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Unit 3 Chapter 7-9 Test Study Guide

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1.     What are the primary functions of the nervous system?

a)
Facilitate digestion and nutrient absorption
b)
Regulate body temperature and blood pressure
c)
The primary functions of the nervous system are to receive sensory input, process information, coordinate responses, and maintain homeostasis.
d)
Produce hormones for growth and development
2.

What are the organs that make up the CNS?

a)
Heart and lungs
b)
Liver and kidneys
c)
Stomach and intestines
d)
Brain and spinal cord
3.

What is the function of the sensory division (afferent)?

a)
The sensory division sends signals from the brain to the body.
b)
The sensory division is responsible for motor control.
c)
The sensory division regulates hormone levels in the body.
d)
The function of the sensory division (afferent) is to transmit sensory information from the body to the central nervous system.
4.

What is the function of motor (efferent) division?

a)
To receive sensory information from the environment.
b)
To process information within the CNS.
c)
To transmit signals from the CNS to muscles and glands.
d)
To regulate blood flow and heart rate.
5.

What does the somatic nervous system regulate?

a)
Involuntary reflexes and motor skills.
b)
Digestive functions and hormone regulation.
c)
Emotional responses and memory processing.
d)
Voluntary movements and sensory information.
6.

What does the autonomic nervous system regulate?

a)
Sensory perception such as sight and hearing.
b)
Voluntary muscle movements like walking and running.
c)
Involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
d)
Cognitive functions like memory and decision making.
7.

What are the two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system?

a)
Somatic nervous system and enteric nervous system
b)
Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system
c)
Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
d)
Cerebral nervous system and spinal nervous system
8.

What is the function of the supporting cell (neuroglia): Astrocytes

a)
Astrocytes support neurons and maintain homeostasis in the brain.
b)
Astrocytes produce neurotransmitters for communication.
c)
Astrocytes are responsible for muscle contraction.
d)
Astrocytes generate electrical impulses in neurons.
9.

What is the function of the supporting cell (neuroglia): Microglia

a)
Microglia are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths.
b)
Microglia act as the immune defense in the central nervous system, removing debris and responding to injury.
c)
Microglia primarily support the growth of blood vessels in the brain.
d)
Microglia produce neurotransmitters for communication between neurons.
10.

What is the function of the supporting cell (neuroglia): ependymal cells

a)
Ependymal cells form the blood-brain barrier.
b)
Ependymal cells store nutrients for nerve cells.
c)
Ependymal cells transmit electrical signals between neurons.
d)
Ependymal cells produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
11.

What is the function of the supporting cell (neuroglia): oligodendrocytes

a)
The function of oligodendrocytes is to form the myelin sheath around axons in the central nervous system.
b)
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for neurotransmitter release.
c)
Oligodendrocytes help in the regeneration of damaged neurons.
d)
Oligodendrocytes provide structural support to blood vessels in the brain.
12.

What are the two names of the supporting cells of the PNS?

a)
Neurons and glial cells
b)
Microglia and ependymal cells
c)
Schwann cells and satellite cells
d)
Oligodendrocytes and astrocytes
13.

What is the function of Schwann cells?

a)
To produce hormones for the endocrine system.
b)
To facilitate blood flow in the brain.
c)
The function of Schwann cells is to produce myelin sheath and support nerve regeneration.
d)
To act as a barrier against pathogens in the nervous system.
14.

What is the function of satellite cells?

a)
To store energy in muscle cells.
b)
The function of satellite cells is to aid in muscle repair and regeneration.
c)
To produce hormones for muscle growth.
d)
To transmit nerve signals to muscles.
15.

What is the structure of a neuron?

a)
The structure of a neuron consists of the nucleus and mitochondria.
b)
Neurons are made up of only the cell body and synapses.
c)
The main components of a neuron are the axon terminal and neurotransmitters.
d)
The structure of a neuron includes the cell body, dendrites, and axon.
16.

What is the function of a neuron?

a)
To store memories in the brain.
b)
To produce hormones in the body.
c)
To provide structural support to tissues.
d)

to transmit information throughout the nervous system.

17.

Whare are dendrites located?

a)
On neurons, extending from the cell body.
b)
Within the liver, processing nutrients.
c)
In the heart, regulating blood flow.
d)
On muscle cells, aiding in contraction.
18.

What is the function of dendrites?

a)
Dendrites protect the neuron from damage.
b)
Dendrites are responsible for producing neurotransmitters.
c)
Dendrites transmit signals to muscles.
d)

to receive signals from other neurons.

19.

Where is the cell body located?

a)
In the central part of a neuron.
b)
At the tip of the axon.
c)
In the synaptic cleft.
d)
In the dendrites of the neuron.
20.

What is the function of a cell body?

a)
The cell body processes information and maintains the cell's functions.
b)
The cell body transports nutrients to other cells.
c)
The cell body is responsible for cell division.
d)
The cell body stores genetic material.
21.

Where is the axon hillock located?

a)
At the junction of the cell body and the axon of a neuron.
b)
At the end of the axon
c)
In the dendrites of a neuron
d)
Within the myelin sheath
22.

Where is a axon located?

a)
In the digestive system, near the stomach.
b)
In the circulatory system, within blood vessels.
c)
In the nervous system, extending from the neuron's cell body.
d)
In the respiratory system, inside the lungs.
23.

What is the function of myelin?

a)

to insulate nerve fibers and increase the speed of electrical signal transmission.

b)
Myelin acts as a source of energy for nerve cells.
c)
Myelin is responsible for muscle contraction.
d)
Myelin helps in the production of neurotransmitters.
24.

  Which cells form myelin sheaths in the CNS vs the PNS?

a)
Astrocytes in the CNS; Satellite cells in the PNS.
b)
Microglia in the CNS; Fibroblasts in the PNS.
c)
Ependymal cells in the CNS; Macrophages in the PNS.
d)
Oligodendrocytes in the CNS; Schwann cells in the PNS.
25.

nuclei vs ganglia

a)
Nuclei and ganglia are both located in the brain.
b)
Ganglia are clusters of neurons in the CNS; nuclei are in the PNS.
c)
Nuclei are found in the PNS; ganglia are in the CNS.
d)
Nuclei are in the CNS; ganglia are in the PNS.
26.

     tracts vs nerves (bundle of nerves)

a)
Tracts are found in the PNS; nerves are in the CNS.
b)
Nerves are bundles of tracts in the CNS.
c)
Tracts and nerves are both found in the CNS.
d)
Tracts are in the CNS; nerves are in the PNS.
27.

white matter vs gray matter (CNS)

a)
White matter is for processing; gray matter is for communication.
b)
White matter is for communication; gray matter is for processing.
c)
Gray matter is primarily found in the spinal cord, while white matter is in the brain.
d)
White matter contains more neurons than gray matter.
28.

What are the three functional classifications of neurons?

a)

Cognitive neurons, peripheral neurons, motor neurons

b)

Reflex neurons, sensory neurons, motor neurons

c)
Sensory neurons, motor neurons, interneurons
d)

Peripheral neurons, interneurons, sensory neurons

29.

Distinguish between: Multipolar, bipolar and unipolar neurons

a)
Unipolar neurons have two processes, bipolar neurons have one process, and multipolar neurons have three processes.
b)
Unipolar neurons have one process, bipolar neurons have two processes, and multipolar neurons have multiple processes.
c)
Bipolar neurons have one process, unipolar neurons have multiple processes, and multipolar neurons have two processes.
d)
Multipolar neurons have one process, unipolar neurons have two processes, and bipolar neurons have multiple processes.
30.

1.     Describe the resting state of a neuron. Where is each ion most abundant? Is the membrane polarized or depolarized? What relevant ions is the membrane permeable and impermeable to?

a)
The resting state of a neuron is polarized; Na+ is most abundant outside, K+ is most abundant inside. The membrane is permeable to K+ and slightly to Na+, but impermeable to negatively charged ions.
b)
The resting state of a neuron is depolarized; Na+ is most abundant inside, K+ is most abundant outside.
c)
The membrane is impermeable to K+ and permeable to negatively charged ions.
d)
The resting state of a neuron is neutral; Na+ and K+ are equally abundant inside and outside.
31.

1.     Describe a graded potential.

a)
A graded potential is a localized change in membrane potential that varies in magnitude and can lead to action potentials.
b)
A graded potential is a permanent change in the neuron's structure.
c)
A graded potential is a rapid, all-or-nothing response of a neuron.
d)
A graded potential is a type of neurotransmitter released at the synapse.
32.

a.     How does a graded potential differ from an action potential?

a)
Graded potentials vary in magnitude and can summate; action potentials are all-or-nothing and have a fixed size.
b)
Graded potentials are always larger than action potentials.
c)
Action potentials can vary in size and can summate.
d)
Graded potentials are only found in muscle cells.
33.

What happens to the polarity of the membrane during a graded potential

a)
The membrane becomes depolarized.
b)
The membrane becomes hyperpolarized.
c)
The membrane remains unchanged.
d)
The membrane experiences a complete reversal of polarity.
34.

How/when do graded potentials trigger an action potential? I

a)
Graded potentials only trigger action potentials in muscle cells.
b)
Action potentials can occur without any graded potentials.
c)
Graded potentials always trigger action potentials regardless of depolarization.
d)
Graded potentials trigger an action potential when they reach the threshold level of depolarization.
35.

How does an action potential propagate down a neuron?

a)
An action potential propagates by sequential opening of sodium channels, followed by potassium channels, along the axon.
b)
An action potential propagates through the myelin sheath without any ion channel activity.
c)
An action potential moves by the diffusion of ions in the extracellular fluid.
d)
An action potential travels by releasing neurotransmitters into the synapse.
36.

1.     After an action potential is propagated, repolarization occurs. What does this mean?

a)
Repolarization is the process of increasing the membrane potential to a positive value.
b)
Repolarization refers to the initial phase of an action potential before depolarization.
c)
Repolarization occurs when the membrane potential remains constant after an action potential.
d)
Repolarization means the return of the membrane potential to a negative value after depolarization.
37.

What is the general structure of a synapse?

a)
A synapse generally consists of a presynaptic terminal, synaptic cleft, and postsynaptic membrane.
b)
A synapse is made up of neurons only.
c)
A synapse consists of only the presynaptic terminal.
d)
A synapse includes a nucleus and cytoplasm.
38.

Describe how neurons communicate across a synapse.

a)
Neurons communicate across a synapse by releasing neurotransmitters that bind to receptors on the adjacent neuron.
b)
Neurons communicate by sending electrical signals directly to each other.
c)
Neurons use hormones to transmit messages across the synapse.
d)
Neurons communicate by absorbing nutrients from the synapse.
39.

What is a reflex?

a)
A reflex is a type of muscle that helps with movement.
b)
A reflex is a learned behavior over time.
c)
A reflex is a conscious decision made by the brain.
d)
A reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus.
40.

Somatic reflex vs. autonomic reflex

a)
Autonomic reflexes are voluntary and involve smooth muscles.
b)

Somatic reflexes are voluntary and involve skeletal muscles, while autonomic reflexes are involuntary and involve smooth muscles.

c)
Somatic reflexes are involuntary and involve skeletal muscles.
d)
Somatic reflexes are controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
41.

What are the four main regions of the brain?

a)
Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Brainstem, Diencephalon
b)
Cortex, Hippocampus, Amygdala, Basal Ganglia
c)
Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Medulla, Pons
d)
Frontal Lobe, Occipital Lobe, Temporal Lobe, Parietal Lobe
42.

What are the four main lobes of the brain?

a)

Brainstem, cerebrum, cerebellum, frontal

b)

Cerebellum

parietal, temporal, brainstem

c)

Hippocampus

brainstem, occipital, cerebrum

d)

Frontal, Parietal ,Temporal, Occipital

43.

What functions is the cerebral cortex responsible for?

a)
Processing and storing long-term memories
b)
Controlling reflex actions and involuntary movements
c)

higher brain functions such as sensory perception, motor control, reasoning, language, and decision-making.

d)
Regulating heart rate and blood pressure
44.

What is the general function of cerebral white matter and basal nuclei?

a)
Cerebral white matter regulates emotions; basal nuclei manage sensory perception.
b)
Cerebral white matter is responsible for breathing; basal nuclei control heart rate.
c)
Cerebral white matter transmits signals between brain regions; basal nuclei regulate motor control and coordination.
d)
Cerebral white matter stores memories; basal nuclei process visual information.
45.

What are the three major structures of the diencephalon?

a)
Cerebellum, Medulla, Pons
b)
Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Epithalamus
c)
Cortex, Hippocampus, Amygdala
d)
Thalamus, Cerebrum, Brainstem
46.

What is the of function of thalamus

a)
The thalamus produces hormones for metabolism.
b)
The thalamus is responsible for motor coordination.
c)
The thalamus regulates body temperature and hydration.
d)
The thalamus functions as a sensory relay and regulator of consciousness.
47.

What is the function f the hypothalamus?

a)
The hypothalamus is responsible for vision and hearing.
b)
The hypothalamus controls muscle movement and coordination.
c)
The hypothalamus regulates blood pressure and heart rate.
d)
The hypothalamus regulates homeostasis, including temperature, hunger, thirst, and hormonal control.
48.

What is the function of the epithalamus?

a)
The epithalamus is responsible for muscle coordination.
b)
The epithalamus regulates circadian rhythms and emotional responses.
c)
The epithalamus controls heart rate and blood pressure.
d)
The epithalamus produces hormones for digestion.
49.

Location and function of the midbrain

a)
The midbrain is located in the cerebellum and controls breathing.
b)
The midbrain is part of the forebrain and is responsible for memory storage.
c)
The midbrain is located in the brainstem and functions in processing visual and auditory information, motor control, and regulating sleep.
d)
The midbrain is located in the spinal cord and regulates heart rate.
50.

Location and function of pons

a)
The pons is located in the cerebellum and controls motor skills.
b)
The pons is part of the spinal cord and regulates digestion.
c)
The pons is found in the forebrain and is responsible for vision.
d)
The pons is located in the brainstem and functions as a communication pathway and regulator of vital functions.
51.

Location and function of medulla oblongata

a)
The medulla oblongata is located in the spinal cord and processes sensory information.
b)
The medulla oblongata is found in the cerebellum and controls motor skills.
c)
The medulla oblongata is located in the brainstem and regulates vital functions.
d)
The medulla oblongata is part of the limbic system and regulates emotions.
52.

What is the function of the cerebellum?

a)
The cerebellum regulates emotions and memory.
b)
The cerebellum coordinates movement and balance.
c)
The cerebellum processes visual information.
d)
The cerebellum produces hormones for growth.
53.

1.     What general function do the meninges play?

a)
The meninges protect the brain and spinal cord.
b)
The meninges are responsible for transmitting nerve signals.
c)
The meninges regulate blood flow to the brain.
d)
The meninges produce cerebrospinal fluid.
54.

What is the structure of the layers of meninges in sequence

a)
Dura mater, Pia mater, Arachnoid mater
b)
Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater
c)
Arachnoid mater, Dura mater, Pia mater
d)
Pia mater, Dura mater, Arachnoid mater
55.

Where do you find cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and what function does it serve?

a)
CSF is located in the heart and regulates blood flow.
b)
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced in the liver and aids in digestion.
c)
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the lungs and helps with respiration.
d)
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is found in the brain's ventricles and the subarachnoid space; it cushions the brain and spinal cord.
56.

Describe the structure of a nerve, including the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium

a)
A nerve consists of axons surrounded by endoneurium, grouped into fascicles by perineurium, and encased in epineurium.
b)
The structure of a nerve includes only the epineurium and no other layers.
c)
Nerves are composed solely of myelin sheaths without any axons.
d)
A nerve is made up of neurons only, with no connective tissue.
57.

What are spinal nerves? How many pairs are there?

a)
15 pairs of spinal nerves.
b)
40 pairs of spinal nerves.
c)
25 pairs of spinal nerves.
d)
31 pairs of spinal nerves.
58.

Contrast the functions of the somatic, sympathetic, and parasympathetic nervous systems.

a)
Somatic: voluntary muscle control; Sympathetic: fight or flight response; Parasympathetic: rest and digest functions.
b)
Parasympathetic: emergency response functions
c)
Sympathetic: relaxation response
d)
Somatic: involuntary muscle control
59.

Describe the external anatomy of an eye

a)
Pupil, iris, sclera, fovea, and ciliary body.
b)
The external anatomy of the eye includes the sclera, cornea, iris, pupil, eyelids, and eyelashes.
c)
Cornea, retina, optic disc, vitreous humor, and choroid.
d)
Retina, optic nerve, lens, conjunctiva, tear ducts, and macula.
60.

What is the function of the iris?

a)
The iris protects the eye from foreign objects.
b)
The iris is responsible for color perception.
c)
The iris helps in focusing light on the retina.
d)
The function of the iris is to regulate the amount of light entering the eye.
61.

What is the function of the pupil

a)
The pupil helps in focusing images on the retina.
b)
The pupil is responsible for color perception.
c)
The pupil protects the eye from foreign objects.
d)
The function of the pupil is to control the amount of light that enters the eye.
62.

What is the function of the cornea?

a)
The cornea refracts light and protects the eye.
b)
The cornea is responsible for color vision.
c)
The cornea regulates the pressure inside the eye.
d)
The cornea produces tears for lubrication.
63.

What is the function of the sclera

a)
The sclera helps in color perception.
b)
The sclera protects the eye and provides structure.
c)
The sclera is responsible for light refraction.
d)
The sclera produces tears for eye lubrication.
64.

Describe the accessory structures of the eye

a)
Ciliary body, vitreous humor, and aqueous humor
b)

The accessory structures of the eye are the eyelids, eyelashes, lacrimal apparatus, and conjunctiva

c)
Optic nerve, sclera, choroid, and lens
d)
Cornea, retina, iris, and pupil
65.

Describe the internal anatomy of the eye

a)
The internal anatomy of the eye includes the eardrum and cochlea.
b)
The internal anatomy of the eye consists of the heart, lungs, and liver.
c)
The internal anatomy of the eye consists of the cornea, lens, retina, iris, pupil, and vitreous body.
d)
The internal anatomy of the eye is made up of the skin, muscles, and bones.
66.

What two main types of photoreceptors do human eyes possess?

a)
Rods and retinas
b)
Rods and cones
c)
Cones and lenses
d)
Rods and fibers
67.

Where with the eye are rods and cones found?

a)
In the cornea of the eye.
b)
In the lens of the eye.
c)
In the iris of the eye.
d)
In the retina of the eye.
68.

How many varieties of cones are there?

a)
2
b)
4
c)
3
d)
5
69.

What colors do cones detect?

a)
Red, green, and blue
b)
Orange, purple, and pink
c)
Black, white, and gray
d)
Yellow, cyan, and magenta
70.

With knowledge of the anatomy of the eye, one can describe the sequence of structures light would encounter from the point it enters the eye to the point receptors detect it

a)
Cornea, vitreous humor, iris, lens, optic nerve
b)
Sclera, aqueous humor, cornea, lens, retina
c)
Pupil, cornea, lens, vitreous humor, optic disc
d)
Cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, retina (photoreceptors)
71.

1.     How are changes in the lens, as a result of the ciliary bodies, used to focus on objects close or far away?

a)
Ciliary bodies only control pupil size.
b)
The lens remains unchanged regardless of distance.
c)
Ciliary bodies are responsible for eye color.
d)
Ciliary bodies adjust the lens shape to focus on near or far objects.
72.

1.     Describe the photopupillary reflex.

a)
The photopupillary reflex is the constriction of pupils in response to light.
b)
The photopupillary reflex is the blinking of the eyes when exposed to light.
c)
The photopupillary reflex occurs only in bright sunlight.
d)
The photopupillary reflex is the dilation of pupils in response to light.
73.

Describe and identify the anatomy of the ear,

a)
The anatomy of the ear includes the heart and lungs.
b)
The ear consists of the brain and spinal cord.
c)
The anatomy of the ear includes the outer ear (pinna and ear canal), middle ear (tympanic membrane and ossicles), and inner ear (cochlea and vestibular system).
d)
The ear is made up of the skin and muscles.
74.

Explain how sound is propagated to the cochlea

a)
Sound is transmitted through the skin to the cochlea.
b)
Sound travels directly through air to the cochlea.
c)
The cochlea generates sound waves independently.
d)
Sound is propagated to the cochlea through vibrations of the eardrum and ossicles, creating fluid waves in the cochlea.
75.

Understand how hearing is perceived within the cochlea.

a)
Hearing is perceived through the vibration of the eardrum.
b)
Hearing is processed in the brain without any involvement of the cochlea.
c)
Hearing relies solely on the outer ear for sound detection.
d)
Hearing is perceived through the stimulation of hair cells in the cochlea.
76.

1.     Distinguish between the general meaning/effect of static vs dynamic equilibrium.

a)
Static equilibrium is characterized by unbalanced forces, whereas dynamic equilibrium has no forces acting on it.
b)
Static equilibrium is only applicable in fluid dynamics, while dynamic equilibrium applies to solids.
c)
Static equilibrium is a state of rest with balanced forces, while dynamic equilibrium is a state of constant motion with balanced forces.
d)
Static equilibrium involves constant motion, while dynamic equilibrium is at rest.
77.

1.     How do otoliths function for our sense of static equilibrium, and where are they found?

a)
Otoliths function in static equilibrium by detecting head position relative to gravity and are found in the inner ear.
b)
Otoliths help in dynamic equilibrium and are located in the brain.
c)
Otoliths are responsible for detecting sound waves and are found in the outer ear.
d)
Otoliths function in taste perception and are found in the tongue.
78.

What is the cupula of a crista ampullaris?

a)
The cupula is a bony structure in the crista ampullaris that supports balance.
b)
The cupula is a fluid-filled sac that stores sensory cells in the crista ampullaris.
c)
The cupula is a muscle that controls head movement in the crista ampullaris.
d)
The cupula is a gelatinous structure in the crista ampullaris that detects head rotation.
79.

1.     where is cupula of a crista ampullaris found and how it functions to establish our sense of dynamic equilibrium.

a)
The cupula of a crista ampullaris is in the nasal cavity and regulates smell.
b)
The cupula is found in the outer ear and helps with static balance.
c)
The cupula is located in the cochlea and detects sound vibrations.
d)
The cupula of a crista ampullaris is found in the semicircular canals of the inner ear and helps establish dynamic equilibrium by detecting head rotation.
80.

1.     What special senses use chemoreceptors?

a)
Vision and hearing
b)
Taste and smell.
c)
Touch and balance
d)
Hearing and sight
81.

What does “olfactory” refer to and what does an olfactory receptor sense?

a)
Olfactory refers to the sense of hearing, and olfactory receptors sense sounds.
b)
Olfactory refers to the sense of taste, and olfactory receptors sense flavors.
c)
Olfactory refers to the sense of smell, and olfactory receptors sense odors.
d)
Olfactory refers to the sense of sight, and olfactory receptors sense light.
82.

Where are olfactory receptors located?

a)
Olfactory receptors are situated in the skin.
b)
Olfactory receptors are located in the lungs.
c)
Olfactory receptors are located in the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity.
d)
Olfactory receptors are found in the tongue.
83.

What are taste buds/gustatory hairs and where are they found?

a)
Taste buds are sensory organs containing gustatory hairs, found mainly on the tongue.
b)
Gustatory hairs are located in the eyes.
c)
Taste buds are found only in the stomach.
d)
Taste buds are responsible for hearing sounds.
84.

1.     What are the five basic taste receptors/sensations?

a)
creamy
b)
spicy
c)
sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami
d)
tangy
85.

: Describe presbycusis, a type of sensorineural deafness

a)
Presbycusis is a type of conductive hearing loss caused by earwax buildup.
b)
Presbycusis is a sudden hearing loss due to loud noise exposure.
c)
Presbycusis is a reversible condition that can be treated with medication.
d)
Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural deafness characterized by progressive hearing loss, especially in high frequencies.
86.

Describe the difference between myopia and hyperopia

a)
Myopia is caused by an excess of light entering the eye, while hyperopia is caused by a lack of light.
b)
Myopia and hyperopia are both types of color blindness.
c)
Myopia is nearsightedness, while hyperopia is farsightedness.
d)
Myopia is a condition where distant objects are seen clearly, while hyperopia is when close objects are seen clearly.
87.

1.     What does astigmatism result from, and what effect does this have on vision?

a)
Astigmatism results from an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, affecting vision by causing blurriness or distortion.
b)
Astigmatism is a condition that only affects color perception.
c)
Astigmatism results from excessive eye strain, causing temporary vision issues.
d)
Astigmatism is caused by a lack of vitamin A, leading to night blindness.
88.

Describe the general overarching function of the endocrine system

a)
To produce energy through cellular respiration.
b)
To filter waste products from the blood.
c)
To provide structural support to the body.
d)
The general overarching function of the endocrine system is to regulate and coordinate bodily functions through the secretion of hormones.
89.

Compare and Contrast: Nervous system vs Endocrine system

a)
The nervous system uses hormones and is slower; the endocrine system is fast and uses electrical signals.
b)
The nervous system is fast and uses electrical signals; the endocrine system is slower and uses hormones.
c)
Both systems use electrical signals but the endocrine system is more efficient.
d)
The nervous system is slower and uses hormones; the endocrine system is fast and uses electrical signals.
90.

1.     What is a hormone?

a)
A hormone is a mineral that strengthens bones.
b)
A hormone is a protein that helps in digestion.
c)
A hormone is a type of vitamin that boosts energy levels.
d)
A hormone is a chemical messenger that regulates bodily functions.
91.

a.     Name/identify the two major chemical classifications of hormone.

a)
Nucleotide hormones and protein hormones
b)
Peptide hormones and steroid hormones
c)
Amino acid hormones and lipid hormones
d)
Vitamins and minerals
92.

a.     What does a hormone’s “target cell” or “target organ” refer to?

a)
The specific cells or organs that respond to a hormone.
b)
Organs that store hormones.
c)
Cells that produce hormones.
d)
The pathway through which hormones travel.
93.

in order for a target cell to respond to a hormone, what must that cell have present?

a)
Antibodies to fight off infections
b)
Receptors for the hormone
c)
Enzymes to break down the hormone
d)
Nutrients to support cell function
94.

Describe three forms of endocrine gland stimuli

a)

hormonal stimuli, humoral stimuli, and neural stimuli.

b)

Environmental stimuli, hormonal stimuli, physical stimuli

c)

Physical stimuli, humoral stimuli, neural stimuli

d)

Chemical stimuli, environmental stimuli, neural stimuli

95.

Identify the following major endocrine organs

a)
kidneys
b)
liver
c)
spleen
d)
Pituitary gland, thyroid gland, adrenal glands, pancreas, ovaries, testes
96.

Is the posterior pituitary truly an endocrine gland? Why?

a)
No, the posterior pituitary is not a true endocrine gland.
b)
The posterior pituitary is primarily responsible for hormone production.
c)
The posterior pituitary secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream.
d)
Yes, the posterior pituitary is a true endocrine gland.
97.

What effect does drinking alcoholic beverages have on antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and in turn, the body as a whole

a)
Drinking alcoholic beverages decreases ADH secretion, leading to increased urine output and potential dehydration.
b)
Drinking alcohol causes the body to retain more water, reducing dehydration.
c)
Alcohol consumption has no effect on ADH levels or urine production.
d)
Drinking alcoholic beverages increases ADH secretion, leading to decreased urine output.
98.

1.     What is the function of releasing and inhibiting hormones produced and secreted by the hypothalamus?

a)
To stimulate the growth of hair follicles on the scalp.
b)
The function of releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus is to regulate the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland.
c)
To enhance the production of adrenaline in the adrenal glands.
d)
To increase the absorption of nutrients in the intestines.
99.

1.     Four of the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary are “tropic hormones.” What does this mean?

a)
Tropic hormones inhibit the release of hormones from other glands.
b)
Tropic hormones are produced only in the adrenal gland.
c)
Tropic hormones are responsible for regulating metabolism directly.
d)
Tropic hormones stimulate other endocrine glands to release hormones.
100.

1.     Where hormone is produced by the pineal gland, and what function does it serve?

a)
Melatonin, produced by the pineal gland, regulates sleep-wake cycles.
b)
Serotonin, produced by the adrenal gland, boosts energy levels.
c)
Cortisol, produced by the thyroid gland, regulates metabolism.
d)
Insulin, produced by the pancreas, controls blood pressure.
101.

What three hormones are produced by the thyroid gland

a)

Thyroxine , Triiodothyronine , Calcitonin

b)

Adrenaline, Calcitonin, thyroxine

c)

Insulin, cortisol, triiodothyronine

d)

Cortisol, adrenaline, calcitonin

102.

What hormone is produced by the parathyroid glands, and what function does it serve?

a)
Cortisol, which manages stress responses.
b)
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produced by the parathyroid glands and regulates calcium levels in the blood.
c)
Thyroid hormone, which controls metabolism.
d)
Insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels.
103.

What hormone is produced by the thymus and what function does it serve?

a)
Thymosin, which helps in T-cell development.
b)
Adrenaline, which increases heart rate.
c)
Cortisol, which manages stress response.
d)
Insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels.
104.

1.     What are the three groups of corticosteroids produced by the adrenal cortex?

a)
Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens
b)
Corticosteroids, estrogens, and progestins
c)
Mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormones
d)
Androgens, glucocorticoids, and insulin
105.

a.     Cortisol and cortisone represent another group of these corticosteroids: what functions do they serve?

a)
Cortisol and cortisone are primarily used for muscle growth.
b)
Cortisol and cortisone are involved in blood pressure regulation only.
c)
Cortisol and cortisone are hormones that promote sleep.
d)
Cortisol and cortisone regulate metabolism, immune response, and stress response.
106.

What two hormones are released by the adrenal medulla, and what general functions do these play?

a)
Cortisol and aldosterone
b)
Insulin and glucagon
c)
Testosterone and estrogen
d)
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
107.

What hormones are produced by pancreatic islet cells and what function do they serve?

a)
Insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide; they regulate blood glucose levels and digestive processes.
b)
Estrogen and testosterone; they influence reproductive functions and secondary sexual characteristics.
c)
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine; they control heart rate and energy levels.
d)
Adrenaline, cortisol, and aldosterone; they regulate stress response and metabolism.
108.

What groups of hormones are produced by the ovaries? By the testes?

a)
Ovaries produce testosterone and progesterone; testes produce estrogen.
b)
Ovaries produce estrogen and progesterone; testes produce testosterone.
c)
Ovaries produce cortisol and testosterone; testes produce estrogen and progesterone.
d)
Ovaries produce insulin and testosterone; testes produce progesterone and estrogen.
109.

What is the function of estrogen, progestogen and testosterone?

a)
Estrogen increases muscle mass, progestogen enhances bone density, and testosterone regulates blood sugar levels.
b)
Estrogen is responsible for hair growth, progestogen aids in digestion, and testosterone improves skin elasticity.
c)
Estrogen promotes lactation, progestogen triggers ovulation, and testosterone reduces stress levels.
d)
Estrogen regulates female reproductive functions, progestogen maintains pregnancy, and testosterone develops male characteristics.
110.

1.     When is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) produced during pregnancy, and what role does it play?

a)
hCG is produced after implantation and helps maintain the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.
b)
hCG is produced by the placenta and regulates blood pressure during pregnancy.
c)
hCG is produced before implantation and triggers ovulation.
d)
hCG is produced only during the second trimester and supports fetal growth.
111.

What hormone does an over-the-counter pregnancy test detect

a)
estrogen
b)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
c)
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
d)
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
112.

Where is oxytocin released from?

a)
Anterior pituitary gland
b)
Adrenal glands
c)
Thyroid gland
d)
Posterior pituitary gland
113.

Where is antidiuretic (ADH) released from?

a)
Kidneys
b)
Anterior pituitary gland
c)
Posterior pituitary gland
d)
Adrenal glands
114.

Where is growth hormone released from and what is its function?

a)
Growth hormone is released from the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates growth and cell regeneration.
b)
Growth hormone is released from the adrenal glands and regulates metabolism.
c)
Growth hormone is released from the thyroid gland and controls heart rate.
d)
Growth hormone is released from the pancreas and aids in digestion.
115.

Where is prolactin released from and what is its function?

a)
Prolactin is produced in the thyroid gland and controls metabolism.
b)
Prolactin is released from the adrenal gland and regulates blood pressure.
c)
Prolactin is secreted by the pancreas and aids in digestion.
d)
Prolactin is released from the anterior pituitary gland and its function is to promote lactation.
116.

Where is follicle stimulating hormone released from and what is its function?

a)
Follicle stimulating hormone is released from the thyroid gland and regulates metabolism.
b)
Follicle stimulating hormone is released from the adrenal cortex and controls blood pressure.
c)
Follicle stimulating hormone is released from the pancreas and aids in digestion.
d)
Follicle stimulating hormone is released from the anterior pituitary gland and its function is to stimulate the growth of ovarian follicles in females and spermatogenesis in males.
117.

Where is luteinizing hormone released from and what is its function?

a)
Luteinizing hormone is released from the pancreas and aids in digestion.
b)
Luteinizing hormone is released from the adrenal gland and regulates blood pressure.
c)
Luteinizing hormone is released from the thyroid gland and controls metabolism.
d)
Luteinizing hormone is released from the anterior pituitary gland and its function is to regulate reproductive processes.
118.

Where is thyrotropic hormone released an what is its function?

a)
Thyrotropic hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland.
b)
Thyrotropic hormone is released by the thyroid gland and controls metabolism.
c)
Thyrotropic hormone is released by the pancreas and aids in digestion.
d)
Thyrotropic hormone is released by the adrenal gland and regulates blood sugar levels.
119.

Where is the thyroid stimulating hormone released from and what is it function?

a)
Thyroid stimulating hormone is released from the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones.
b)
Thyroid stimulating hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus and controls heart rate.
c)
Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced in the pancreas and aids in digestion.
d)
Thyroid stimulating hormone is released from the adrenal gland and regulates blood sugar levels.
120.

Function of primary somatic sensory area?

a)
To process and interpret sensory information from the body.
b)
To control emotional responses.
c)
To store long-term memories.
d)
To regulate motor functions of the body.
121.

Function of primary motor area

a)
The primary motor area regulates emotional responses.
b)
The primary motor area processes visual information.
c)
The primary motor area controls voluntary muscle movements.
d)
The primary motor area is responsible for auditory perception.
122.

Function of Broca area

a)
The Broca area regulates heart rate and blood pressure.
b)
The Broca area is involved in visual processing.
c)
The Broca area is responsible for language production and processing.
d)
The Broca area is responsible for motor coordination.
123.

Function of anterior association area

a)
Higher cognitive functions including decision making, problem solving, and social behavior.
b)
Visual perception and recognition
c)
Motor control and coordination
d)
Basic sensory processing
124.

Function of posterior association area

a)
Processes visual stimuli only.
b)
Regulates emotional responses exclusively.
c)
Controls motor functions and movement.
d)
Integrates sensory information and supports higher cognitive functions.

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