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Science | Q2 Study Guide

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ____________________ model is a simple theory that explains all the matter in the universe and its interactions.

a)
Standard Model
b)
String Theory
c)
Relativity Model
d)
Quantum Model
2.

Which of these are types of quarks?

a)
electron
b)
neutron
c)
photon
d)
up, down, charm, strange, top, bottom
3.

T or F: Atoms are the smallest fundamental particles

a)
F
b)

T

4.

T or F: According to the standard model, all known matter consists of quarks and leptons that interact by exchanging bosons, which transmit fundamental forces.

a)
T
b)
F
5.

Which scientist is credited with discovering the atom?

a)
Albert Einstein
b)
John Dalton
c)
Niels Bohr
d)
Marie Curie
6.

What is the standard model? In what ways is it incomplete?

a)
The Standard Model only describes the behavior of electrons and protons.
b)
The Standard Model is a complete theory of all forces in nature.
c)
The Standard Model includes gravity and dark energy.
d)
The Standard Model is a theory in particle physics that describes fundamental particles and their interactions, but it is incomplete as it does not include gravity, dark matter, or dark energy.
7.

Which of these is a fundamental force carrying particle?

a)
electron
b)
neutrino
c)

gluon

d)
proton
8.

What keeps the nucleus of an atom together?

a)
Electromagnetic force
b)
Gravitational force
c)
Weak nuclear force
d)
The strong nuclear force.
9.

An atom becomes radioactive when it's nucleus becomes unstable. This happens because:

a)
The nucleus becomes unstable due to an imbalance of protons and neutrons.
b)
Radioactivity is caused by external radiation exposure.
c)
An atom becomes radioactive when it gains energy from heat.
d)
The nucleus becomes unstable due to excess electrons.
10.

True or False. Both protons and neutrons consist of one up quark and two down quarks.

a)

True

b)
False
11.

Fill in the blank(s): 


When protons change to neutrons, this changes atoms of one ____________________ to atoms of another with different atomic properties.

a)
isotope
b)
molecule
c)
compound
d)
element
12.

True or False: An up quark in a proton is changed by the weak force to a down quark. This changes the proton (uud) to a neutron (udd).

a)
False
b)
True
13.

Which subatomic particles are affected by electromagnetic force?

a)
Neutrons and electrons are affected by electromagnetic force.
b)
Electrons and protons are affected by electromagnetic force.
c)
Electrons and positrons are unaffected by electromagnetic force.
d)
Protons and neutrons are affected by gravitational force.
14.

Fill in the blank(s): 


The number of protons in a nucleus is called the ____________________ number and designated by the symbol Z.

a)
charge
b)
mass
c)
atomic
d)
neutron
15.

Fill in the blank(s): 


Each different isotope has the same number of ____________________ and a different number of ____________________.

a)
neutrons; electrons
b)
protons; neutrons
c)
protons; ions
d)
protons; electrons
16.

Find the nuclear reaction for the helium-3 produced by beta (-) decay of a certain nuclide.

a)
3H -> 2He + e- + ν̅e
b)
3H -> 4He + e- + ν̅e
c)
3H -> 3He + e- + ν̅e
d)
3H -> 3He + e+ + νe
17.

The nuclear reaction is 

for Calcium-45 undergoing alpha decay.

a)
45Ca → 4He + 40Ar
b)
45Ca → 4He + 41Ar
c)
45Ca → 4He + 42K
d)
45Ca → 4He + 41Ca
18.

What element is formed by the alpha decay of bismuth-211?

a)
Thallium (Tl)
b)
Bismuth (Bi)
c)
Lead (Pb)
d)
Polonium (Po)
19.

What element is formed by the beta (-) decay of sodium-24?

a)
Sodium-23
b)
Aluminum-24
c)
Potassium-24
d)
Magnesium-24
20.

Why are alpha particles easier to stop by materials than beta particles?

a)
Alpha particles are easier to stop by materials than beta particles because they are heavier and more charged, leading to more interactions with matter.
b)
Alpha particles can penetrate deeper into materials than beta particles.
c)
Beta particles have a higher mass than alpha particles.
d)
Alpha particles are lighter and less charged than beta particles.
21.

Who was Marie Curie, and what were her contributions to Physics/Chemistry?

a)
Marie Curie was a famous artist known for her paintings.
b)
Marie Curie was a physicist and chemist who discovered polonium and radium, and won Nobel Prizes in Physics and Chemistry.
c)
Marie Curie was a mathematician who focused on calculus.
d)
Marie Curie invented the first atomic bomb.
22.

U-235 nuclei split when struck by _______.

a)
electrons
b)
neutrons
c)
protons
d)
photons
23.

Which one of these statements is true about the moderator and the control rods in a nuclear power station?

a)
The moderator slows down neutrons, and control rods absorb them.
b)
The moderator and control rods both slow down neutrons.
c)
Control rods increase the speed of neutrons, while the moderator has no effect.
d)
The moderator absorbs neutrons, and control rods slow them down.
24.

Nuclear power plants produce electricity through _____.

a)

induced nuclear fission

b)
geothermal heat
c)
solar energy
d)
nuclear fusion
25.

The distance a wave travels in a given amount of time is called wave ____________________.

a)
speed
b)
frequency
c)
amplitude
d)
wavelength
26.

If an ocean wave has a frequency of 2 Hz and a speed of 4 m/s, then what is its wavelength?

a)
1 m
b)
3 m
c)
5 m
d)
2 m
27.

True or False: Waves generally travel fastest through gases and slowest through solids.

a)
False
b)

True

28.

What is the term for the distance between corresponding points of adjacent waves?

a)
frequency
b)
amplitude
c)
phase shift
d)
wavelength
29.

Wavelengths of electromagnetic waves range from longer than a soccer field to shorter than the diameter of an atom

a)
Wavelengths of sound waves range from longer than a soccer field to shorter than a human hair.
b)
Wavelengths of electromagnetic waves range from shorter than a soccer field to longer than a mountain.
c)
Wavelengths of electromagnetic waves range from longer than a football field to shorter than a grain of sand.
d)
Wavelengths of electromagnetic waves range from longer than a soccer field to shorter than the diameter of an atom.
30.

Which rays are used to study the structure of atomic nuclei and treat cancer cells?

a)
Gamma rays and X-rays
b)
Neutron rays and electron beams
c)
Ultraviolet rays and infrared rays
d)
Alpha rays and beta particles
31.

____________________ rays are the most dangerous of all electromagnetic waves because they have the highest frequencies and greatest energy.

a)
X-rays
b)
Ultraviolet rays
c)
Infrared rays
d)
Gamma rays
32.

Ultraviolet light has more energy than visible light.

a)
True
b)
False
33.

Which electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelengths?

a)
Infrared waves
b)
Radio waves
c)
Microwaves
d)
Ultraviolet waves
34.

Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?

a)
Red
b)
Blue
c)
Yellow
d)
Green
35.

At the time of the Big Bang…

a)
The universe was completely dark and empty.
b)
The universe was in an extremely hot and dense state.
c)
The universe was a cold and lifeless void.
d)
The universe was filled with solid matter only.
36.

About how many billion years ago did the Big Bang occur?

a)
10 billion years ago
b)
15 billion years ago
c)
13.8 billion years ago
d)
20 billion years ago
37.

The Milky Way galaxy is about the same age as the universe.

a)
True
b)
False
38.

In the early universe, matter was held together by which force?

a)
Electromagnetic force
b)
Nuclear force
c)
Gravitational force
d)
Frictional force
39.

Which of the following gasses are the most abundant in the Universe?

a)
Oxygen and nitrogen
b)
Hydrogen and helium
c)
Neon and argon
d)
Carbon dioxide and methane
40.

Describe the conditions in the universe at the time of the big bang.

a)
The universe was stable, with matter evenly distributed and no energy fluctuations.
b)
The universe was extremely hot, dense, and filled with energy, undergoing rapid expansion.
c)
The universe was filled with dark matter, slowly collapsing into stars and galaxies.
d)
The universe was cold, empty, and static, with no significant events occurring.
41.

What evidence is there that the Universe began in a big bang?

a)
The Universe began in a big bang, supported by cosmic microwave background radiation, redshift of galaxies, and light element abundance.
b)
The Universe is filled with dark matter, which proves it has always existed.
c)
Galaxies are moving closer together, indicating a stable Universe.
d)
The Universe is static and unchanging, with no evidence of a beginning.
42.

A small- to mid-sized star that has collapsed is known as a _____.

a)
red giant
b)
white dwarf
c)
black hole
d)
neutron star
43.

T or F: When inward force is equal to outward force, a star collapses.

a)
T
b)
F
44.

According to the scientists, the Sun will become a red giant in approximately _____.

a)
5 billion years
b)
1 trillion years
c)
10 million years
d)
3 billion years
45.

T or F: A black hole is a remnant of a supernova.

a)
T
b)
F
46.

A star stays on the main sequence as long as…

a)
it is fusing hydrogen into helium in its core
b)
it is burning carbon in its core
c)
it has exhausted all its helium reserves
d)
it is converting iron into energy in its core
47.

The Sun formed about _____ billion years ago, as the solar system coalesced from a cloud of gas and dust.

a)
6.0
b)
5.1
c)
3.2
d)
4.6
48.

Which of the following explains the life cycle of a large star?

a)
The life cycle of a large star includes: protostar, main sequence, red supergiant, supernova, and neutron star or black hole.
b)
The life cycle of a large star consists of: nebula, main sequence, red supergiant, black hole, and pulsar.
c)
The life cycle of a large star includes: protostar, main sequence, red giant, planetary nebula, and white dwarf.
d)
The life cycle of a large star features: protostar, main sequence, blue giant, supernova, and brown dwarf.
49.

What color stars have the highest surface temperature?

a)
Red stars
b)
Yellow stars
c)
White stars
d)
Blue stars
50.

What is the color of the stars with the lowest surface temperature?

a)
White
b)
Red
c)
Blue
d)
Yellow
51.

Most of the stars on the HR Diagram are classified as what type of stars?

a)
main sequence stars
b)
neutron stars
c)
white dwarf stars
d)
red giant stars
52.

Why are White Dwarfs so dim even though they are so hot?

a)
White dwarfs shine brightly because they are very young stars.
b)
White dwarfs are dim because their small size limits their total luminosity, despite their high temperatures.
c)
White dwarfs are bright due to their massive size and high temperatures.
d)
White dwarfs are dim because they are far away from Earth despite their heat.
53.

As a star moves to the right on the HR diagram, it is becoming hotter.

a)
False
b)
True
54.

Where does our sun falls on the HR Diagram?

a)
The Sun is located in the red giant region of the HR Diagram.
b)
The Sun falls in the white dwarf section of the HR Diagram.
c)
The Sun is classified as a blue supergiant on the HR Diagram.
d)

The Sun falls in the main-sequence region of the HR Diagram.

55.

Hubble’s Law states that...

a)
The universe is expanding, with galaxies moving away faster the farther they are.
b)
The universe is static, with galaxies remaining in fixed positions.
c)
Galaxies are moving closer together over time, indicating contraction.
d)
The universe is shrinking, with galaxies moving towards a central point.
56.

When a light source moves away from us, what is the consequent stretching out of wavelengths known as?

a)
Wavelength compression
b)
Blueshift
c)
Frequency shift
d)
Redshift
57.

As the universe expands it is the __________ that is expanding.

a)
energy
b)
space
c)
time
d)
matter
58.

Which of the following is considered the basic unit of life?

a)
Cell
b)
Organism
c)
Organ
d)
Tissue
59.

Homeostasis refers to an organism’s ability to:

a)
adapt to external changes
b)
increase metabolic rate
c)
reduce energy consumption
d)
maintain a stable internal environment
60.

Which characteristic of life involves taking in energy and using it to carry out chemical reactions?

a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Digestion
c)
Respiration
d)
Metabolism
61.

The ability of organisms to pass on traits to their offspring describes:

a)

Reproduction

b)
Evolution
c)
Adaptation
d)

Movement

62.

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of living things?

a)
Being inanimate
b)
Being a microorganism
c)
Being a mammal
d)
Being a plant
63.

Growth in living organisms refers to:

a)
Decrease in size and mass of cells.
b)
Stagnation in growth and development.
c)
Reduction in the number of cells present.
d)
Increase in size, mass, and number of cells.
64.

Complex chemistry means that living things:

a)
are made of simple compounds and perform basic functions.
b)
are solely based on inorganic materials and lack complexity.
c)
are limited to basic chemical reactions and do not evolve.
d)
are composed of complex molecules and engage in intricate biochemical processes.
65.

Which scenario best illustrates homeostasis?

a)
A plant absorbing sunlight for growth.
b)
A human body regulating its temperature.
c)
A car maintaining its speed on the highway.
d)
A computer cooling down after heavy use.
66.

Evolution is defined as:

a)
Evolution is the process of creating new species from existing ones.
b)
Evolution refers to the adaptation of individuals to their environment.
c)
Evolution is the study of the behavior of living organisms over time.
d)
Evolution is defined as the change in the heritable characteristics of biological populations over successive generations.
67.

Evolution occurs mainly through:

a)
genetic drift
b)
mutation rates
c)
natural selection
d)
environmental factors
68.

Cell theory states that new cells come from:

a)
Random cell division
b)
Spontaneous generation
c)
Cellular fusion
d)
Pre-existing cells
69.

Gene theory states that genes are made of:

a)
RNA
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
DNA
70.

An adaptation is best described as:

a)
An ability that hinders adaptation to changing climates.
b)
A trait that reduces the chances of reproduction in nature.
c)
A feature that limits growth in a competitive environment.
d)
A characteristic that enhances survival and reproduction in a specific environment.
71.

Carbon is the main element in compounds found primarily in living things, which are known as what?

a)
Biological elements
b)
Inorganic substances
c)
Organic compounds
d)
Synthetic materials
72.

Which characteristic of carbon makes it so basic and essential to all known life?

a)
Carbon's role in forming inorganic minerals.
b)
Carbon's ability to conduct electricity efficiently.
c)
Carbon's tetravalency and ability to form diverse organic compounds.
d)
Carbon's high melting point and stability.
73.

Which of the following is not one of the four major types of organic compounds?

a)
Minerals
b)
Nucleic acids
c)
Lipids
d)
Proteins
74.

Which type of organic compound includes sugars and starches?

a)
Vitamins
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Proteins
75.

Which organic compounds include DNA and RNA and contain instructions for proteins?

a)
Lipids
b)
Amino acids
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Nucleic acids
76.

Explain the chemical reason why carbon is considered the central element of life.

a)
Carbon is essential for life because it is the most abundant element on Earth.
b)
Carbon is considered the central element of life due to its ability to form stable, diverse, and complex molecules essential for biological processes.
c)
Carbon is central to life because it can only form simple molecules.
d)
Carbon's role in life is due to its high reactivity with other elements.
77.

Which structure forms a thin, flexible boundary around the cell?

a)
Cell membrane
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Nuclear membrane
d)
Cell wall
78.

What is the main function of ribosomes?

a)
Ribosomes help in cell division processes.
b)
Ribosomes are responsible for DNA replication.
c)
Ribosomes transport nutrients within the cell.
d)
The main function of ribosomes is to synthesize proteins.
79.

The cytoskeleton helps the cell by:

a)
The cytoskeleton produces energy for the cell.
b)
The cytoskeleton stores genetic information.
c)
The cytoskeleton helps the cell maintain its shape, enables movement, and organizes internal structures.
d)
The cytoskeleton transports nutrients across the membrane.
80.

Which of the following is found in every type of cell?

a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Chloroplasts
d)
Cell membrane
81.

What is the MAIN difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)
Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus; eukaryotic cells have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotic cells are smaller than prokaryotic cells in size.
c)
Prokaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles; eukaryotic cells do not.
d)
Prokaryotic cells reproduce sexually; eukaryotic cells reproduce asexually.
82.

Eukaryotic cells contain specialized structures that perform specific jobs. These are called:

a)
cells
b)
components
c)
organelles
d)
structures
83.

Prokaryotes were the first organisms to evolve and are still the most abundant. Why?

a)
Prokaryotes are the first organisms to evolve and are abundant due to their simplicity, rapid reproduction, adaptability, and diverse metabolic capabilities.
b)
Prokaryotes evolved later due to their complex structures and slow reproduction.
c)
Eukaryotes are the first organisms to evolve and are more abundant than prokaryotes.
d)
Prokaryotes are rare because they have limited metabolic capabilities and adaptability.
84.

A major advantage of having organelles in eukaryotic cells is:

a)
Enhanced ability to replicate DNA efficiently.
b)
Increased vulnerability to environmental changes.
c)
Increased efficiency and specialization of cellular functions.
d)
Reduced complexity in cellular processes.
85.

Explain what organelles are and why they are beneficial to eukaryotic cells.

a)
Organelles are simple structures that do not contribute to the complexity of eukaryotic cells.
b)
Organelles are unnecessary for eukaryotic cells and do not affect their functions.
c)
Organelles are beneficial to eukaryotic cells because they compartmentalize cellular functions, enhancing efficiency and allowing for complex processes.
d)
Organelles are harmful to eukaryotic cells by causing cellular chaos and inefficiency.
86.

Which structure is found only in plant cells?

a)
Chloroplasts
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Mitochondria
87.

The main function of the plant cell wall is to:

a)
facilitate photosynthesis
b)
regulate water intake
c)
provide structural support and protection
d)
store nutrients and energy
88.

The structure responsible for maintaining turgor pressure in a plant cell is the:

a)
chloroplast
b)
cell wall
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
89.

Describe two major differences between plant cells and animal cells.

a)
Animal cells have a cell wall; plant cells do not.
b)
Animal cells contain chloroplasts; plant cells do not.
c)
1. Plant cells have a cell wall; animal cells do not. 2. Plant cells contain chloroplasts; animal cells do not.
d)
Plant cells are smaller than animal cells in size.
90.

Explain how the central vacuole helps a plant stay upright.

a)
The central vacuole helps a plant stay upright by maintaining turgor pressure.
b)
The central vacuole produces energy for cellular functions.
c)
The central vacuole absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis.
d)
The central vacuole stores nutrients for plant growth.
91.

Explain how form and function are related in human cells.

a)
In human cells, the structure (form) is adapted to support its specific role (function), such as red blood cells maximizing oxygen transport or neurons facilitating communication.
b)
Cell function is determined solely by the size of the cell.
c)
All human cells are shaped like cubes to enhance their efficiency.
d)
Human cells have identical structures regardless of their functions.
92.

Which sequence correctly lists the levels of organization in the human body from simplest to most complex?

a)
atoms, molecules, cells, tissues, organs
b)
cells, organs, tissues, organism, organ systems
c)
molecules, cells, organ systems, tissues, organism
d)
cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism
93.

Which organ system is responsible for transporting oxygen and nutrients throughout the body?

a)
Digestive system
b)
Circulatory system
c)
Respiratory system
d)
Nervous system
94.

Which tissue type covers body surfaces and lines organs?

a)
Muscle tissue
b)
Nervous tissue
c)
Epithelial tissue
d)
Connective tissue
95.

The skeletal system’s main functions include:

a)

Support, protection, movement, blood cell production, and mineral storage

b)
Protection, movement, energy production, muscle contraction, nerve signaling.
c)
Support, hydration, temperature regulation, waste elimination, nutrient absorption.
d)
Digestion, respiration, circulation, hormone production, energy storage.
96.

Nervous tissue is essential because it:

a)
regulates blood flow and pressure
b)
enables communication and coordination in the body
c)
supports muscle contraction and movement
d)
stores energy for cellular functions
97.

Which organ system’s primary job is gas exchange?

a)
Circulatory system
b)
Nervous system
c)
Respiratory system
d)
Digestive system
98.

Explain how negative feedback helps maintain body temperature.

a)
Negative feedback increases body temperature by amplifying changes.
b)
Negative feedback has no effect on body temperature regulation.
c)
Negative feedback maintains body temperature by detecting changes and initiating responses to counteract those changes.
d)
Negative feedback only occurs during extreme temperature changes.
99.

An example of positive feedback is:

a)
Photosynthesis process
b)
Blood clotting mechanism
c)
Nerve impulse transmission
d)
Childbirth process (oxytocin release)
100.

Positive feedback differs from negative feedback because it:

a)
Positive feedback corrects errors, while negative feedback amplifies them.
b)
Positive feedback amplifies responses, while negative feedback corrects them.
c)
Positive feedback stabilizes systems, while negative feedback destabilizes them.
d)
Positive feedback reduces responses, while negative feedback enhances them.

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