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Lesson 16.1: Theory and Clinical Practice Objectives

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which objective focuses on analyzing etiologies of anemia?

a)

Examine the causes of the various types of anemias

b)

Explain the pathophysiology and care of sickle cell disease

c)

Interpret lab values for a patient with leukemia

d)

Summarize the problems and treatments patients with hemophilia face

2.

Which learning objective requires developing a patient care plan for anemia?

a)

Formulate a teaching plan for the patient with leukemia

b)

Develop a plan of care for the patient with an anemia

c)

Compare cell abnormalities of polycythemia vera with those of leukemia

d)

Assess for signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

3.

Which objective specifically addresses sickle cell disease?

a)

Compare cell abnormalities of polycythemia vera with those of leukemia

b)

Explain the pathophysiology and care of sickle cell disease

c)

Interpret lab values for a patient with leukemia

d)

Prepare to provide preprocedure and postprocedure care for bone marrow aspiration

4.

What is the focus when comparing polycythemia vera to leukemia?

a)

Treatment outcomes

b)

Cell abnormalities

c)

Patient education strategies

d)

DIC symptom clusters

5.

Which objective involves patient education for leukemia?

a)

Formulate a teaching plan for the patient with leukemia

b)

Summarize hemophilia treatments

c)

Prepare for bone marrow aspiration

d)

Perform assessment on suspected hematologic disorder

6.

Which objective requires interpreting diagnostic data for leukemia?

a)

Interpret lab values for a patient with leukemia

b)

Develop a plan of care for anemia

c)

Explain care of sickle cell disease

d)

Compare polycythemia vera with leukemia

7.

Which objective focuses on hemophilia?

a)

Summarize the problems and treatments patients with hemophilia face

b)

Explain pathophysiology of sickle cell disease

c)

Develop an anemia care plan

d)

Interpret leukemia lab values

8.

Which clinical practice objective emphasizes outcome writing based on nursing diagnoses for blood disorders?

a)

Assess for signs and symptoms of DIC

b)

Write expected outcomes for appropriate nursing diagnoses

c)

Perform assessment on suspected hematologic disorder

d)

Assist with leukemia plan of care

9.

Preparing for which invasive procedure is explicitly listed as a clinical practice objective?

a)

Lumbar puncture

b)

Bone marrow aspiration

c)

Central line insertion

d)

Splenectomy

10.

Which objective emphasizes assessment skills for suspected hematologic disorders?

a)

Perform an assessment on a patient with a suspected hematologic disorder

b)

Summarize hemophilia treatments

c)

Explain sickle cell care

d)

Compare polycythemia vera cells

11.

Which clinical practice objective involves collaboration on adult leukemia care planning?

a)

Assist with the development of a plan of care for an adult with leukemia

b)

Interpret lab values for leukemia

c)

Explain sickle cell pathophysiology

d)

Assess for DIC signs

12.

Which condition requires assessment for specific signs and symptoms per the objectives?

a)

Anemia

b)

Sickle cell disease

c)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

d)

Polycythemia vera

13.

In the theory objectives, what type of analysis is required for anemia?

a)

Pathophysiology of clotting cascade

b)

Etiologic examination

c)

Nursing outcome documentation

d)

Postprocedure monitoring

14.

Which objective combines both understanding and care delivery for a genetic hemoglobinopathy?

a)

Explain the pathophysiology and care of sickle cell disease

b)

Compare cell abnormalities of polycythemia vera with leukemia

c)

Summarize hemophilia treatments

d)

Develop an anemia care plan

15.

The objective to interpret lab values is targeted at which disorder?

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Leukemia

c)

Anemia

d)

DIC

16.

Which clinical practice objective occurs before and after a diagnostic procedure?

a)

Outcome writing for nursing diagnoses

b)

Preprocedure and postprocedure care for bone marrow aspiration

c)

Assessment for suspected hematologic disorder

d)

Assist with leukemia care plan

17.

What is the educational emphasis for patients with hemophilia in the theory objectives?

a)

Summarize problems and treatments patients face

b)

Interpret CBC values

c)

Prepare for bone marrow biopsy

d)

Plan post-splenectomy care

18.

Which objective is most aligned with identifying cellular differences between two proliferative disorders?

a)

Interpret leukemia labs

b)

Compare cell abnormalities of polycythemia vera with those of leukemia

c)

Assess for DIC signs

d)

Develop anemia care plan

19.

Which practice objective centers on recognizing clinical manifestations of a coagulation emergency?

a)

Assess for signs and symptoms of DIC

b)

Explain sickle cell pathophysiology

c)

Formulate leukemia teaching plan

d)

Write expected outcomes

20.

What is the primary action described for suspected hematologic disorders in clinical practice?

a)

Immediate transfusion

b)

Perform an assessment

c)

Initiate chemotherapy

d)

Order imaging

21.

Which topic is introduced as a subset of disorders affecting red blood cells in this section?

a)

Leukemias

b)

Anemias

c)

Coagulation disorders

d)

Platelet function disorders

e)

Lymphomas

22.

At the start of a unit on red blood cell disorders, which focus best aligns with an overview of conditions characterized by decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood due to reduced red cell mass or hemoglobin?

a)

Coagulation pathway defects

b)

Anemias

c)

Autoimmune thrombocytopenia

d)

Hyperlipidemia

e)

Bone fractures

23.

Which of the following is listed as a risk factor for developing anemia?

a)

Low physical activity

b)

Acute or chronic blood loss

c)

Excessive hydration

d)

High dietary iron intake

24.

A patient with rapid metabolic activity is at increased risk for anemia primarily because it can lead to which of the following?

a)

Reduced need for oxygen

b)

Increased demand for red blood cell production

c)

Enhanced vitamin B12 storage

d)

Decreased hemoglobin turnover

25.

Which statement best describes one etiologic category of anemia presented: 'Anemia resulting from a failure in blood cell production'?

a)

It is caused by acute blood loss only

b)

It involves a deficiency of necessary components for erythropoiesis

c)

It results exclusively from autoimmune hemolysis

d)

It is due to excessive hydration of red cells

26.

Increased hemolysis as a risk factor is most directly linked to which etiologic type of anemia?

a)

Anemia resulting from blood loss

b)

Anemia associated with excessive destruction of red blood cells

c)

Anemia resulting from failure in blood cell production

d)

Anemia due to iron overload

27.

Which scenario aligns with the risk factor of inadequate dietary intake or malabsorption?

a)

Deficiency of necessary components leading to impaired blood cell production

b)

Acute trauma causing external bleeding

c)

Age-related increase in blood volume

d)

Excessive destruction of mature red blood cells

28.

According to the diagram titled "Pathophysiology of Anemia," which primary changes directly lead to a decreased oxygen-carrying ability of blood?

a)

Increased blood loss, increased RBC destruction, decreased RBC production

b)

Decreased blood loss, increased RBC production, decreased RBC destruction

c)

Increased blood pressure, increased heart rate, decreased plasma volume

d)

Decreased hematocrit, increased platelet count, decreased white blood cells

29.

In the flowchart, what is the immediate physiological consequence of decreased oxygen-carrying ability of blood?

a)

Tissue hypoxia

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Hypercapnia

d)

Hypertension

30.

Which set lists signs and symptoms specifically associated with the pathophysiology shown in the diagram?

a)

Pallor, fatigue, headache, dizziness, faintness

b)

Fever, rash, jaundice, pruritus, edema

c)

Chest pain, hemoptysis, cyanosis, clubbing

d)

Polyuria, polydipsia, weight gain, tremor

31.

A patient develops anemia due to decreased red blood cell (RBC) production. Based on the diagram, which reasoning best explains the patient’s dizziness?

a)

Reduced RBC production lowers oxygen-carrying capacity, causing tissue hypoxia that manifests as dizziness

b)

Reduced RBC production increases blood viscosity, leading to decreased cerebral perfusion

c)

Reduced RBC production triggers leukocyte proliferation, which directly causes vertigo

d)

Reduced RBC production elevates plasma glucose, resulting in neuroglycopenia and dizziness

32.

Which symptom is commonly present in mild anemia according to the expected findings?

a)

Palpitations with chest pain

b)

Little to no manifestations

c)

Retinal hemorrhage

d)

Orthopnea at rest

33.

A patient with anemia reports shortness of breath and fatigue, especially upon exertion. Which body system category best fits these findings?

a)

Neurologic

b)

Respiratory

c)

Gastrointestinal

d)

Musculoskeletal

34.

Which skin-related manifestation of anemia is specifically noted among the expected findings?

a)

Blue sclera

b)

Spoon-shaped nail bed deformities

c)

Smooth tongue

d)

Jaundice only

35.

In severe anemia, which cardiovascular sign is listed that indicates increased workload on the heart?

a)

Retinal hemorrhage

b)

Angina with systolic murmur

c)

Glosstitis

d)

Cold intolerance

36.

Which neurologic symptom appears in both general expected findings and the severe anemia table?

a)

Pruritus

b)

Impaired vision

c)

Irritability

d)

Orthopnea

37.

A patient presents with pallor of nail beds and mucous membranes along with tachycardia and palpitations. Based on the material, these findings most likely indicate:

a)

Mild anemia only

b)

Respiratory infection

c)

Anemia with cardiovascular involvement

d)

Musculoskeletal disorder

38.

Which respiratory sign is specifically associated with severe anemia rather than the general expected findings list?

a)

Dyspnea on exertion

b)

Tachypnea and orthopnea with dyspnea at rest

c)

Sensitivity to cold

d)

Somnolence

39.

The image shows thin, concave, spoon-shaped nails with raised edges. Which term best describes this nail deformity commonly associated with anemia?

a)

Clubbing

b)

Koilonychia

c)

Beau’s lines

d)

Onycholysis

40.

A patient presents with thin, concave nails that have raised edges, as depicted. Which initial assessment action best applies the concept of linking physical signs to systemic conditions?

a)

Reassure the patient that nail shape is a cosmetic variant

b)

Assess for anemia as a potential underlying cause

c)

Diagnose fungal onychomycosis and start antifungals

d)

Schedule immediate nail matrix biopsy

41.

Which RBC index pattern is characteristic of microcytic, hypochromic anemia?

a)

Normal MCV, MCH, MCHC

b)

Decreased MCV, MCH, MCHC

c)

Increased MCV only

d)

Increased MCHC only

42.

A patient presents with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. Which underlying cause is most consistent with this RBC index classification?

a)

Acute blood loss

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia (late detection)

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

Chronic blood loss

43.

Normocytic, normochromic anemia with normal MCV, MCH, and MCHC is MOST likely associated with which scenario?

a)

Thalassemia

b)

Chronic illness such as kidney disease, sepsis, or tumor

c)

Folic acid deficiency

d)

Chemotherapy

44.

Which condition is linked to decreased MCV, MCH, and MCHC?

a)

Thyroid gland dysfunction

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia (late detection)

c)

Aplastic anemia

d)

Acute blood loss

45.

Anemia due to folic acid deficiency typically shows which RBC index classification?

a)

Normocytic, normochromic

b)

Microcytic, hypochromic

c)

Macrocytic, normochromic

d)

Hyperchromic, normocytic

46.

Which general principle guides the management of anemia?

a)

Treat the underlying cause

b)

Increase fluid intake only

c)

Avoid all medications

d)

Provide bed rest for one week

47.

Treatment decisions for anemia should be based on which factor?

a)

Patient age

b)

Type of anemia

c)

Time of day

d)

Patient height

48.

Which medication is an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent used in anemia management?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)

c)

Warfarin

d)

Atorvastatin

49.

When a patient is taking epoetin alfa, which monitoring is specifically recommended?

a)

Serum potassium daily

b)

Blood pressure monitoring

c)

Liver enzymes monthly

d)

Blood glucose hourly

50.

How frequently should Hgb and Hct be checked for patients on epoetin alfa, according to the guidance?

a)

Once a month

b)

Daily

c)

Twice a week

d)

Every other week

51.

Rapid increases in hemoglobin (about 1 g/dL in 2 weeks) while on epoetin alfa warrant which action?

a)

Stop all fluids

b)

Monitor cardiovascular status

c)

Increase iron supplementation without monitoring

d)

Switch to anticoagulants

52.

Which complication can develop due to low hematocrit reducing oxygen delivery to tissues?

a)

Kidney failure

b)

Heart failure

c)

Liver cirrhosis

d)

Stroke

53.

Low Hct makes the heart work harder, often leading to which findings?

a)

Bradycardia and hypotension

b)

Tachycardia and palpitations

c)

Hyperglycemia and polyuria

d)

Hypothermia and shivering

54.

Which nursing action is appropriate when managing anemia-related cardiac strain?

a)

Restrict oxygen delivery

b)

Monitor cardiac rhythm

c)

Avoid weighing the client

d)

Withhold prescribed anti-anemia medications

55.

Which medication category may be administered as prescribed to address heart failure risk in anemic clients?

a)

Antivirals

b)

Diuretics and antidysrhythmics

c)

Insulin analogs

d)

Anticoagulants only

56.

Which health promotion advice is correct for clients who are pregnant or menstruating regarding iron?

a)

Avoid iron-rich foods to prevent constipation

b)

Ensure adequate iron-rich foods or take an iron supplement

c)

Limit dietary iron to once weekly

d)

Focus only on calcium intake

57.

Iron-deficient individuals with elevated cholesterol should integrate which foods into their diet?

a)

Red or organ meats only

b)

Iron-fortified cereal and breads, fish, poultry, dried peas and beans

c)

Sugary snacks and juices

d)

High-sodium processed meats

58.

Clients should regularly consume foods high in folate. Which is a recommended option?

a)

White rice

b)

Spinach, lentils, bananas

c)

Whole milk

d)

Fried potatoes

59.

Which condition directly results from rapid, severe bleeding leading to decreased circulating blood volume?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypovolemia

c)

Hypervolemia

d)

Polycythemia

60.

At approximately what percentage of acute blood volume loss are there typically no clinical signs or symptoms at rest?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

30%

61.

Which clinical manifestation is most consistent with about 20% acute blood loss?

a)

Shock and potential death

b)

Below-normal blood pressure at rest with thready pulse

c)

No symptoms at rest; slight postural hypotension when standing; tachycardia with exercise

d)

Normal blood pressure and pulse when supine; postural hypotension and tachycardia with exercise

62.

A patient with about 30% acute blood loss is supine. Which finding is expected based on the instructional material?

a)

Below-normal blood pressure and thready pulse at rest

b)

Blood pressure and pulse normal when supine

c)

No symptoms at rest

d)

Shock

63.

Which set of findings best corresponds to roughly 40% acute blood loss?

a)

Normal supine vitals; tachycardia only with exercise

b)

No symptoms at rest

c)

Shock and potential death

d)

Below-normal blood pressure, decreased central venous pressure and cardiac output at rest; rapid, thready pulse; cold, clammy skin

64.

Massive hemorrhage from severe trauma primarily raises the risk of which outcome if not promptly managed?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Shock

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

65.

Which statement best differentiates gradual blood loss from rapid, severe bleeding in terms of immediate clinical impact?

a)

Gradual blood loss more commonly causes immediate shock

b)

Rapid bleeding is less likely to cause hypovolemia

c)

Gradual blood loss may present with fewer acute signs initially compared with rapid bleeding

d)

Both cause the same acute manifestations

66.

Initial treatment priorities for anemia due to acute blood loss most directly target which problem?

a)

Eradicating bone marrow suppression

b)

Correcting hypovolemia to prevent shock

c)

Reducing platelet count

d)

Lowering hemoglobin concentration

67.

Which category best describes anemias resulting from insufficient formation of blood cells?

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Failure in cell production anemia

c)

Post-hemorrhagic anemia

d)

Autoimmune anemia

68.

Nutritional anemia in the context of failure in cell production is most directly associated with deficiencies in which of the following?

a)

Vitamin C and calcium

b)

Protein, folic acid, and iron

c)

Sodium and potassium

d)

Vitamin D and magnesium

69.

Megaloblastic (pernicious) anemia in this overview is linked to a problem with which process?

a)

B12 absorption

b)

Iron excretion

c)

Platelet aggregation

d)

Oxygen binding to hemoglobin

70.

Bone marrow suppression leads to anemia primarily because it reduces the production of which cells?

a)

Neurons

b)

Hepatocytes

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Epithelial cells

71.

In end-stage renal disease (ESRD), anemia arises largely due to decreased production of which hormone?

a)

Insulin

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Cortisol

72.

Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Excess iron increases erythropoiesis and hemoglobin formation

b)

Total body iron is insufficient, diminishing erythropoiesis and impeding hemoglobin formation

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to macrocytosis and elevated hemoglobin

d)

Autoimmune destruction of leukocytes results in hypochromia

73.

Iron deficiency primarily impedes the formation of which molecule essential for oxygen transport?

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Albumin

c)

Hemoglobin (Hb)

d)

Fibrinogen

74.

Which diagnostic pattern is most characteristic of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Normochromic, macrocytic anemia with high iron levels

b)

Hypochromic, microcytic anemia with low iron levels

c)

Hyperchromic, microcytic anemia with normal iron levels

d)

Hypochromic, macrocytic anemia with high iron levels

75.

Which of the following is listed as a common cause of iron deficiency anemia beyond insufficient diet?

a)

Hyperabsorption of iron

b)

Blood loss

c)

Excess erythropoietin

d)

Viral infection

76.

According to the material, iron deficiency anemia is:

a)

A rare hematologic condition

b)

The most common type of anemia

c)

Primarily caused by autoimmune hemolysis

d)

Only diagnosed by bone marrow biopsy

77.

Which treatment approach is recommended for iron deficiency anemia?

a)

High-protein diet alone

b)

Vitamin C supplements only

c)

Dietary changes and iron supplements

d)

Leukocyte transfusions

78.

Which statement about signs and symptoms (S/S) of iron deficiency anemia is accurate based on the content?

a)

They are unique and distinct from other anemias

b)

They are the same as general anemia

c)

They always include jaundice and splenomegaly

d)

They are unrelated to oxygen-carrying capacity

79.

Which food is specifically identified as a high-iron organ meat in the list?

a)

Lean beef

b)

Beef liver

c)

Turkey

d)

Whole grains

80.

A patient with iron-deficiency anemia prefers plant-based options. Which choice from the list provides a vegetarian source of iron?

a)

Chicken liver

b)

Kidney beans

c)

Cooked shrimp

d)

Turkey

81.

You are designing a breakfast to improve iron intake. Which option best aligns with the list of iron-rich foods?

a)

Yogurt and berries

b)

Cooked oatmeal with raisins

c)

White rice and cucumber

d)

Orange juice and banana

82.

To increase both dietary iron and fiber for a patient, which listed item is the most appropriate selection?

a)

Whole grains

b)

Egg yolks

c)

Cooked shrimp

d)

Turkey

83.

Which statement best explains why folic acid deficiency can lead to anemia?

a)

Folic acid is required for DNA synthesis needed for red blood cell production

b)

Folic acid directly carries oxygen in the bloodstream

c)

Folic acid increases blood viscosity to prevent bleeding

d)

Folic acid is the primary component of hemoglobin

84.

Which of the following is a common cause of folic acid anemia listed in the material?

a)

Excess sunlight exposure

b)

Poor diet

c)

High calcium intake

d)

Viral infection

85.

A patient taking a medication that interferes with folic acid absorption presents with anemia. Based on the material, which implementation strategy is most appropriate to address the deficiency?

a)

Increase fluid intake

b)

Increase dietary intake of iron

c)

Begin folic acid supplements

d)

Reduce physical activity

86.

Which option identifies a mechanism linked to RBC production described in the material?

a)

Protein folding in the endoplasmic reticulum

b)

DNA synthesis requiring folic acid

c)

Lipid metabolism in mitochondria

d)

Electrolyte transport across membranes

87.

Select the food that is specifically listed as high in folic acid.

a)

White rice

b)

Brussels sprouts

c)

Chicken breast

d)

Apples

88.

A patient with malabsorption is at risk for folic acid anemia. Which diet plan from the options would best increase folic acid intake according to the material?

a)

Apples and white bread

b)

Cucumber and plain yogurt

c)

Asparagus, legumes (kidney beans), and whole grains

d)

Iceberg lettuce and soda

89.

Which mechanism most directly leads to pernicious anemia by preventing intrinsic factor production?

a)

Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells

b)

Iron deficiency from chronic blood loss

c)

Folate deficiency due to alcohol use

d)

Hemolysis from sickle cell disease

90.

A patient with a history of total gastrectomy is at highest risk for which deficiency related to pernicious anemia?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Iron

d)

Vitamin D

91.

Which long-term medication use can contribute to pernicious anemia by suppressing gastric juices?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

H2 inhibitors or proton pump inhibitors (PPI)

c)

Diuretics

d)

Statins

92.

Which surgical procedure listed is associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency due to decreased intrinsic factor availability?

a)

Appendectomy

b)

Bariatric surgery

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

Hernia repair

93.

Identify the specific sign most characteristic of pernicious anemia involving the tongue.

a)

White coated tongue

b)

Tongue sore, smooth, red ("beefy")

c)

Fissured tongue with ulcers

d)

Bluish discoloration of tongue

94.

Which neurologic manifestation is specifically noted in pernicious anemia?

a)

Photophobia

b)

Loss of sense of body position

c)

Hyperreflexia without sensory changes

d)

Facial paralysis

95.

A patient reports tingling of hands and feet with an insidious onset and a yellowish tint to the skin. Which condition best fits these findings?

a)

Pernicious anemia

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Thalassemia

d)

Vitamin K deficiency

96.

Which oral health issue may present in pernicious anemia?

a)

Caries due to enamel hypoplasia

b)

Infection around gums

c)

Leukoplakia

d)

Angular cheilitis only

97.

First-line replacement therapy for pernicious anemia focuses on which intervention?

a)

High-dose oral folate

b)

Vitamin B12 injections or sublingual vitamin B12

c)

Iron infusions

d)

Erythropoietin injections

98.

Dietary management for pernicious anemia should emphasize which approach?

a)

Low-protein, high-fat diet

b)

Diet high in protein, vitamins, and minerals

c)

Ketogenic diet

d)

Strict avoidance of dairy and eggs

99.

Which dietary advice helps reduce mouth sores in patients with pernicious anemia?

a)

Increase spicy foods to boost circulation

b)

Avoid hot, acid, salty, and spicy foods

c)

Consume only cold liquids

d)

Add citrus fruits at every meal

100.

In severe cases of pernicious anemia, which supportive therapy may be indicated in addition to B12 replacement?

a)

Transfusion

b)

Chelation therapy

c)

Dialysis

d)

Plasmapheresis

101.

Which category best describes anemias resulting from accelerated red blood cell breakdown?

a)

Nutritional anemias

b)

Hemolytic anemias

c)

Anemias due to blood loss

d)

Megaloblastic anemias

102.

Which condition listed is included under hemolytic anemias in the material?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Pernicious anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Polycythemia vera

103.

A patient develops anemia after receiving incompatible blood. Based on the overview, which cause is most likely?

a)

Aplastic anemia

b)

Transfusion reactions

c)

Malaria

d)

Changes in blood chemistry

104.

Which factor from the overview is an infectious cause of red blood cell destruction leading to anemia?

a)

Toxins

b)

Immune reactions

c)

Malaria

d)

Erythroblastosis fetalis

105.

Which listed mechanism specifically involves maternal–fetal incompatibility causing RBC destruction?

a)

Thalassemia

b)

Immune reactions

c)

Erythroblastosis fetalis

d)

Toxins

106.

Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of aplastic anemia?

a)

Deficiency of circulating cells due to decreased development in bone marrow

b)

Excess production of red blood cells leading to hyperviscosity

c)

Autoimmune destruction of mature erythrocytes only

d)

Iron deficiency causing microcytic anemia

107.

Aplastic anemia is characterized by which hallmark clinical finding?

a)

Leukocytosis

b)

Erythrocytosis

c)

Pancytopenia

d)

Thrombocytosis

108.

Which factor is noted as a contributing cause to bone marrow failure in aplastic anemia?

a)

Acute exposure to vitamin C

b)

Chronic exposure to myelotoxic agents

c)

Deficiency of folate only

d)

High-altitude hypoxia

109.

In aplastic anemia, what change occurs in the bone marrow?

a)

Bone marrow increases production of all cell lines

b)

Bone marrow decreases or stops functioning

c)

Bone marrow selectively produces platelets

d)

Bone marrow becomes fibrotic and increases megakaryocytes

110.

Which implementation strategy directly addresses severe cytopenias in aplastic anemia by immediately increasing circulating cells?

a)

Transfusion

b)

Immunosuppressive therapy

c)

Splenectomy

d)

Vitamin B12 supplementation

111.

Which treatment aims to restore hematopoiesis by replacing dysfunctional marrow in aplastic anemia?

a)

Iron chelation therapy

b)

Bone marrow transplant

c)

Antibiotic prophylaxis

d)

Erythropoietin injections

112.

Which management approach targets immune-mediated suppression of hematopoietic stem cells in aplastic anemia?

a)

Transfusion

b)

Splenectomy

c)

Immunosuppressive therapy

d)

Plasmapheresis