medical terminology?

a)

Ovary-related

b)

Fallopian tube-related

c)

Uterus-related

d)

Inner lining-related

27.

Fill in the blank: 'Oopher' refers to ______-related in medical terminology.

a)

ovary

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

lung

28.

Fill in the blank: 'Hyster' refers to ______-related in medical terminology.

a)

uterus

b)

liver

c)

heart

d)

kidney

29.

Fill in the blank: 'Endometr' refers to ______ lining-related in medical terminology.

a)

inner

b)

outer

c)

muscle

d)

bone

30.

What is the most common organism causing urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

E. coli

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Gonorrhea

31.

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a)

Dysuria

b)

Pyuria

c)

Hematuria

d)

Jaundice

32.

Fill in the blank: The highest risk group for UTIs is ______, due to proximity of anus and vaginal opening to urethral meatus and much shorter urethra.

a)

women

b)

men

c)

children

d)

elderly

33.

Men very rarely get UTIs unless they have structural defect, chronic disease, or indwelling catheter.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Match the following terms to their definitions:

a)

Infection of fallopian tubes

1.

Infection of fallopian tubes

b)

Infection of ovaries

2.

Infection of ovaries

c)

Infection of fallopian tubes AND ovaries

3.

Infection of fallopian tubes AND ovaries

35.

Which of the following is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Syphilis

d)

Herpes

36.

Chlamydia is a bacterial infection caused by _________.

a)

Chlamydia trachomatis

b)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Escherichia coli

37.

Urethritis in men is a symptom of which STI?

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Syphilis

d)

Herpes

38.

Gonorrhea is caused by infection with _________?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhea

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Treponema pallidum

39.

Men with gonorrhea tend to have ________ discharge from the penis.

a)

purulent

b)

clear

c)

bloody

d)

watery

40.

Syphilis is caused by which organism?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhea

b)

Chlamydia trachomatis

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Herpes simplex virus

41.

The primary stage of syphilis is characterized by lesions called _________.

a)

chancres

b)

papules

c)

vesicles

d)

macules

42.

Genital herpes is caused by which virus?

a)

Human papillomavirus

b)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Chlamydia trachomatis

43.

HSV 2 is an STI that invades the genital area and can spread to the ________ and ________.

a)

perineum and anus

b)

lungs and heart

c)

ears and nose

d)

hands and feet

44.

What is hydronephrosis?

a)

Enlargement of & pressure in renal pelvis & calyces due to pathologic accumulation of fluid

b)

Scarring of ureter

c)

Tumor in bladder

d)

Loss of bladder tone

45.

Retrograde urinary flow is also known as "back-up" urinary flow that can't get past an obstruction in which of the following?

a)

Ureters

b)

Bladder

c)

Urethra

d)

All of the above

46.

Within a short time, accumulation of urine can lead to infection and eventual fibrosis (scarring & stiffening of tissue), within the kidney & significant decline in function of ________.

a)

nephrons

b)

alveoli

c)

hepatocytes

d)

neurons

47.

Which of the following is NOT a specific obstruction that can interfere with urine flow?

a)

Tumors

b)

Adhesions

c)

Pelvic organ prolapse

d)

Diabetes

48.

A prolapse is a "falling-down" or intrusion of an organ due to deterioration of muscle tone holding it in place or other factors.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The best example of uterine prolapse is when the uterus drops from its normal mooring and puts pressure on bladder, urethra, or other structures—acts as obstruction to urine.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

In males, BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia) causes urine to not get through a urethra narrowed by a large ________.

a)

prostate

b)

bladder

c)

kidney

d)

ureter

51.

Neurogenic problems such as paraplegia and quadriplegia can cause neurogenic bladder dysfunction, where the bladder loses tone and acts as obstruction to urine flowing forward.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following is NOT a term for kidney stone?

a)

Renal calculi

b)

Ureteral calculus

c)

Urethral calculus

d)

Renal cyst

53.

Kidney stones are a fairly common acute obstructive problem.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of the following increases the risk of getting a kidney stone?

a)

Male gender

b)

Having gout

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

55.

What is 'colic' or colicky pain? Fill in the blank: 'Colic is pain that comes and goes, a spasmodic type of pain; it is typical of a situation in which there is spasm of a ______ or other container in the body.'

a)

tube

b)

bone

c)

muscle

d)

nerve

56.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of kidney stones?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Various dietary factors

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

Excessive exercise

57.

Fill in the blank: As urine is formed in the renal tubules, it becomes supersaturated with ______, uric acid, or other ions which eventually bond together and form stones in the kidney pelvis.

a)

calcium

b)

glucose

c)

potassium

d)

ammonia

58.

Stones greater than 2mm in the kidney can get stuck in the ureter and cause obstruction, retrograde urine flow, and possible renal failure.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which symptom is associated with kidney stones?

a)

Excruciating flank and/or groin pain that comes and goes in spasms

b)

Persistent cough

c)

Skin rash

d)

Blurred vision

60.

Fill in the blank: The kidneys have dozens of jobs, which can be divided into two categories: maintenance of fluid & solute balance and maintenance of certain ______ functions.

a)

metabolic

b)

respiratory

c)

digestive

d)

skeletal

61.

What percentage of urine is water?

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

95%

d)

100%

62.

Fill in the blank: The other 5% of urine contains ___ and other solutes.

a)

urea, creatinine, Na, K, PO4

b)

glucose, insulin, DNA, RNA, ATP

c)

hemoglobin, myoglobin, collagen, elastin, keratin

d)

amylase, lipase, pepsin, trypsin, maltase

63.

Which two structures in the nephron are responsible for concentration decisions?

a)

glomerulus and tubule

b)

Bowman's capsule and collecting duct

c)

proximal tubule and distal tubule

d)

loop of Henle and renal artery

64.

What is the function of the glomerular membrane in the kidney?

a)

Reabsorption

b)

Filtration

c)

Secretion

d)

Excretion

65.

The glomerulus is the first 'decision' point of the kidneys. What does it decide?

a)

What and how much to include as the beginning of urine

b)

How much blood to circulate

c)

How much water to reabsorb

d)

How much creatinine to secrete

66.

Fill in the blank: The volume of plasma filtered by all the functioning nephrons is called the ________ filtration rate (GFR).

a)

glomerular

b)

tubular

c)

renal

d)

hepatic

67.

A decrease in GFR can be seen as decreased urine output clinically.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

If kidneys aren’t working properly, a person would have ______ serum creatinine & urea nitrogen and ______ urine creatinine & urea nitrogen.

a)

HIGH serum creatinine & urea nitrogen and LOW urine creatinine & urea nitrogen

b)

LOW serum creatinine & urea nitrogen and HIGH urine creatinine & urea nitrogen

c)

LOW serum creatinine & urea nitrogen and LOW urine creatinine & urea nitrogen

d)

HIGH serum creatinine & urea nitrogen and HIGH urine creatinine & urea nitrogen

69.

What is the minimum normal urine output that some kidney specialists consider should be present?

a)

0.2 ml/kg/hr

b)

0.5 ml/kg/hr

c)

1.0 ml/kg/hr

d)

2.0 ml/kg/hr

70.

Tubular reabsorption refers to the movement of fluids and solutes from the tubular lumen into the ______ to join the vascular circulation.

a)

peritubular capillaries

b)

glomerulus

c)

Bowman's capsule

d)

collecting duct

71.

Which of the following is an example of a waste that should be secreted appropriately into the urine?

a)

Glucose

b)

Creatinine

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

72.

The decisions made by the glomeruli and tubules are assisted by substances created elsewhere in the body, such as ______, aldosterone, ADH, and natriuretic peptides.

a)

angiotensin II

b)

insulin

c)

cortisol

d)

thyroxine

73.

What hormone is secreted by the kidneys in response to fluid deficit, and what does it ultimately stimulate?

a)

Renin is secreted by the kidneys in response to fluid deficit, and it ultimately stimulates the creation of angiotensin II.

b)

Aldosterone is secreted by the kidneys in response to fluid deficit, and it ultimately stimulates the breakdown of glucose.

c)

Insulin is secreted by the kidneys in response to fluid deficit, and it ultimately stimulates the uptake of potassium.

d)

Cortisol is secreted by the kidneys in response to fluid deficit, and it ultimately stimulates the release of calcium.

74.

What is the effect of aldosterone secretion on sodium and potassium in the kidney tubules?

a)

Aldosterone causes retention of Na+ into the blood and the kidney tubules excrete K+.

b)

Aldosterone causes excretion of Na+ and retention of K+ in the blood.

c)

Aldosterone causes both Na+ and K+ to be retained in the blood.

d)

Aldosterone causes both Na+ and K+ to be excreted by the kidney tubules.

75.

Which hormones are secreted by the heart in response to fluid overload, and what is their effect on the kidneys?

a)

BNP and ANP are secreted by the heart in response to fluid overload, and they stimulate the kidneys to excrete more water into the urine.

b)

Aldosterone and cortisol are secreted by the heart in response to fluid overload, and they stimulate the kidneys to retain more sodium.

c)

Insulin and glucagon are secreted by the heart in response to fluid overload, and they stimulate the kidneys to reabsorb more glucose.

d)

ADH and oxytocin are secreted by the heart in response to fluid overload, and they stimulate the kidneys to concentrate the urine.

76.

Which of the following is NOT a metabolic function of the kidneys?

a)

Making and regulating HCO3

b)

Deciding how much H+ to excrete

c)

Regulating calcium absorption

d)

Producing insulin

77.

The kidneys help to promote stable nutrition by minimizing non-appropriate substances such as proteins from entering urine.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

How do the kidneys help regulate blood pressure?

a)

The kidneys regulate blood pressure by increasing or decreasing renin secretion as needed, which regulates fluid volume and arterial pressure.

b)

The kidneys regulate blood pressure by producing insulin to lower blood sugar levels.

c)

The kidneys regulate blood pressure by directly pumping blood throughout the body.

d)

The kidneys regulate blood pressure by absorbing excess oxygen from the bloodstream.

79.

What hormone made by the kidneys helps with RBC birth and growth?

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Thyroxine

80.

What does the term 'compromise' mean in the medical world, according to the worksheet?

a)

In the medical world, 'compromise' means things are not as they should be, and it can describe acute or chronic situations.

b)

It means a patient is always in perfect health.

c)

It refers to a successful surgery outcome.

d)

It means the patient has no symptoms at all.

81.

The spectrum of renal compromise ranges from acute kidney injury (AKI) to chronic kidney disease (CKD).

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What is the definition of acute kidney injury (AKI)? Fill in the blank: AKI is defined as an abrupt (occurs over <48 hrs) decrease in urine output (ie, GFR) and/or increase in serum creatinine, so typical patient has acute oliguria and/or _________?

a)

acute jump in serum creatinine

b)

acute drop in blood pressure

c)

acute increase in urine pH

d)

acute decrease in potassium levels

83.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of kidney disease?

a)

Stage 6: complete recovery

b)

Stage 1: kidney damage with normal or increased GFR

c)

Stage 2: mild reduction in GFR

d)

Stage 4: severe reduction in GFR

e)

Stage 3: moderate reduction in GFR

84.
Question Image

Match the following types of AKI with their main features:

a)

Prerenal AKI

1.

Something goes wrong with arterial flow BEFORE the kidneys

b)

Intrarenal AKI

2.

Something goes wrong IN any part of the kidney tissue (glomerulus or tubule)

c)

Postrenal AKI

3.

Something goes wrong with urine flow AFTER the kidneys

85.

Acute kidney injury (AKI) can be completely resolved with normal renal function restored.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Fill in the blank: Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is also called ________ or CRF—chronic renal failure.

a)

chronic renal insufficiency

b)

chronic hepatic insufficiency

c)

chronic pulmonary insufficiency

d)

chronic cardiac insufficiency

87.

Which stage of kidney disease is described as 'minimal or no GFR—sometimes called end-stage renal disease (ESRD)'?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

e)

Stage 5

88.

What is the most common subtype of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?

a)

Prerenal

b)

Postrenal

c)

Intrarenal

d)

Chronic

89.

Prerenal AKI is caused by acutely decreased arterial flow to the kidneys due to ________ or trauma to aorta and/or renal arteries.

a)

acute vasoconstriction

b)

chronic infection

c)

renal calculi

d)

autoimmune response

90.

Prerenal AKI can be caused by hypotension or hypovolemia because of hemorrhage, dehydration, heart failure (HF), or hypotension from infection (sepsis).

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Signs and symptoms (S&S) of prerenal AKI include:

a)

Oliguria and increased serum creatinine (sCr.)

b)

Polyuria and decreased serum creatinine

c)

Hematuria and proteinuria

d)

No symptoms

92.

Treatment for prerenal AKI includes giving IV fluids/blood and/or fixing the basic problem (heart problem, infection, etc.).

a)

True

b)

False

93.

If blood flow to the kidney is not quickly restored in prerenal AKI, the patient can go into ________ AKI from acute tubular necrosis (ATN), and then possibly CKD.

a)

intrarenal

b)

postrenal

c)

extrarental

d)

subrenal

94.

Postrenal AKI occurs when there is an acute obstruction that occurs somewhere between kidneys & urethral meatus.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Which of the following is an example of a causative factor for postrenal AKI?

a)

Urethral obstruction such as BPH in a man

b)

Ureteral obstruction such as calculi

c)

Uterine prolapse in a woman

d)

All of the above

96.

Prognosis for return to normal renal function in postrenal AKI is good if the obstruction is 'fixed' fairly quickly.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Intrarenal AKI happens when the kidneys have acutely diminished function from ________ tissue injury.

a)

direct

b)

chronic

c)

systemic

d)

external

98.

Which of the following is a sign of glomerular damage?

a)

Proteinuria

b)

Hematuria

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

99.

Fill in the blank: Damage to either the kidney glomerulus or the kidney tubule will result in a ______ ability of the nephron to filter waste and water, reducing the GFR and causing the S&S of intrarenal AKI.

a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

unchanged

d)

enhanced

100.

Which of the following is NOT a result of tubular cell injury/death in acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

a)

Cast formation

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Tubular blockage

d)

Decreased ability to excrete creatinine

101.

Antidiuretic

a)

pertaining to against urination

b)

tumor of the kidney

c)

non feeling

d)

study of bladder

102.
______ collects and stores urine.
a)
Kidney
b)
Stomach
c)
Urinary Bladder
d)
Liver
103.

anuria

a)

Absence of urine production, no urine

b)
Excessive urine production
c)

Little urine output

d)
Partial urine production
104.

Evaluate the potential impact of chronic dehydration on kidney stones formation.

a)

Chronic dehydration has no impact on kidney stone formation.

b)

Chronic dehydration increases the risk of kidney stones by concentrating solutes in urine.

c)

Chronic dehydration decreases the risk of kidney stones by reducing urine output.

d)

Chronic dehydration increases urine pH, reducing stone formation.

105.

The presence of pus in urine can be caused by

a)

liver disease

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

a urinary tract infection

d)

all of the above

106.

An indication that your body is in starvation mode is the presence of ___________________ in your urine

a)

ketones

b)

pus

c)

red blood cells

d)

bile

107.

Renin is released from the ___ whereas angiotensinogen is released from the ___.

a)
kidneys, liver
b)
heart, lungs
c)
stomach, pancreas
d)
brain, spleen
108.

What is hydronephrosis?

a)
Hydronephrosis is the swelling of a kidney caused by a build-up of urine.
b)
A condition where the kidney is inflamed due to infection.
c)
A genetic disorder affecting kidney function.
d)
A type of kidney stone that causes pain.
109.

Oliguria and fluid volume overload

Categorize the following

GFR decreased

overactivation of RAAS/ no good response to it

kdney unable to remove water

volume overload

hypoosmolar state leads to movement of fluid/water from Bto T

edema

diuretics

encourages kidney to remove water

patho w/ related S&S
treatment
110.

azotemia and uremia

Categorize the following

kidney unable to remove waste in urine

leads to accumuation of waste(BUN and SCr) in blood (azotemia)

patient presents with N,V, puritis, and confusion (encephalopathy) known as uremia

leads to BUN formed from protein breakdown

low protein diet

dialysis if too dangerou

patho w/ related S&S
treatment
111.

hyperkalemia

Categorize the following

potassium, not able to be removed and increases in the blood

leads to hyperkalemia and hypopolarization

faster HR

diuretics to remove potassium

dialysis initiated if too dangerous

patho w/ related S&S
treatment
112.

hyperphosphatemia

Categorize the following

unable to remove phosphate and increases in the blood and can lead to problems

oral antacids will bind to phosphate in food nd prevent absorption

patho w/ related S&S
treatment
113.

hypertension

Categorize the following

over activation of RAAS leads to over production of renin to angiotensin II causes vasoconstrict

kidney unable to remove water

volume overload and over production of renin/angiotensin II

diuretics

anti-hypertensive meds

patho w/ related S&S
treatment
114.

anemia

Categorize the following

kidney not performing a metabolic function

no production of erythropoietin

less production of RBCs lead to anemia

administer erythropoietin hormone by injection

patho w/ S&S
treatment
115.

hypocalcemia and osteoporosis

Categorize the following

no production of the substance that activates vitamin D

inability to absorb calcium from the foods causes hypocalcemia

hypocalcemia causes hypopolarization and osteoporosis

vitamin D+ calcium supplements

patho w/ S&S
treatment
116.

metabolic acidosis

Categorize the following

kidney not producing HCO3

less HCO3 sends patient into a state of metabolic acidosis

admin HCO3 and antacids

patho w/ S&S
TREATMENT
117.

Acute Kidney Injury

Categorize the following

diminished arterial blood flow to kidney-from acute vasoconstriction/trauma to aorta

-or renal artery from low cardiac output/hypotension

dehydration, blood loss, heart failure, sepsis

S&S oliguria <30 cc/hr and high serum creatinine

kideny tissue injury to any part of nephron- glomerulus

S&S or glomerular injury- oliguria and high serum creatinine, proteinuria and hematuria

injury to nephron -tubule- direct injury from toxic substances leads to ATN

S&S of tubular injury ATN: oliguira casts in urine

urine flow obstruction from BPH, kidney stones, uterine prolapse

S&S oliguria, high serum creatinie, changes in uine flow

if the prerenal or postrenal damage occus and is not fixed it can lead to AKI from ATN

prerenal
intrarenal
postrenal
CKD