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Ear Anatomy and Microtia Repair Anesthesia

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the labeled ear diagram, which sequence correctly lists the three ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial?

a)

Stapes, malleus, incus

b)

Malleus, incus, stapes

c)

Incus, stapes, malleus

d)

Malleus, stapes, incus

2.

During microtia repair using autologous cartilage, which ribs are typically harvested for the graft?

a)

1st–3rd ribs

b)

4th–6th ribs

c)

6th–8th ribs

d)

8th–10th ribs

3.

A young, otherwise healthy 9-year-old is scheduled for microtia reconstruction with rib graft harvest and later ear elevation. Which plan best reflects the described two-stage procedure and typical intraoperative positioning?

a)

Single operation; supine with head neutral for all steps

b)

Two operations months apart; head rotated away from the operative ear

c)

Three operations in one week; sitting position for graft harvest

d)

Two operations the same day; prone for ear reconstruction

e)

Single operation; lateral decubitus for rib harvest and ear creation

4.

In tympanoplasty, the operating table is commonly turned 180 degrees. What is the primary anesthetic implication of this positioning change that requires planning?

a)

Loss of access to the airway

b)

Risk of venous air embolism

c)

Inability to monitor temperature

d)

Reduced IV access to injection ports

5.

Which strategy best minimizes coughing and bucking during emergence from anesthesia in tympanoplasty to avoid graft displacement?

a)

Administer IV lidocaine, a narcotic, or small-dose propofol near emergence

b)

Increase inspired oxygen to 100% early in the case

c)

Use high-dose epinephrine infiltration

d)

Apply positive pressure ventilation with high peak pressures

6.

For tympanoplasty, minimizing intraoperative bleeding is important. Which anesthetic action from the options supports this goal?

a)

Controlled hypotension when appropriate and use of local anesthetic with epinephrine

b)

Maintaining hypertension to perfuse the graft

c)

Avoiding all vasoconstrictors

d)

Routine deep extubation in all patients

7.

Tympanomastoidectomy often requires facial nerve monitoring. What anesthetic adjustment is recommended when this monitoring is used?

a)

Avoid neuromuscular blocking drugs

b)

Use continuous neuromuscular blockade

c)

Switch to total intravenous anesthesia with N2O

d)

Place the patient under regional anesthesia only

8.

In Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS), which anesthetic strategy best helps decrease intraoperative blood loss while maintaining patient safety?

a)

Keeping systolic blood pressure in the high-normal range and placing patient flat

b)

Using vasoconstrictors such as oxymetazoline or phenylephrine and elevating the head of bed 15 degrees

c)

Avoiding vasoconstrictors in all patients and lowering head of bed

d)

Hyperventilating to reduce CO2 and raising systolic blood pressure

9.

A patient on beta blockers presents for FESS. Vasoconstrictors (alpha agonists) are planned. Which risk should the anesthesia provider consider when using these agents in this patient population?

a)

Refractory hypotension due to beta blockade leading to bronchospasm

b)

Hypertension caused by alpha agonists potentially precipitating pulmonary edema and cardiac failure

c)

QT prolongation leading to torsades de pointes

d)

Adrenal suppression resulting in adrenal crisis

10.

All are appropriate anesthetic management considerations for a tympanoplasty EXCEPT:

a)

Avoid the use of nitrous oxide to prevent middle ear pressure buildup

b)

Consider controlled hypotension to minimize bleeding

c)

Perform a deep extubation to avoid coughing and graft displacement

d)

Use nitrous oxide during emergence to facilitate faster wake-up

11.

Which patient characteristic is commonly represented in the population undergoing endoscopic airway surgery?

a)

Young athletes with no comorbidities

b)

Elderly individuals and those with tobacco or alcohol abuse

c)

Only pregnant patients without respiratory issues

d)

Exclusively patients with neurologic disease

12.

For maintenance of anesthesia in endoscopic airway surgery when no vocal cord movement is desired, which plan aligns with the guidance?

a)

Inhalational-only technique with no neuromuscular blockers

b)

Total intravenous anesthesia with succinylcholine infusion titrated to twitch height

c)

Regional anesthesia with no airway devices

d)

Nitrous oxide sedation only

13.

Which ventilation approach is described as allowing the surgeon to operate under apneic conditions until desaturation, followed by brief intubation to restore oxygen saturation?

a)

Jet ventilation through a sideport

b)

Spontaneous ventilation through a sideport

c)

Intermittent apneic technique

d)

Continuous positive airway pressure via face mask

14.

A surgeon needs superficial tissue penetration with minimal risk of retinal injury. Which laser choice aligns with these goals?

a)

Nd:YAG laser

b)

KTP laser

c)

CO2 laser

d)

Argon laser

15.

During laser surgery, which eyewear pairing is most appropriate for personnel safety?

a)

CO2: green tint; Nd:YAG: clear; KTP: red/amber/orange

b)

CO2: clear; Nd:YAG: green tint; KTP: red/amber/orange

c)

CO2: red/amber/orange; Nd:YAG: green tint; KTP: clear

d)

CO2: clear; Nd:YAG: red/amber/orange; KTP: green tint

16.

Which combination best reduces the risk of airway fire during laser airway surgery?

a)

Use N2O for analgesia and inflate the cuff with air

b)

Deliver FiO2 >60% and use a single-cuffed PVC tube

c)

Deliver FiO2 <30%, avoid N2O, and fill the cuff with saline/methylene blue

d)

Use jet ventilation with 100% oxygen and a standard cuffed tube

17.

A specialized laser endotracheal tube is selected. Which feature is expected based on best practices?

a)

Transparent PVC with single cuff filled with air

b)

Matte-finish stainless steel, double-cuffed, cuff filled with saline

c)

Aluminum tube with bright reflective finish and no cuff

d)

Silicone tube with helium-filled cuff and plastic shield

18.

During an intraoperative airway fire, which sequence best applies the protocol immediately after removing the burning endotracheal tube (ETT)?

a)

Reintubate with regular ETT, then ventilate with 100% O2 by face mask

b)

Extinguish the fire in the removed ETT in water, then ventilate with 100% O2 by face mask

c)

Obtain chest X-ray, then consider bronchial lavage and steroids

d)

Flush the airway with saline via bronchoscopy before ventilating

19.

Refer to the fire triangle diagram showing 1. Fuel Source, 2. Ignition Source, 3. Oxidizer. Which numbered element represents what the anesthetist can primarily control within the operating room during endoscopic airway surgery?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

None of the above

20.

During laser airway surgery, which three are the main hazards that must be anticipated and mitigated? Select the best single answer that groups the correct trio.

a)

Toxic fumes of viral particles, fire in the airway, electrical shock

b)

Fire in the airway, eye injury, hyperthermia

c)

Electrical shock, eye injury, hyperthermia

d)

Toxic fumes of viral particles, eye injury, hyperthermia

e)

Fire in the airway, electrical shock, hyperthermia

21.

In planning an endoscopic airway procedure with laser use, which sequence reflects appropriate priorities for airway fire response planning before the first laser activation?

a)

Ensure saline is available to douse flames, confirm laser-safe ETT or wet pledgets, agree on oxygen reduction plan and communication cues

b)

Preoxygenate with 100% oxygen, increase FiO2 during laser use, place metal instruments near ETT

c)

Rely on surgeon to manage all hazards, maintain normal FiO2, avoid team briefing

d)

Secure backup electrical grounding pads and ignore eye protection when not near the beam

22.

During microvascular free flap reconstruction, what intraoperative hematocrit target is described as desirable to optimize blood viscosity and oxygen carrying capacity?

a)

20–24%

b)

24–26%

c)

27–30%

d)

31–34%

e)

35–38%

23.

Which of the following is an indication for parotidectomy that specifically involves obstructive pathology within the gland?

a)

Benign tumors

b)

Parotid stones

c)

Infection

d)

Facial nerve palsy

24.

A patient with generalized submental cellulitis from a dental abscess has swelling that pushes the tongue upward and backward. What is the most appropriate airway plan?

a)

Delay airway intervention; start oral antibiotics only

b)

Proceed with standard oral intubation under deep sedation

c)

Prepare for fiberoptic intubation or tracheotomy with abscess drainage

d)

Use nasal cannula oxygen and observe

25.

During a parotidectomy, what intraoperative monitoring is specifically required to prevent iatrogenic injury?

a)

Somatosensory evoked potentials

b)

Facial nerve monitoring

c)

Bispectral index (BIS) monitoring

d)

Central venous pressure monitoring

26.

Maxillofacial surgery may be indicated for all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Trauma involving LeFort fractures

b)

Orthognathic procedures such as LeFort osteotomy

c)

Radical cancer surgery

d)

Endoscopic sinus surgery for chronic rhinitis

27.

A trauma patient has midface crepitus, facial lengthening, bilateral epistaxis, and infraorbital paresthesia. Which LeFort fracture pattern is most likely?

a)

LeFort I (nasomaxillary)

b)

LeFort II (pyramidal)

c)

LeFort III (craniofacial disjunction)

d)

Isolated mandibular fracture

28.

Which clinical sign best supports a diagnosis of LeFort III fracture compared to lower-grade patterns?

a)

Buccal ecchymosis with maxilla mobile

b)

CSF rhinorrhea with lateral orbital rim defect

c)

Midface crepitus with facial lengthening

d)

Epistaxis without orbital findings

29.

In maxillofacial trauma, which clinical situation is a specific contraindication to nasotracheal intubation due to the risk that the endotracheal tube could enter the cranial vault and foreign material may be introduced intracranially?

a)

LeFort I fracture

b)

LeFort II or III fractures

c)

Isolated mandibular fracture

d)

Zygomatic arch fracture

30.

A patient with complex midface fractures has severely limited mouth opening despite general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. Which airway plan best applies based on these challenges?

a)

Proceed with routine direct laryngoscopy and oral ETT placement

b)

Attempt positive-pressure mask ventilation only, avoiding advanced devices

c)

Plan video or fiberoptic laryngoscopy and be prepared for a surgical airway

d)

Delay surgery because LeFort fractures have no associated airway risk