wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

SIADH and DI Worksheet

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which laboratory pattern is most consistent with SIADH?

a)

Hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, high urine specific gravity

b)

Hyponatremia, high serum osmolality, low urine specific gravity

c)

Hypernatremia, low serum osmolality, low urine specific gravity

d)

Hypernatremia, high serum osmolality, high urine specific gravity

2.

Priority initial management for symptomatic SIADH with severe hyponatremia includes:

a)

Rapid 3% saline bolus to normalize sodium immediately

b)

Slow hypertonic IV fluids with careful monitoring

c)

Increase free water intake to flush solute

d)

Discontinue all diuretics and give isotonic saline freely

3.

Which clinical pattern best describes Diabetes Insipidus (DI)?

a)

Low urine output, weight gain, seizures

b)

Polyuria, polydipsia, hypotension, tachycardia

c)

Edema, hyponatremia, concentrated urine

d)

Bradycardia, hypertension, oliguria

4.

A patient with DI most likely has which set of labs?

a)

Low sodium, low serum osmolality, high urine specific gravity

b)

High sodium, high serum osmolality, low urine specific gravity

c)

Normal sodium, high serum osmolality, high urine specific gravity

d)

High sodium, low serum osmolality, high urine specific gravity

5.

First-line pharmacologic therapy for central DI is:

a)

Desmopressin

b)

Levothyroxine

c)

Propranolol

d)

Methimazole

6.

Appropriate diet advice for DI emphasized on the slides:

a)

Low sodium diet (<3 g/day)

b)

High protein diet

c)

No carb diet

d)

High potassium diet

7.

Which patient is at highest risk for SIADH?

a)

Patient with COPD on certain meds and head trauma history

b)

Healthy adolescent athlete

c)

Patient with dehydration from heat exposure

d)

Post-thyroidectomy patient day 1

8.

SIADH and DI precautions include:

a)

SIADH—airway; DI—bleeding

b)

SIADH—seizure precautions; DI—fluid replacement

c)

SIADH—neutropenic precautions; DI—reverse isolation

d)

SIADH—NPO; DI—NPO

9.

Classic hyperthyroidism manifestations emphasized include:

a)

Weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance

b)

Weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance, tremor

c)

Bradycardia, depression, dry skin

d)

Hypotension, hypothermia, coma

10.

Which test helps differentiate causes of hyperthyroidism per slides?

a)

Serum cortisol

b)

Radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU)

c)

HbA1c

d)

AST/ALT

11.

Antithyroid drugs that inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis include:

a)

Propranolol and methimazole

b)

Levothyroxine and PTU

c)

PTU and methimazole

d)

Iodine and levothyroxine

12.

Key teaching for iodine solutions (SSKI/Lugol) includes:

a)

Take on an empty stomach before bed

b)

Mix with water or juice, take after meals, sip through a straw

c)

Avoid all fluids for 2 hours after dosing

d)

Crush tablets and sprinkle on food

13.

Which beta-blocker is listed for symptomatic hyperthyroidism?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Atenolol

d)

Carvedilol

14.

Radioactive iodine therapy (RAI) counseling includes:

a)

Immediate full effect within 24 hours

b)

Avoid pregnant women/children for about 7 days and use separate linens

c)

No need for any radiation precautions at home

d)

Stop all antithyroid meds permanently before dose

15.

Severe thyrotoxicosis (thyroid storm) findings include:

a)

Hypothermia and bradycardia

b)

Seizures, very high temp, heart failure, shock

16.

Typical hypothyroid 'slowing down' symptoms include:

a)

Heat intolerance and diarrhea

b)

Weight loss and insomnia

c)

Dry skin, fatigue, constipation, cold intolerance

d)

Exophthalmos and tremor

17.

Initial levothyroxine teaching includes:

a)

Take with food to avoid GI upset

b)

Start high dose immediately to reverse symptoms

c)

Take 30–60 minutes before breakfast on an empty stomach

d)

Alternate with liothyronine every other day

18.

A life-threatening complication of hypothyroidism stressed on slides is:

a)

Myxedema coma with low temp, low BP, low respirations

b)

Addisonian crisis with hyperkalemia

c)

DKA with Kussmaul respirations

d)

Thyroid storm

19.

Hashimoto thyroiditis expected labs are:

a)

High T3/T4 and low TSH

b)

Low T3/T4, high TSH, positive antithyroid antibodies

c)

High cortisol and low ACTH

d)

High PTH and high phosphate

20.

Acute infectious thyroiditis management may include:

a)

Antibiotics and anti-inflammatory therapy

b)

RAI dose immediately

c)

High-dose levothyroxine

d)

Emergent thyroidectomy for all cases

21.

Primary effect of increased PTH on labs per slides:

a)

↓ Calcium, ↑ Phosphate

b)

↑ Calcium, ↓ Phosphate

c)

↑ Calcium, ↑ Phosphate

d)

No change in either

22.

A listed cause of hyperparathyroidism was:

a)

Parathyroid tumor

b)

Pituitary adenoma secreting TSH

c)

Long-term iodine therapy

d)

Hepatitis C infection

23.

In CKD, secondary hyperparathyroidism is often related to:

a)

Hypophosphatemia

b)

Hyperphosphatemia and vitamin D deficiency

c)

High calcium intake

d)

Excess aldosterone

24.

A musculoskeletal consequence associated with parathyroid disorders includes:

a)

Osteoarthritis exacerbation

b)

Tremor

c)

Synovitis

d)

Muscle hypertrophy

25.

Core definition of diabetes on slides:

a)

Hypoglycemia due to low insulin

b)

Hyperglycemia from abnormal insulin production, impaired use, or both

c)

Autoimmune attack on adrenal cortex

d)

Insulinoma with excess insulin

26.

Normal insulin actions include:

a)

Increase hepatic gluconeogenesis and lipolysis

b)

Allow cellular glucose entry and promote fat storage

c)

Block cellular glucose entry and increase protein breakdown

d)

Stimulate ketone production in liver

27.

Low insulin state promotes:

a)

Hepatic glucose release, fat release from adipose, and protein catabolism

b)

Glycogen synthesis and lipogenesis

c)

Beta-cell proliferation

d)

Gluconeogenesis inhibition

28.

Which is TRUE per slides:

a)

Type 2 accounts for 5–10% of cases

b)

Type 1 onset is typically gradual over years

c)

Type 1 usually requires lifelong exogenous insulin

d)

Type 2 never produces insulin

29.

Classic new-onset Type 1 triad is:

a)

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

b)

Weight gain, fatigue, constipation

c)

Night sweats, tremor, diarrhea

d)

Cold intolerance, bradycardia, edema

30.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

A) Absolute insulin deficiency only

b)

B) Insulin resistance with inadequate secretion

c)

C) Autoimmune islet cell destruction always

d)

D) No relation to family history

31.

Prediabetes is characterized by:

a)

Impaired fasting glucose and/or impaired glucose tolerance

b)

Persistent fasting glucose <70 mg/dL

c)

Ketosis at diagnosis

d)

Always symptomatic

32.

A major non-modifiable risk factor emphasized for Type 2 DM:

a)

Race/ethnicity and family history

b)

Daily soda intake

c)

Sedentary job last month

d)

Eating after 8 PM

33.

An interprofessional priority across visits for DM complications includes:

a)

Annual foot exam by HCP and daily self foot checks

b)

Avoid all vaccines

c)

Monthly colonoscopies

d)

No lipid testing needed

34.

For retinopathy prevention/monitoring, the slide recommends:

a)

Eye exam every 5 years

b)

Annual dilated eye exam

c)

Only check if symptomatic

d)

Home Snellen chart only

35.

Nephropathy surveillance includes:

a)

Daily BMP

b)

Annual urine/kidney testing

c)

Only renal ultrasound

d)

MRI every 2 years

36.

Cardiovascular risk in DM care includes:

a)

Check BP and lipids at every visit; consider further testing as needed

b)

Only check BP annually

c)

Lipids only if chest pain present

d)

No urine testing ever

37.

Hypoglycemia hallmark threshold noted:

a)

BG < 90 mg/dL

b)

BG < 80 mg/dL

38.

BG cut-off for hypoglycemia is:

a)

BG < 80 mg/dL

b)

BG < 90 mg/dL

c)

BG < 70 mg/dL

d)

BG < 60 mg/dL

39.

Early symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

a)

Palpitations, diaphoresis, shakiness

b)

Bradycardia, constipation

c)

Hyperthermia, flushing

d)

Abdominal distention only

40.

If BG remains <70 after 15 minutes following 15–20 g fast carbs, next step is:

a)

Repeat the 15 g fast-acting carbs and recheck in 15 min

b)

Give IV insulin

c)

Administer furosemide

d)

Start beta-blocker

41.

In hospital for severe hypoglycemia, you may give:

a)

50% dextrose IV or glucagon IM

b)

Normal saline only

c)

Levothyroxine IV

d)

Iodine solution

42.

CDC BMI cut-off for obesity on slides is:

a)

≥25

b)

≥27

c)

≥30

d)

≥35

43.

Obesity pathophysiology includes:

a)

Energy deficit and reduced adipocytes

b)

Energy surplus with increased adipocyte number and size

c)

Ketone overproduction with weight loss

d)

Autoimmune adipocyte lysis

44.

A listed obesity health risk is:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Tetanus

d)

Hyperthyroidism

45.

Recommended approach to weight history per slides:

a)

Judgmental interviewing to motivate change

b)

Sensitive, non-judgmental history with leading questions like ‘can you tell me more?’

c)

Avoid discussing diet

d)

Focus only on BMI number

46.

Besides BMI, other measures include:

a)

Waist circumference and hip-to-waist ratio

b)

Head circumference

c)

Tibia length

d)

Chest expansion

47.

Nutrition/exercise for obesity primarily addresses:

a)

Energy imbalance

b)

Iodine deficiency

c)

Sodium restriction exclusively

d)

High-calorie supplementation

48.

Metabolic syndrome is listed under obesity as a:

a)

Cancer therapy

b)

Health risk cluster

c)

Lab artifact

d)

Surgical technique

49.

Which respiratory issue is associated with obesity on slides?

a)

Hyperventilation only

b)

Sleep apnea and hypoventilation

c)

Asthma only

d)

COPD only

50.

Cirrhosis pathophysiology includes:

a)

Acute reversible fatty change

b)

Extensive hepatocyte degeneration with fibrosis over decades

c)

Portal vein agenesis from birth

d)

Purely autoimmune cholangitis

51.

Common early presentation of cirrhosis may be:

a)

Asymptomatic

b)

Seizures

c)

Hypoglycemia only

d)

Acute renal colic

52.

A bold slide warning for liver patients states:

a)

'LIVER PATIENTS BLEED' due to hematologic problems

b)

'LIVER PATIENTS BRADYCARDIC'

c)

'LIVER PATIENTS ARE IMMUNE'

d)

'LIVER PATIENTS HYPERKALEMIC'

53.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of cirrhosis?

a)

Portal hypertension and varices

b)

Ascites

c)

Hepatic encephalopathy

d)

Pheochromocytoma

54.

Which diagnostic is the gold standard for confirming cirrhosis per slides?

a)

Liver ultrasound

b)

CT scan

c)

Liver biopsy

d)

Fibroscan

55.

How do AST/ALT typically trend in very late cirrhosis?

a)

Remain markedly elevated

b)

Normalize in very late disease

c)

Always low

d)

Undetectable from onset

56.

Typical lab pattern in advanced cirrhosis includes:

a)

High albumin, low bilirubin

b)

Low albumin, high bilirubin, prolonged clotting time

c)

High albumin, normal INR

d)

Normal albumin, low bilirubin

57.

Ascites first-line noninvasive management includes:

a)

Sodium restriction ~2 g/day and diuretics (spironolactone ± furosemide)

b)

High-sodium diet

c)

Daily NSAIDs

d)

No fluid removal

58.

For tense ascites, a listed procedure is:

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Paracentesis

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

ERCP

59.

Variceal bleeding prevention advice includes:

a)

Avoid NSAIDs and alcohol; consider nonselective beta-blockers

b)

Start aspirin daily

c)

Increase heavy lifting

d)

High-protein supplements only

60.

Acute varice management options on slides include:

a)

Banding or sclerotherapy; shunt procedures in select cases

b)

RAI therapy

61.

Portal hypertension pharmacologic option listed:

a)

Vasopressin

b)

Levothyroxine

c)

PTU

d)

Desmopressin

62.

Hepatic encephalopathy prevention/treatment includes:

a)

Lactulose to decrease ammonia and promote bowel movements

b)

High-protein diet without restriction

c)

Morphine for confusion

d)

NSAIDs for sedation

63.

A key nursing monitoring item with lactulose therapy:

a)

Monitor for adequate bowel movements and mental status improvement

b)

Check TSH daily

c)

Encourage fluid restriction to zero

d)

Stop if diarrhea occurs once

64.

Which statement about LFTs is TRUE per slides?

a)

AST/ALT are always high in late disease

b)

AST/ALT may be high early but can be normal in very late disease

c)

Albumin always rises with cirrhosis

d)

Bilirubin always stays low

65.

Liver cirrhosis patients often develop which skin finding?

a)

Spider angiomas

b)

Malar rash

c)

Café-au-lait spots

d)

Hirsutism

66.

Peripheral neuropathy is listed under cirrhosis:

a)

Clinical manifestation

b)

Diagnostic test

c)

Surgical cure

d)

None of the above

67.

A variceal patient education point:

a)

Avoid high-risk bleeding procedures when possible

b)

Start NSAIDs for pain control

c)

All alcohol in moderation is safe

d)

No need for follow-up endoscopy

68.

Hormonal regulation concept refers to:

a)

Renal autoregulation only

b)

Physiologic mechanisms that control secretion and action of hormones

c)

Neural synapse transmission exclusively

d)

GI motility reflexes

69.

An endocrine gland is best defined as:

a)

A ducted gland that secretes enzymes

b)

A specialized tissue/organ that makes and secretes hormone into blood

c)

Any organ with exocrine function

d)

A synovial tissue

70.

Negative feedback in endocrine control means:

a)

A) A rise in hormone causes more release of the same hormone

b)

B) Blood levels determine increased or decreased secretion to maintain balance

c)

C) CNS always inhibits hormones

d)

D) Biologic rhythms never affect secretion

71.

A positive feedback example is:

a)

Increasing hormone A triggers more hormone B, which increases A further

b)

Rising glucose suppresses insulin release

c)

Thyroid suppression with iodine

d)

RAAS activation lowering aldosterone

72.

With aging, a common change listed is:

a)

Increased ADH causing water retention

b)

Reduced hormone production such as ADH; reproductive hormones rise in adolescence only

c)

No change in hormone secretion

d)

Improved receptor sensitivity universally

73.

Primary prevention strategies emphasized include:

a)

Education, diet, exercise, weight control, stress management, sleep, injury avoidance

b)

Annual surgery

c)

Radiation for all

d)

No lifestyle focus

74.

Secondary prevention examples include:

a)

A) Newborn congenital screening and adult thyroid or DM screening

b)

B) Only imaging studies

c)

C) Routine biopsies for all

d)

D) No lab tests

75.

A general risk factor for endocrine problems listed:

a)

Young age alone

b)

Obesity, genetics/family history, autoimmune disease, chronic conditions, cancer treatment, stress/trauma

c)

Daily exercise

d)

Meditation

76.

Key components of assessment for endocrine issues include:

a)

Vitals, H/W, skin/hair/nails, body composition, genitalia/thyroid exam, and diagnostic tests

b)

Vitals only

c)

Symptoms only

d)

Imaging only

77.

Glucose regulation definition on slides is:

a)

Balance of nutrient intake, hormonal signaling, and cellular uptake to maintain euglycemia

b)

Balance of dietary fat only

c)

Insulin independence

d)

Ketone production control only

78.

Management of endocrine disorders may include all EXCEPT:

a)

Pharmacotherapy

b)

Radiation and surgery

c)

Psychosocial support and patient education

d)

Universal high-calorie diet

79.

Which adult screening is included under endocrine secondary prevention?

a)

Thyroid and diabetes screening

b)

Universal RAI uptake test

c)

Annual pituitary MRI

d)

Routine adrenal biopsy