wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

exam 3 respiratory

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse enters the room of a patient with COPD and notes the oxygen flow meter is set at 6 L/min by nasal cannula. Which action should the nurse take first? 

a)
Switch to a simple face mask immediately
b)

Lower flow to 2 L/min and reassess O₂ saturation 

c)
Administer a bronchodilator before adjusting oxygen
d)
Increase flow to 4 L/min and monitor heart rate
2.

The nurse hears coarse crackles in a patient’s lower lobes. Which condition is most consistent? 

a)

A. Asthma 

b)

B. Pneumonia 

c)

C. Tuberculosis 

d)

D. Pulmonary embolism

3.

A patient with strep pharyngitis reports difficulty swallowing and drooling. What is the priority? 

a)

A. Give warm fluids 

b)

B. Notify provider immediately 

c)

C. Offer throat lozenges 

d)

D. Administer antibiotics 

4.

Post-tonsillectomy, which finding requires immediate action? 

a)

A. Mild sore throat 

b)

B. Swallowing frequently 

c)

C. Complains of ear pain 

d)

D. Drowsiness after pain med 

5.

A patient with asthma suddenly stops wheezing. What should the nurse do? 

a)

A. Continue to monitor 

b)

B. Prepare for intubation 

c)

C. Give cough suppressant 

d)

D. Encourage pursed-lip breathing 

6.

Which sputum description is most concerning? 

a)

A. Clear and thin 

b)

B. Yellow and thick 

c)

C. Rust-colored 

d)

D. White/pink and frothy 

7.

Teaching a patient using an incentive spirometer: 

a)

A. Exhale quickly into mouthpiece 

b)

B. Inhale slowly and deeply 

c)

C. Blow forcefully until ball rises 

d)

D. Breathe rapidly several times 

8.

Which lung sound is a medical emergency? 

 

a)

A. Rhonchi 

b)

B. Wheeze 

c)

C. Stridor 

d)

D. Crackles 

9.

Which vaccine should adults ≥ 50 receive to prevent bacterial pneumonia? 

a)
Influenza vaccine
b)
Hepatitis B vaccine
c)

PCV13 and PPSV23 vaccines (pneumococcal)

d)
Tetanus vaccine
10.

Which sign differentiates bacterial from viral pharyngitis? 

a)
Swollen lymph nodes without fever.
b)

Presence of white patches(exudate) on the tonsils and high fever.

c)
Low-grade fever and no throat pain.
d)
Presence of a runny nose and cough.
11.

Priority nursing diagnosis for pneumonia: 

a)

Ineffective airway clearance

b)
Fluid overload
c)
Increased airway resistance
d)
Decreased lung compliance
12.

A patient on warfarin for PE has INR = 1.1. The nurse should: 

a)

A. Hold dose 

b)

B. Give vitamin K 

c)

C. Notify provider – subtherapeutic 

d)

D. Continue routine dose 

13.

Best position for a patient with pulmonary edema: 

a)
Standing upright
b)
Lying flat on the back
c)
Lying on the left side
d)
Sitting upright or in a high Fowler's position
14.

Post-op client refuses to use the incentive spirometer. The nurse should explain it prevents: 

select all

a)
Atelectasis
b)
Pneumonia
c)
Deep vein thrombosis
d)
Wound infection
15.

A TB patient asks why sputum specimens are needed for several mornings. 

a)
Multiple sputum specimens are needed to accurately detect TB bacteria, as they may not be present in every sample.
b)
Sputum specimens are only needed once to confirm TB.
c)
Sputum samples are collected to check for other respiratory infections.
d)
Only blood tests are required to diagnose TB.
16.

Which finding in TB is classic? 

a)
A. Chronic dry cough
b)
C. Wheezing without sputum
c)
D. Persistent fever without respiratory symptoms
d)
B. Productive cough with blood-tinged sputum
17.

A patient on long-term inhaled steroids should be taught to: 

a)
A. Use after rescue inhaler
b)
B. Continue even if feeling well
c)
D. Skip if feeling better
d)
C. Rinse mouth after use
18.

Which patient is highest priority for isolation? 

a)
C. Tuberculosis
b)
D. Cystic Fibrosis
c)
B. Lung Cancer
d)
A. Bronchitis
19.

Patient teaching for albuterol: 

a)
Use for acute wheezing; may cause jitteriness and fast heart rate.
b)
Use for long-term control of symptoms; may cause weight gain.
c)
Use for mild cough; no side effects expected.
d)
Use for chronic asthma management; may cause drowsiness.
20.

A COPD client’s O₂ saturation is 89 %. What should the nurse do? 

a)
Increase O₂ flow to high levels immediately.
b)
Administer a bronchodilator instead of O₂.
c)
Continue low-flow O₂ and document — within target range (88–92 %).
d)
Document the O₂ saturation as normal.
21.

Common early sign of hypoxia: 

a)
Dizziness or lightheadedness.
b)
Restlessness or irritability.
c)
Cyanosis or bluish skin.
d)
Increased heart rate or palpitations.
22.

Which finding indicates improvement in pneumonia? 

a)
O₂ sat > 95 %, decreased sputum production, clear breath sounds.
b)
wheezing breath sounds
c)
increased sputum production
d)
O₂ sat < 90 %
23.

Best diet for COPD patient: 

a)
Low-calorie, low-protein, large meals
b)
High-sugar, high-fat snacks
c)
Irregular meal timings with minimal intake
d)
High-calorie, high-protein, small frequent meals.
24.

Patient using nasal decongestant spray for > 5 days complains of worse congestion. 

a)
Allergic reaction to the spray
b)
Rebound congestion — stop use gradually.
c)
Sinus infection worsening
d)
Nasal polyps causing blockage
25.

A patient with influenza should remain home until: 

a)
Fever-free for 12 hours without medication.
b)
Symptom-free for 48 hours.
c)
Fever-free 24 hours without antipyretics.
d)
Only after a doctor's approval.
26.

Lung sound described as “snoring, gurgling”: 

a)
Wheezing — narrowed airways.
b)
Stridor — upper airway obstruction.
c)
Crackles — fluid in alveoli.
d)
Rhonchi — air through mucus.
27.

Chronic bronchitis hallmark symptom: 

a)
Productive cough lasting ≥ 3 months in 2 consecutive years.
b)
Wheezing only during the night
c)
Shortness of breath during exercise
d)
Dry cough lasting less than 3 months
28.

Emphysema patients often appear: 

a)
Overweight with a rounded abdomen and shallow breathing.
b)
Short and stocky with rapid breathing and a blue tint.
c)
Thin, barrel-chested, with pursed-lip breathing (“pink puffer”).
d)
Tall and muscular with deep, rhythmic breathing.
29.

Purpose of pursed-lip breathing: 

a)
Promotes rapid inhalation, limits airway expansion.
b)
Enhances oxygen intake, decreases carbon dioxide removal.
c)
Increases air trapping, reduces exhalation efficiency.
d)
Keeps airways open longer, prevents air trapping, aids exhalation.
30.

Which lab test confirms a PE? 

a)
Normal D-dimer levels
b)
Elevated D-dimer (follow with CT/VQ scan).
c)
Chest X-ray
d)
Ultrasound of the leg
31.

Patient on rifampin should be warned that: 

a)
Tears may cause eye irritation — should consult a doctor.
b)
Sweat may emit a strong odor — requires medical attention.
c)
Urine, sweat, tears may turn orange — harmless but stains clothing.
d)
Urine may turn blue — indicates a serious condition.
32.

Which symptom most concerning for laryngeal cancer? 

a)
Sore throat lasting less than a week.
b)
Occasional cough without other symptoms.
c)
Difficulty swallowing for a few days.
d)
Persistent hoarseness > 2 weeks.
33.

Sinusitis pain worsens when bending forward because: 

a)
Pressure increases in blocked sinus cavities.
b)
Sinus pain is unrelated to head position.
c)
Bending forward relieves sinus pressure.
d)
Sinusitis pain is caused by allergies.
34.

Common complication of untreated strep throat: 

a)
Scarlet fever (skin rash)
b)
Chronic sinusitis (long-term sinus infection)
c)
Otitis media (ear infection)
d)
Rheumatic fever (can damage heart valves).
35.

Flu prevention teaching: 

a)
Get annual vaccine; practice hand hygiene; avoid crowds.
b)
Rely on herbal remedies; get vaccinated every five years; avoid handwashing.
c)
Only wash hands after eating; avoid flu shots; gather in large groups.
d)
Take antibiotics regularly; skip vaccinations; ignore hygiene practices.
36.

“Pink frothy sputum” means: 

a)
Congestive heart failure — administer morphine.
b)
Asthma attack — give albuterol inhaler.
c)
Pulmonary edema — sit up and give Lasix IV.
d)
Pneumonia — start antibiotics immediately.
37.

Early postoperative respiratory complication: 

a)
Atelectasis due to shallow breathing.
b)
Pneumonia from infection.
c)
Pulmonary embolism from blood clots.
d)
Bronchospasm due to anesthesia.
38.

Priority action for patient with stridor after eating seafood: 

a)
Encourage the patient to drink water.
b)
Administer antihistamines immediately.
c)
Call rapid response — possible anaphylaxis airway obstruction.
d)
Observe the patient for 30 minutes.
39.

What is the normal range for arterial pH? 

a)
6.95 – 7.15
b)
7.35 – 7.45
c)
7.45 – 7.55
d)
7.25 – 7.35
40.

PaCO₂ > 45 mmHg means: 

a)
Normal respiratory function (PaCO₂ within range).
b)
Respiratory alkalosis (CO₂ loss).
c)
Respiratory acidosis (CO₂ retention).
d)
Metabolic acidosis (lactic acid buildup).
41.

ABG for COPD may show: 

a)
↑ PaCO₂, ↑ PaO₂, compensated pH (HCO₃ normal)
b)
normal PaCO₂, normal PaO₂, alkaline pH (HCO₃ normal)
c)
↑ PaCO₂, ↓ PaO₂, compensated pH (near normal with HCO₃ ↑).
d)
↓ PaCO₂, ↑ PaO₂, acidic pH (HCO₃ ↓)
42.

When teaching smoking cessation, which approach is best? 

a)
Assess readiness, educate, assist with aids, arrange follow-up.
b)
Focus solely on medication without follow-up
c)
Encourage immediate quitting without support
d)
Provide information only without assessing readiness
43.

Which sputum finding suggests TB? 

a)
Bloody streaked sputum (hemoptysis).
b)
Thick yellow sputum
c)
Foul-smelling sputum
d)
Clear sputum
44.

Which drug requires regular liver-function monitoring? 

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Isoniazid (INH)

45.

For a patient on Lasix, monitor: 

 

a)
Magnesium levels and fluid intake.
b)
Potassium levels and daily weights.
c)
Calcium levels and heart rate.
d)
Sodium levels and blood pressure.
46.

Normal respiratory rate for an adult: 

a)
8 – 12 breaths/min.
b)
12 – 20 breaths/min.
c)
5 – 10 breaths/min.
d)
20 – 30 breaths/min.
47.

Which sign indicates improvement after bronchodilator? 

a)
Worsening wheezing, increased heart rate, lower O₂ sat
b)
No change in wheezing, persistent shortness of breath, stable O₂ sat
c)
Increased coughing, difficulty breathing, decreased O₂ sat
d)
Less wheezing, easier breathing, improved O₂ sat
48.

A patient with pneumonia becomes confused. The nurse recognizes: 

a)
Early sign of hypoxia (especially in older adults).
b)
Common symptom of a cold or flu.
c)
Indication of a severe allergic reaction.
d)
Sign of dehydration in younger adults.
49.

Appropriate teaching for nasal corticosteroid: 

a)
Use daily, not PRN; rinse mouth after use.
b)
Apply twice a day for best results; no rinsing required.
c)
Use only when symptoms worsen; no need to rinse.
d)
Use as needed; rinse only if irritation occurs.
50.

Main cause of COPD: 

a)
Obesity
b)
Genetic factors
c)
Air pollution
d)
Smoking (primary preventable factor).

Similar Resources on Wayground

April 2025

50 questions

April 2025

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

RESP 1330: O2 and CO2 Transport

50 questions

RESP 1330: O2 and CO2 Transport

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Radiation Basics 2

45 questions

Radiation Basics 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

HST Healthcare Laws and Ethics Assessment

50 questions

HST Healthcare Laws and Ethics Assessment

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Anatomy and Physiology Quiz

45 questions

Anatomy and Physiology Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Anatomy and Medical Terminology Test

50 questions

Anatomy and Medical Terminology Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Prótesis fija P2

49 questions

Prótesis fija P2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Lab Practical Review

49 questions

Lab Practical Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University