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Chapter 23: Brain Disorders - Seizures

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is epilepsy?

a)

A chronic disturbance of the nervous system characterized by persistent seizures due to abnormal electrical activity of the brain

b)

A temporary loss of memory

c)

A type of headache

d)

A muscle disorder

2.

Focal seizures affect only one part of the brain and usually come with a warning sign or aura.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Generalized seizures involve both sides of the brain and usually do not have a warning sign or aura.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Absence seizure causes you to _______ or stare into space for a few seconds. Common in children.

a)

blank out

b)

jump up

c)

fall asleep

d)

run around

5.

Which type of seizure is described as brief sharp like jerks of muscles or a group of muscles?

a)

Absence seizure

b)

Myoclonic seizure

c)

Clonic seizure

d)

Tonic seizure

6.

Clonic seizures consist of a rhythmic jerking movement of the arms and legs.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Tonic refers to a seizure in which there is sudden tension or stiffness that can affect your arms, legs, or entire body.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Atonic seizure is without a tone, muscles suddenly become _______.

a)

limp

b)

stiff

c)

swollen

d)

rigid

9.

Status epilepticus is a medical emergency because irreversible brain damage can occur if the seizure is not controlled.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Name two possible causes of seizures mentioned in the text.

a)

Brain or cerebral tumor, Hyperpyrexia (extremely high temperature), stroke, metabolic toxicity (electrolyte imbalance)

b)

Dehydration, mild headache, seasonal allergies, low blood pressure

c)

Sprained ankle, muscle cramps, paper cut, mild cough

d)

Nasal congestion, toothache, mild fever, sunburn

11.

What is the postictal state?

a)

The postictal state is a period that begins when a seizure subsides and ends when the patient returns to baseline. It can last between 5-30 minutes and includes symptoms such as lethargy, confusion, headache, speech impairment, muscle soreness, and changes in vital signs.

b)

The postictal state is a period of increased alertness and energy immediately following a seizure, typically lasting several hours.

c)

The postictal state is the time before a seizure begins, characterized by aura and warning signs.

d)

The postictal state refers to a permanent neurological deficit that develops after repeated seizures.

12.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for seizures?

a)

Antiepileptic drugs

b)

Drinking alcohol

c)

Keto diet

d)

Biofeedback and surgery

13.

Patients with seizures should be advised not to operate heavy machinery and some are not permitted to drive.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Fill in the blank: TIA stands for _________.

a)

Transient Ischemic Attack

b)

Total Internal Artery

c)

Temporary Ischemic Arrest

d)

Transitional Intracranial Aneurysm

15.

What is the purpose of an implanted vagus nerve stimulator in epilepsy treatment?

a)

It is helpful for generalized epilepsy for many patients with uncontrolled seizures.

b)

It is used to monitor blood pressure in epilepsy patients.

c)

It is primarily for treating migraine headaches.

d)

It is used to deliver insulin to diabetic patients.

16.

Which of the following is a symptom that may be observed during the postictal state?

a)

Headache

b)

Increased energy

c)

Euphoria

d)

None of the above

17.

What does CVA stand for?

a)

Cerebrovascular Accident

b)

Cardiovascular Accident

c)

Cerebral Vascular Aneurysm

d)

Carotid Vascular Assessment

18.

Which diagnostic tests are used for TIA?

a)

Carotid duplex ultrasound

b)

Blood tests, MRI, and EEG

c)

Angioplasty procedure with stent implantation or carotid endarterectomy

d)

All of the above

19.

Fill in the blank: A CT scan is what will tell us if it was a ______ or a CVA.

a)

TIA

b)

seizure

c)

tumor

d)

infection

20.

Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor for stroke?

a)

Age

b)

Smoking

c)

Sedentary lifestyle

d)

Hypertension

21.

Aspirin helps prevent platelet aggregation and is recommended for TIA.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for stroke?

a)

A) Gender

b)

B) Smoking

c)

C) Hypertension

d)

D) Obesity

23.

Fill in the blank: Both hemorrhagic and ischemic strokes cause brain cells to die and lead to ______ impairments.

a)

functional

b)

visual

c)

respiratory

d)

digestive

24.

Which of the following is a pathophysiology of stroke?

a)

Cerebral thrombosis

b)

Embolus

c)

Intracerebral hemorrhage

d)

All of the above

25.

Cocaine and methamphetamine cause vasoconstriction and brain ischemia.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What is an aneurysm?

a)

An abnormal ballooning of an artery wall.

b)

A blockage in a vein.

c)

A narrowing of a capillary.

d)

A rupture of a heart valve.

27.

What is an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)?

a)

A congenital abnormality that is a tangled mass of malformed, thin-walled, dilated vessels that form abnormal communication between the arterial and venous systems.

b)

A benign tumor composed of smooth muscle cells and fibrous tissue.

c)

A blockage in the arterial system caused by a blood clot.

d)

An infection of the arterial wall leading to aneurysm formation.

28.

What is the goal time to get a patient with suspected heart ischemia to the cardiac catheterization lab?

a)

60-90 minutes.

b)

120-150 minutes.

c)

30-45 minutes.

d)

180-210 minutes.

29.

For ischemic stroke, what is the door-to-needle goal for IV tPA?

a)

Within 60 minutes of arrival.

b)

Within 30 minutes of arrival.

c)

Within 90 minutes of arrival.

d)

Within 120 minutes of arrival.

30.

Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a stroke?

a)

A) Facial drooping

b)

B) Arm weakness

c)

C) Speech difficulty

d)

D) Stomach pain

31.

What does the acronym FAST stand for in recognizing stroke symptoms?

a)

F- facial drooping, A- arm weakness, S- speech difficulty, T- it's TIME to call 911.

b)

F- finger numbness, A- ankle pain, S- stomach ache, T- take a rest.

c)

F- foot swelling, A- abdominal pain, S- sneezing, T- try to relax.

d)

F- fever, A- anxiety, S- sweating, T- take medicine.

32.

Refer to the diagram of the brain. Which lobe is responsible for memory (short term)?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

33.

Refer to the diagram of the brain. The parietal lobe is associated with which of the following functions?

a)

A) Hearing, smell, taste

b)

B) Body awareness

c)

C) Visual reception

d)

D) Speech

34.

Fill in the blank: The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for _________

a)

visual reception

b)

hearing

c)

touch sensation

d)

language processing

35.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a diagnostic test for stroke?

a)

MRI or cerebral angiogram

b)

EEG

c)

Blood pressure measurement

d)

Lumbar puncture

36.

Thrombolytic therapy should be started within 60 minutes of arrival IF INDICATED.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Fill in the blank: tPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activator) is a ________ drug used for stroke patients.

a)

thrombolytic

b)

antibiotic

c)

antihypertensive

d)

anticoagulant

38.

What is the goal during an ischemic stroke?

a)

To block blood flow to the brain

b)

To restore blood flow before permanent brain damage occurs

c)

To increase blood pressure

d)

To reduce muscle function

39.

Fill in the blank: Complications of stroke include extension of hemorrhage or rebleed, seizures, and _________.

a)

hydrocephalus

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes

d)

asthma

40.

Which of the following is NOT a management step in Phase I of stroke management?

a)

Maintain an adequate airway

b)

Establish baseline data regarding vital signs

c)

Discharge and referrals

d)

Preserve joint and muscle function

41.

The purpose of establishing baseline data regarding vital signs, level of consciousness, neuromuscular function, and neurologic status in Phase I of stroke management is to:

a)

Monitor for changes and detect early signs of deterioration

b)

Administer medications more efficiently

c)

Reduce the need for further diagnostic tests

d)

Ensure immediate discharge planning

42.

Plans for rehabilitation should begin at what point in Phase II of stroke management?

a)

After discharge

b)

When the patient is admitted

c)

After complications arise

d)

After Phase I is complete

43.

Patients who have had strokes can be prone to rapid mood swings and spontaneous weeping.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following is a step in Phase III of stroke management?

a)

Preventing complications that may interfere with rehabilitation

b)

Visiting nurse

c)

Establishing baseline data

d)

Collaborating with the health care team

45.

Fill in the blank: All health care workers must be _______ and accepting when dealing with stroke patients who experience rapid mood swings and spontaneous weeping.

a)

patient

b)

careless

c)

impatient

d)

indifferent

46.

Refer to the diagram. Which of the following is a symptom of left-sided brain damage?

a)

Quick and impulsive behavior

b)

Speech problems, aphasia

c)

Short attention span

d)

Neglects left side

47.

Right-sided brain damage typically results in:

a)

Right-sided hemiplegia

b)

Slow and cautious behavior

c)

Left-sided hemiplegia

d)

Difficulty in following verbal commands

48.

Brain tumors may begin in the brain itself, or they may begin in the ________, cranial nerves, or pituitary gland.

a)

meninges

b)

ventricles

c)

cerebellum

d)

thalamus

49.

Which of the following is NOT a possible treatment for brain tumors?

a)

Surgery

b)

Radiation therapy

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Antibiotics

50.

Routine neurologic assessments, including activities of daily living, pain assessment and control, are part of ________ for brain tumors.

a)

Nursing Management

b)

Medical Diagnosis

c)

Surgical Procedure

d)

Pharmacologic Therapy

51.

Complications of brain tumors include:

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Intercerebral hemorrhage

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

52.

Bacterial meningitis is the inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord and is caused by ________.

a)

an infectious agent

b)

a genetic mutation

c)

excessive exercise

d)

vitamin deficiency

53.

Which immunization can prevent meningitis, especially in college kids?

a)

Influenza

b)

Meningitis

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Varicella

54.

What is a classic sign of meningitis that is aggravated by moving the head and is tested by having the patient put their chin to their chest?

a)

Brudzinski sign

b)

Babinski sign

c)

Trousseau sign

d)

Chvostek sign

55.

Fill in the blank: A patient with meningitis may show photophobia, which means ________.

a)

light sensitivity (lights hurting their eyes)

b)

difficulty swallowing

c)

loss of smell

d)

hearing voices

56.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of meningitis?

a)

Severe headache

b)

Nuchal rigidity

c)

Petechial rash

d)

High blood sugar

57.

How is meningitis diagnosed?

a)

Blood pressure measurement

b)

Lumbar puncture to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

c)

X-ray

d)

Urine test

58.

Early recognition and prompt treatment of meningitis can prevent permanent disability.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which medication is given along with antibiotics to decrease inflammation in meningitis patients?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Aspirin

60.

Viral meningitis is milder than bacterial meningitis.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Fill in the blank: The most common viruses causing viral meningitis are ________, arboviruses, HIV, and herpes simplex virus.

a)

enteroviruses

b)

adenoviruses

c)

retroviruses

d)

rhinoviruses

62.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of viral meningitis?

a)

A) Headache

b)

B) Fever

c)

C) Photophobia

d)

D) High blood pressure

63.

What is encephalitis?

a)

An acute inflammation of the brain that is serious and sometimes fatal

b)

A mild headache

c)

A chronic skin condition

d)

A digestive disorder

64.

Which of the following are classic symptoms of encephalitis?

a)

Stiff neck, photophobia, and lethargy

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Rash and itching

d)

Joint pain

65.

Fill in the blank: Encephalitis is an acute inflammation of the ______ that is serious and sometimes fatal.

a)

brain

b)

liver

c)

lungs

d)

kidneys

66.

What is the recommended treatment for encephalitis?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Symptomatic with general supportive measures

c)

Surgery

d)

Chemotherapy

67.

The most common types of viral encephalitis in the United States are caused by herpes simplex virus 1, West Nile virus, and the enteroviruses.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

What is a brain abscess?

a)

A) A continuous pain in the head

b)

B) Puss filled pocket of infected material in the brain

c)

C) A type of viral infection

d)

D) A skin rash

69.

Fill in the blank: Headaches are defined as ______ pain in the head.

a)

continuous

b)

intermittent

c)

sharp

d)

dull

70.

Which foods can trigger a migraine headache?

a)

Citrus fruits, chocolate, alcohol (especially red wine), Msg

b)

Bread and rice

c)

Milk and cheese

d)

Apples and bananas

71.

Cluster headaches usually cause intense pain in or around ______ on one side of the head.

a)

one eye

b)

the jaw

c)

the neck

d)

the ear

72.

What are the common causes of tension headaches?

a)

Stress and muscle tensions

b)

Viral infection

c)

Dehydration

d)

Allergies

73.

Do tension headaches typically cause nausea, vomiting, or light sensitivity?

a)

Yes

b)

No

74.

Fill in the blank: The medication used for migraines is _________.

a)

Propranolol (Inderal)

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Metformin

d)

Lisinopril

75.

What is Trigeminal Neuralgia (Tic Douloureux)?

a)

A common headache

b)

A rare facial pain syndrome related to pressure on the nerve root

c)

A type of muscle spasm

d)

A viral infection

76.

Fill in the blank: The pain in trigeminal neuralgia is usually localized on ________ side of the face.

a)

one

b)

both

c)

upper

d)

lower

77.

Which of the following is NOT a trigger for trigeminal neuralgia attacks?

a)

A) Exposure to drafts

b)

B) Light touch or vibration

c)

C) Drinking cold or very hot liquids

d)

D) Sleeping

78.

Bell’s Palsy is associated with which of the following?

a)

Edema and ischemia of facial nerve

b)

Herpes simplex virus

c)

Stress

d)

Exposure to cold and pregnancy

e)

All of the above

79.

Fill in the blank: The main symptom of Bell’s Palsy is ________ of the facial muscles.

a)

numbness and partial or total paralysis

b)

swelling and redness

c)

itching and burning

d)

loss of taste sensation

80.

What is the treatment for Bell’s Palsy?

a)

Patch over the eye and artificial tears

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Acyclovir

d)

All of the above