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General Pharmacology: Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Greek word "Pharmacon" refers to:

a)

Learning

b)

Drug

c)

Organism

d)

Treatment

2.

Pharmacology is defined as the science that studies the interaction of chemical substances with:

a)

Non-living matter

b)

Live organisms

c)

Only human diseases

d)

Diagnostic processes

3.

Which of the following is NOT a purpose for which substances (drugs) are used in Medical pharmacology?

a)

Treatment

b)

Prevention

c)

Diagnostic purposes

d)

Creating a new function in a tissue or organ

4.

A chemical preparation that usually, but not necessarily, contains one or more drugs administered with the intention of therapy is called a:

a)

Drug

b)

Poison

c)

Medicine

5.

The full chemical name of a drug is primarily intended for:

a)

Prescription

b)

The general public

c)

Chemists

d)

Trade marketing

6.

The non-proprietary name of a drug is also known as the:

a)

Chemical Name

b)

Trade Name

c)

Generic Name

d)

Brand Name

7.

The proprietary name of a drug is a trademark applied by a particular:

a)

Pharmacopoeia

b)

WHO committee

c)

Manufacturer

d)

Government agency

8.

A drug classification based on the disease state they are used to treat (e.g., Anti-hypertensives) is known as:

a)

Pharmacologic classification

b)

Therapeutic classification

c)

Chemical classification

d)

Molecular classification

9.

A drug classification based on their mechanism of action (e.g., Beta-blockers) is known as:

a)

Pharmacologic classification

b)

Therapeutic classification

c)

Chemical classification

d)

Molecular classification

10.

The source of the drug penicillin is:

a)

Animal sources

b)

Plant sources

c)

Microorganisms

d)

Synthetic drugs

11.

The source of the drug heparin is:

a)

Animal sources

b)

Plant sources

c)

Mineral sources

d)

Biotechnology

12.

Human insulin is an example of a drug obtained through:

a)

Mineral sources

b)

Plant sources

c)

Biotechnology

d)

Synthetic drugs

13.

Which discipline links pharmacology to HEALTH ECONOMICS?

a)

Pharmacogenetics

b)

Pharmacogenomics

c)

Pharmacoepidemiology

d)

Pharmacoeconomics

14.

Which discipline links pharmacology to GENOMICS?

a)

Pharmacogenetics

b)

Pharmacogenomics

c)

Psycho-pharmacology

d)

Toxicology

15.

The study of drug action on living tissue at the cellular level is called:

a)

Pharmacokinetics

b)

Pharmacodynamics

c)

Pharmacotherapeutics

d)

Chemotherapy

16.

Which of the following is classified as a Semi-Solid dosage form?

a)

Tablet

b)

Syrup

c)

Suppository

d)

Aerosol

17.

An Ampule is classified as which type of dosage form?

a)

Solid form

b)

Semi-Solid form

c)

Liquid Form

d)

Gaseous Form

18.

Which route of administration is primarily used for a systemic (non-local) effect where the substance is given via the digestive tract?

a)

Parenteral

b)

Topical

c)

Rectal

d)

Oral

19.

A drug administered by injection via a hollow needle into the body is classified as a/an:

a)

Oral route

b)

Parenteral route

20.

A key disadvantage of the oral route of administration is:

a)

It is convenient

b)

It requires sterilization

c)

The first-pass effect

d)

The onset of action is too rapid

21.

The hepatic metabolism of a pharmacological agent when it is absorbed from the gut and delivered to the liver via the portal circulation is known as:

a)

Bioavailability

b)

Biotransformation

c)

First pass effect

d)

Glomerular filtration

22.

Which drug's bioavailability is mentioned to be higher after food intake?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Penicillin

c)

Griseofulvin

d)

Propranolol

23.

An advantage of the Buccal/Sublingual route of administration is that it avoids:

a)

Rapid absorption

b)

Hepatic first pass

c)

Low drug stability

d)

Inconvenience of holding the dose

24.

An advantage of Intravascular (IV) administration is:

a)

Lower risk of embolism

b)

Lower risk of adverse effects

25.

The route of administration that involves injection into the skin itself, typically used for skin testing, is:

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intrathecal

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Intradermal

26.

Injection into the spinal canal, most commonly used for spinal anesthesia, is called the:

a)

Intraperitoneal route

b)

Intramuscular route

c)

Intrathecal route

d)

Intraarterial route

27.

The application of a drug to the skin for systemic action (stable blood levels, no first pass metabolism) is known as:

a)

Dermal route

b)

Transdermal route

c)

Topical route for local action

d)

Inhalation route

28.

A key advantage of the Rectal route of administration is its usefulness for:

a)

Patients who can take drugs orally

b)

Complete and non-erratic absorption

c)

Patients unable to take drugs orally (e.g., unconscious patients)

d)

Drugs requiring 100% first-pass effect

29.

For inhalation as a route of administration, solids and liquids larger than what particle size are typically excluded because they impact in the mouth and throat?

a)

0.5 micron

b)

5 micron

c)

20 micron

d)

50 micron

30.

Why is the inhalation route considered the most addictive route of administration?

a)

Large surface area for absorption

b)

High blood flow

c)

Difficulties in regulating dosage

d)

Because it hits the brain so quickly

31.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the oral route?

a)

Convenient (portable, no pain)

b)

Cheap (no need to sterilize)

c)

Variety (tablets, capsules, etc.)

d)

Rapid onset of action for emergencies

32.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Rectal route?

a)

Erratic absorption

b)

Complete hepatic first pass effect

c)

Not suitable for unconscious patients

d)

The liver is by-passed

33.

Which is a Semi-Solid dosage form?

a)

Solution

b)

Capsule

c)

Pessary

d)

Elixer

34.

What condition for weakly acidic drugs results in them becoming concentrated in the CNS?

a)

Urinary alkalinization

b)

Increasing plasma pH (e.g., sodium bicarbonate)

35.

The concept that an acidic drug will accumulate on the more basic side of the membrane and a basic drug on the more acidic side is known as:

a)

Active Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Ion trapping

d)

Simple Diffusion

36.

The quantitative study of drug movement in, through and out of the body is:

a)

Pharmacodynamics

b)

Pharmacotherapeutics

c)

Pharmacokinetics

d)

Molecular pharmacology

37.

The three main pathways of drug movement across cell membranes include direct penetration, passage through protein channels, and:

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Filtration

c)

Carrier proteins

d)

Pinocytosis

38.

Endocytosis permits the entry of chemicals that are:

a)

Lipid soluble

b)

Un-ionized

39.

Which form of a weak acid or weak base drug is considered Lipid soluble and passes easily across cell membranes?

a)

Un-ionized form

b)

Ionized form

c)

Conjugated form

d)

Metabolite form

40.

Urinary acidification accelerates the excretion of:

a)

Weak acids

b)

Polar drugs

c)

Weak bases

d)

Lipid-soluble drugs

41.

The passage of a drug from its site of administration into the plasma is called:

a)

Distribution

b)

Metabolism

c)

Excretion

d)

Absorption

42.

The main absorptive site in the GIT, especially for basic lipophilic small molecules, is the:

a)

Stomach

b)

Esophagus

c)

Colon

d)

Small intestine

43.

The percentage of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation following administration by any route is called:

a)

Volume of Distribution (Vd)

b)

Clearance (Cl)

c)

Bioavailability (F)

d)

Half-life (t1/2)

44.

The bioavailability for the Intravenous (IV) route is:

a)

50%

b)

70%

c)

100%

d)

Variable

45.

Which process is NOT a cause of low oral bioavailability?

a)

First pass metabolism

b)

Acid hydrolysis

c)

Reverse transport reaction with P-glycoprotein

d)

Increased plasma protein binding

46.

Products with the same bioavailability are called:

a)

Pharmacologically equivalent

b)

Therapeutically equivalent

c)

Bioequivalent

d)

Chemically equivalent

47.

The transport of drug molecules within the body after absorption, including protein binding, is known as:

a)

Absorption

b)

Metabolism

c)

Excretion

d)

Distribution

48.

Drug distribution into the CNS is limited because of the:

a)

Blood-brain barrier (BBB)

b)

High blood flow to the brain

c)

Non-brain capillary type

d)

Presence of glial cells without tight capillaries

49.

The most available plasma protein that has a high affinity to bind acidic drugs is:

a)

Alpha-acid glycoprotein

b)

Globulin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Albumin

50.

Only the free or unbound portion of a drug:

a)

Is stored and released as needed

b)

Acts on body cells

c)

Is neither metabolized nor excreted

d)

Prolongs the half-life

51.

The bound drug portion (e.g., to plasma albumin) is generally considered:

a)

Active and diffusible

b)

Inactive and Non diffusible

c)

Easily metabolized and excreted

d)

Removed from the body quickly

52.

A drug that binds to bone tissue is:

(a)  

53.

An apparent volume of fluids into which a drug is distributed at the same concentration as the plasma is the definition of:

a)

Clearance

b)

Bioavailability

c)

Volume of distribution (Vd)

d)

Steady State Concentration (SSC)

54.

A large Volume of Distribution (Vd) is typically associated with:

a)

High water solubility

b)

High lipophilicity (lipid solubility)

c)

Low distribution rate

d)

Rapid half-life

55.

Drug elimination is the disappearance of drug from the body, which consists of:

a)

Absorption and Distribution

b)

Metabolism and Excretion

c)

Clearance and Half-life

d)

Ionization and Filtration

56.

The main function of drug metabolism is to convert lipophilic drugs into metabolites that are:

a)

Less polar

b)

Less lipid soluble (more water soluble)

c)

More toxic

57.

The main site of drug metabolism is the:

a)

Kidney

b)

Intestinal wall

c)

Lung

d)

Liver

58.

Most drugs are metabolized by which enzyme system in the liver?

a)

Acetyltransferase

b)

Glucuronosyltransferases

c)

Cytochrome P450 enzymes (CYP 450)

d)

Plasma cholinesterase

59.

A prodrug is a drug that is converted from an inactive or less active form to an active form by:

a)

Excretion

b)

Distribution

c)

Metabolism (Activation process)

d)

Filtration

60.

Phase 1 Biotransformation reactions are generally classified as:

a)

Non synthetic (chemical change)

b)

Conjugation reactions

c)

Synthesis of large molecules

d)

Resulting in only inactive metabolites

61.

Which of the following is a Phase 1 reaction?

(a)  

62.

Phase 2 Biotransformation reactions are known as:

a)

Non synthetic

b)

Conjugation

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Reduction

63.

The usual result of a Phase 2 conjugation reaction is a/an:

a)

Toxic metabolite

b)

Inactive metabolite

c)

More active metabolite

d)

More lipophilic drug

64.

A substance that enhances the rate of synthesis or decreases the rate of degradation of CYP 450 is called a/an:

a)

Enzyme inhibitor

b)

Prodrug

c)

Enzyme inducer

d)

Substrate

65.

Which drug is given as an example of an Enzyme Inducer?

a)

Quinidine

b)

Ketoconazole

c)

Rifampicin

d)

Chloramphinicol

66.

In individuals with slow acetylation of Isoniazid (INH), the drug dosage may need to be:

a)

Larger than usual

b)

Smaller than usual

c)

Unaffected

d)

Switched to a different route

67.

The three main mechanisms involved in Renal clearance are Glomerular filtration, Active tubular secretion, and:

a)

Hepatic metabolism

b)

Plasma protein binding

c)

Tubular re-absorption

d)

Pulmonary excretion

68.

In Glomerular filtration, what allows passage into the glomerular filtrate?

a)

Plasma albumin (MW 68,000)

b)

Drug molecules with molecular weight below about 20,000

c)

Only the bound drug

d)

Only macromolecules

69.

The Organic Anion Transporters (OAT) are responsible for transferring which type of drugs to the tubular lumen?

a)

Organic bases

b)

Acidic drugs

c)

Only non-selective carriers

d)

Lipophilic drugs

70.

Probenecid was developed to prolong the action of penicillin by retarding its:

4 lines
71.

Lipid-soluble drugs are poorly excreted by the renal route because they undergo:

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Active tubular secretion

c)

Passive tubular re-absorption

d)

Ion trapping in the lumen

72.

The volume of fluid from which all drugs are removed per unit time is the definition of:

a)

Half-life

b)

Clearance

c)

Volume of distribution

d)

Bioavailability

73.

The time taken for the drug concentration in plasma to decline by 50% is the:

a)

Onset of action

b)

Duration of action

c)

Half life (t1/2)

d)

Minimum effective concentration

74.

Approximately how many half-lives are required for about 97% of a drug to be eliminated from the body?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

75.

The state in which the fraction of drug absorbed (input) equals the fraction of drug eliminated (output) is called:

a)

Minimum effective concentration

b)

Loading state

c)

Steady State Concentration (SSC)

d)

Therapeutic window

76.

The minimum concentration that must be present before a drug exerts its pharmacologic action on body cells is the:

a)

Minimum Toxic Concentration (MTC)

b)

Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC)

c)

Steady State Concentration (SSC)

d)

Loading Dose Concentration

77.

The safe range between the minimum therapeutic concentration and the minimum toxic concentration of a drug is the:

a)

Half-life range

b)

Therapeutic Window (index)

c)

Steady State Concentration

d)

Clearance range

78.

A large amount of drug administered to the body to rapidly achieve the therapeutic concentration (Tc) is called the:

a)

Maintenance dose

b)

Bolus dose

c)

Loading dose

79.

The formula for calculating the Loading dose is:

a)

Loading dose = Vd / Tc

b)

Loading dose = Cl * Tc

c)

Loading dose = Vd x Tc

d)

Loading dose = Dosing rate * Dosing interval

80.

The dose used to maintain the plasma concentration within a specified range over long periods of therapy is the:

a)

Loading dose

b)

Bolus dose

c)

Maintenance dose

d)

Initial dose

81.

A subject with which condition is explicitly mentioned to require special dosage precautions?

a)

Common cold

b)

Gastric ulcer (non-perforated)

c)

Renal impairment

d)

Mild hypertension

82.

A physiological difference in infants and children compared to adults that affects drug pharmacokinetics is:

a)

Reduced total body water

b)

Reduced gastric emptying

c)

More extracellular body water

d)

Reduced albumin levels

83.

In the elderly, a pharmacokinetic change that affects drug action is:

a)

Decreased renal excretion

b)

Increased hepatic metabolism

c)

Increased gastric emptying

d)

Enhanced protein binding

84.

During the last trimester of pregnancy, which change in pharmacokinetics occurs?

a)

Decreased plasma volume

b)

Renal plasma flow halved

c)

Increased gastric emptying

d)

Plasma volume increased

85.

In heart failure, drug pharmacokinetics are affected by:

a)

Increase in plasma protein binding

b)

Increased blood flow

c)

Reduced blood flow

d)

Increased hepatic metabolic enzyme activity

86.

Which of the following drugs is mentioned as an exception to the rule 'A drug will not work unless it is bound' and acts through its physicochemical properties?

a)

Colchicine

b)

Insulin

c)

Anti-acids

d)

Penicillin

87.

The primary target for most drugs is:

(a)  

88.

Colchicine, an anti-gout drug, targets which type of protein?

a)

Receptor protein

b)

Enzyme protein

c)

Structural protein (tubulin)

d)

Carrier protein

89.

Drug receptors are defined as specific macromolecular components in the body to which a drug binds to produce its effect, most of which are:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

DNA

90.

The general pharmacological action of a drug is achieved by binding to its receptor via:

a)

Covalent bonds (strongest)

b)

Electrostatic bonds (weaker)

c)

Hydrophobic bonds (weakest)

d)

All of the above

91.

What is the term for the tendency of a drug to bind to a receptor?

a)

Affinity

b)

Intrinsic Activity

c)

Efficacy

d)

Potency

92.

What is the term for the property of a drug that describes its ability to produce a pharmacological response after binding to the receptor?

a)

Potency

b)

Intrinsic Activity (Efficacy)

c)

Affinity

d)

Selectivity

93.

A Full Agonist is defined as a drug that has:

a)

Affinity but no intrinsic activity

b)

High affinity but low intrinsic activity (0-1)

c)

High affinity and maximum intrinsic activity (intrinsic activity = 1)

d)

High intrinsic activity but low affinity

94.

A drug that binds to the receptor but lacks intrinsic activity (i.e., intrinsic activity = 0) is classified as a/an:

a)

Partial Agonist

b)

Inverse Agonist

c)

Antagonist

d)

Full Agonist

95.

A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a smaller effect than a full agonist (i.e., intrinsic activity between 0 and 1) is a/an:

a)

Partial Agonist

b)

Competitive Antagonist

c)

Irreversible Agonist

d)

Inverse Agonist

96.

What is the effect of an Inverse Agonist?

4 lines
97.

Which term describes the amount of drug (dose) required to produce a certain percentage of the maximal effect?

a)

Intrinsic activity

b)

Efficacy

c)

Potency

d)

Selectivity

98.

The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is typically represented by a/an:

a)

Affinity curve

b)

Dose-Response Curve (DRC)

c)

Therapeutic Index curve

d)

Clearance plot

99.

A drug that binds to the same site as the agonist and its effects can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the agonist is a:

a)

Non-Competitive Antagonist

b)

Competitive Antagonist

c)

Irreversible Antagonist

d)

Partial Agonist

100.

In the presence of a Non-Competitive Antagonist, what happens to the maximum response (Emax) of the agonist's Dose-Response Curve?

a)

It increases.

b)

It remains unchanged.