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ACT Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
If you come across a question you’re unsure about, what should you do?
a)
Spend extra time trying to figure it out.
b)
Leave it blank and move on permanently.
c)
Mark it and move on—you can come back later.
d)
Guess immediately without thinking.
2.
If you don’t know the answer, what’s the best plan?
a)
Skip it—no penalty for blank answers.
b)
Choose your 'letter of the day' (like B or H) and stick with it.
c)
Randomly pick a different letter each time.
d)
Always pick the longest answer.
3.
On the Reading Test, if you are a slow reader, how many passages should you focus on?
a)
All 4
b)
2 out of 4
c)
3 out of 4
d)
1 out of 4
4.
On the English Test, ACT prefers writing that is:
a)
Long and detailed
b)
Precise and concise
c)
Complex and wordy
d)
Informal and conversational
5.
When in doubt about commas, what should you do?
a)
Add more commas for clarity.
b)
Always include commas before 'and.'
c)
Leave them out unless clearly necessary.
d)
Guess randomly.
6.
If you think you might know how to solve a problem but aren’t completely sure, what should you do?
a)
Keep working until you’re 100% sure.
b)
Mark it, move on, and come back later.
c)
Skip it entirely.
d)
Ask the proctor for help.
7.
Which of the following is least likely to be correct on the ACT?
a)
A clear and short answer
b)
A confusing but detailed answer
c)
A grammatically correct and simple choice
d)
An answer with extra commas and phrases
8.
What’s the most effective time strategy for the ACT?
a)
Spend most time on the hardest questions.
b)
Move steadily; don’t get stuck.
c)
Finish one section early to rest.
d)
Jump around randomly.
9.
Which of these statements is TRUE about ACT guessing?
a)
There’s a penalty for wrong answers.
b)
You should only guess if you’ve eliminated some options.
c)
Guess on every question you can’t solve.
d)
Leave questions blank if unsure.
10.
Before the test, what’s one smart thing to do the night before?
a)
Cram late into the night.
b)
Go over formulas and rest early.
c)
Try a new breakfast strategy.
d)
Stay up to 'get into test mode.'
11.
When the 5-minute warning starts, what should you do?
a)
Review your answers and stop working.
b)
Start marking answers on any blanks—guess if needed.
c)
Ignore it and keep working on one hard problem.
d)
Turn in your test early.
12.
Which of the following graphs best illustrates the relationship between the heat released by the foods listed in Table 1 and the change in water temperature?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
13.
If, in Experiment 2, a 1.5 × 10–6 F capacitor had been used, the time required for the voltage across the capacitor to reach 6 V would have been closest to:
a)
4.2 sec
b)
7.0 sec
c)
10.5 sec
d)
15.0 sec
14.
The main purpose of Experiment 3 was to determine how varying the:
a)
battery’s voltage affected the resistor’s resistance at a given time.
b)
capacitor’s capacitance affected the time required for the voltage across the capacitor to reach a set value.
c)
. capacitor’s capacitance affected the voltage across the battery at a given time.
d)
resistor’s resistance affected the time required for the voltage across the capacitor to reach a set value.
15.
Consider a circuit like that shown in Figure 1. Based on Experiments 2 and 3, the voltage across the capacitor will reach a given value in the shortest amount of time if the circuit contains which of the following capacitances and resistances, respectively
a)
0.1 × 10–6 F, 0.3 × 107 Ω
b)
0.1 × 10–6 F, 1.0 × 107 Ω
c)
1.2 × 10–6 F, 0.3 × 107 Ω
d)
1.2 × 10–6 F, 1.0 × 107 Ω
16.
Consider the following hypothesis: In a circuit arranged as in Figure 1 containing a battery, a capacitor, and a constant resistance, as capacitance increases, the time required to reach a given voltage across the capacitor increases. Do the experiments support this hypothesis?
a)
Yes; in Experiment 1, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage increased.
b)
Yes; in Experiment 2, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage increased.
c)
. No; in Experiment 1, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage decreased.
d)
. No; in Experiment 2, as capacitance increased, the time required to reach a given voltage decreased.
17.
A student wants to test the effects of type of exercise on heart rate.  What is the independent variable?
a)
type of exercise
b)
heart rate
c)
amount of time exercise occurs
d)
gender of person that exercises
18.
A student wants to test the effects of type of exercise on heart rate.  What would be a proper hypothesis?
a)
If type of exercise affects the heart rate of a person, then jumping jacks will increase the heart rate the most
b)
Jumping jacks will cause the highest heart rate
c)
Exercise increases heart rate
d)
If exercise affects heart rate, jumping jacks will increase heart rate the most
19.
A student wants to test the effects of type of exercise on heart rate.  What would be a good experimental group?
a)
jumping jacks, push-ups, sit-ups, jogging in place, lunges
b)
standing heart rate
20.
On which axis would you place the independent variable?
a)
X
b)
Y
c)
Z
21.
On which axis would you place the dependent variable?
a)
X
b)
Y
c)
Z
22.

Which of the following is the smallest integer greater than √63?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

e)

9

23.

A motorcycle traveling at 45 mph on the highway is leaking oil, which is leaking at a rate of 5 fluid ounces per minute. If the motorcycle holds 600 fluid ounces of oil, how many miles will the motorcycle travel before there is no more oil?

a)

9 miles

b)

45 miles

c)

90 miles

d)

120 miles

e)

180 miles

24.

Josie had exactly 65 wreaths to sell at the craft show. After day one of selling, she had exactly 57 wreaths left. After day two of selling, Josie had exactly 49 wreaths. After day three, she has 41 wreaths remaining. Assuming Josie will continue to sell her wreaths at this same daily rate, how many of these flowers will she have left after Day 6?

a)

50

b)

45

c)

41

d)

17

e)

6

25.

The elevation, in feet, of a skier on a resort’s main run is represented by the equation E=36,000t+200E=\frac{36,000}{t+200} where tt is the number of seconds after they begin skiing at the start of the main run. What is a skier’s elevation, in feet, at the start of the main run?

a)

0

b)

180

c)

200

d)

1800

e)

2000

26.

What value of xx makes the equation 3(x−8)+x=243\left(x-8\right)+x=24 true?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

e)

24

27.

The maximum force of wind blowing against a surface is given by the expression kSv2kSv^2 , where SS is the surface area, vv is the wind’s velocity, and kk is a constant. If an 18 mile-per-hour wind can exert a maximum force of 45 kilograms on a 5-square-foot flat surface, what is the maximum force, in kilograms, that a 36 mph wind can apply on a 2-square-foot flat surface?

a)

180

b)

7.2

c)

45

d)

72

e)

51.84

28.

In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane what is the midpoint of the line segment that has endpoints (6,2) and (2, -2)?

a)

(4, 4)

b)

(8, 4)

c)

(4, 0)

d)

(-4, -4)

e)

(8, 0)

29.

In parallelogram CDEF below, CE‾\overline{CE} is a diagonal, the measure of ∠CFE is 50°, and the measure of ∠ECD is 54°. What is the measure of ∠CED?

a)

54°

b)

72°

c)

76°

d)

80°

e)

104°

30.

The triangle below shows the lengths of the two legs in inches. What is the distance between the midpoint of AB‾\overline{AB} and A?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

14

e)

20

31.

A company estimates that if they set a new price, dd , in dollars for each unit of their product sold, then the monthly profit, p(d)p\left(d\right) , from selling this product would be modeled by p(d)=1,800d−5d2p\left(d\right)=1,800d-5d^2 where 0≤d≤2250\le d\le225 . According to the model given, which of the following values of d will the monthly profit for this product be the highest?

a)

60

b)

72

c)

180

d)

225

32.

Given that xx is a positive real number, what is the value of xx for log⁡x(127)=−3\log_x\left(\frac{1}{27}\right)=-3

a)

3

b)

1/3

c)

9

d)

27

e)

1/81

33.

Two functions are given; f(x)=3x−2f\left(x\right)=3x-2 and g(x)=x2+4g\left(x\right)=x^2+4 Which of the following expressions represent f(g(x))f\left(g\left(x\right)\right) ?

a)

x2+3x+2x^2+3x+2

b)

3x2+123x^2+12

c)

3x2+103x^2+10

d)

2x22x^2

e)

3x2+23x^2+2

34.

A shoe sales associates' daily commission during a week was $35 on Monday and Wednesday and $65 on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday. What was their average daily commission for these 5 days?

a)

35

b)

50

c)

53

d)

65

e)

100

35.

Joseph has a hypothesis that mice that are fed a high-protein diet can complete a maze at a faster pace than mice that are fed a regular diet. He tests his hypothesis using four mice that are fed a high-protein diet, which he calls the experimental group. He also uses four mice that are fed a regular diet, which he calls the control group. This test produced the results in the table below. How many seconds less was the average time for the experimental group compared to the controlled group?

a)

5

b)

11

c)

29

d)

31

36.

Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.

a)

Neither the students nor the teacher have finished their work.

b)

Neither the students nor the teacher has finished their work.

c)

Neither the students nor the teacher were finished their work.

d)

Neither the students nor the teacher are finished their work.

37.

Which of the following sentences uses punctuation correctly?

a)

The dog barked, ran, and jumped.

b)

The dog barked ran, and jumped.

c)

The dog, barked ran and jumped.

d)

The dog barked ran and, jumped.

38.

Read the following passage and answer the question: "Despite the rain, the soccer game continued. The players, soaked to the skin, showed no signs of slowing down." What is the main idea of this passage?

a)

The soccer game was canceled due to rain.

b)

The players were tired and wanted to stop.

c)

The game continued despite bad weather.

d)

The players refused to play in the rain.

39.

Which sentence is written correctly?

a)

She wanted to quickly finish her homework.

b)

She wanted to finish quickly her homework.

c)

She wanted quickly to finish her homework.

d)

She wanted to finish her homework quickly.

40.

Select the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement.

a)

The list of items are on the table.

b)

The list of items is on the table.

c)

The list of items were on the table.

d)

The list of items have been on the table.

41.

Which of the following best describes the author’s argument in the passage below? "Recycling should be mandatory because it conserves resources, reduces pollution, and saves energy."

a)

Recycling is unnecessary.

b)

Recycling is harmful to the environment.

c)

Recycling has several important benefits.

d)

Recycling is too expensive.

42.

Choose the sentence that is punctuated correctly.

a)

My favorite colors are blue, green and, yellow.

b)

My favorite colors are blue, green, and yellow.

c)

My favorite colors are, blue green and yellow.

d)

My favorite colors are blue green, and yellow.

43.

Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?

a)

Running quickly, the finish line was crossed by the athlete.

b)

The athlete, running quickly, crossed the finish line.

c)

The athlete crossed the finish line running quickly.

d)

Quickly running, the athlete crossed the finish line.

44.

Choose the best replacement for the underlined portion: "Each of the students _have_ completed their assignments."

a)

have

b)

has

c)

having

d)

is having

45.

Which of the following sentences is a run-on sentence?

a)

The sun set, and the stars appeared.

b)

The sun set the stars appeared.

c)

After the sun set, the stars appeared.

d)

When the sun set, the stars appeared.

46.

Read the following passage and answer the question: "Many people believe that exercise is essential for good health. Studies have shown that regular physical activity can reduce the risk of chronic diseases." What is the author’s purpose in this passage?

a)

To entertain the reader with a story

b)

To persuade the reader to exercise

c)

To inform the reader about the benefits of exercise

d)

To criticize people who do not exercise

47.

Which sentence uses parallel structure?

a)

She likes reading, to swim, and biking.

b)

She likes to read, swim, and bike.

c)

She likes reading, swimming, and to bike.

d)

She likes to read, swimming, and biking.

48.

Choose the correct form of the word to complete the sentence: "Neither of the answers ______ correct."

a)

are

b)

is

c)

were

d)

be

49.

Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly?

a)

After dinner we went to the movies.

b)

After dinner, we went to the movies.

c)

After, dinner we went to the movies.

d)

After dinner we, went to the movies.

50.

Which sentence is written in the passive voice?

a)

The chef cooked the meal.

b)

The meal was cooked by the chef.

c)

The chef is cooking the meal.

d)

The chef will cook the meal.

51.

Read the following passage and answer the question: "Although the test was difficult, most students passed with high scores." What can be inferred from this passage?

a)

The test was easy.

b)

Most students failed the test.

c)

The students were well-prepared.

d)

The test was canceled.

52.

Which sentence contains a pronoun-antecedent agreement error?

a)

Every student must bring their own pencil.

b)

Each of the players has a uniform.

c)

The teachers gave their students homework.

d)

The dog wagged its tail.

53.

Choose the sentence that is free of errors.

a)

Its raining outside, so bring your umbrella.

b)

It’s raining outside, so bring your umbrella.

c)

Its’ raining outside, so bring your umbrella.

d)

Its raining outside so bring your umbrella.

54.

Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage below? "The author’s use of statistics and expert opinions strengthens the argument for renewable energy."

a)

Sarcastic

b)

Objective

c)

Humorous

d)

Emotional

55.

Which sentence is correct?

a)

The committee have made their decision.

b)

The committee has made its decision.

c)

The committee have made its decision.

d)

The committee has made their decision.

56.

Choose the best transition to begin the following sentence: "__________, the new policy will benefit all employees."

a)

However

b)

Therefore

c)

Although

d)

Because

57.

Which of the following sentences is a fragment?

a)

Because I was late.

b)

I was late to class.

c)

I hurried to class because I was late.

d)

I was late, so I hurried.

58.

Read the following passage and answer the question: "Some people argue that technology isolates individuals, while others believe it connects people across distances." What is the main point of disagreement in this passage?

a)

Whether technology is expensive

b)

Whether technology is useful

c)

Whether technology isolates or connects people

d)

Whether technology is new

59.

Which sentence uses a semicolon correctly?

a)

I have a big test tomorrow; I can’t go out tonight.

b)

I have a big test tomorrow; and I can’t go out tonight.

c)

I have a big test; tomorrow I can’t go out tonight.

d)

I have a big test; tomorrow, I can’t go out tonight.

60.

Choose the sentence that is written in parallel structure.

a)

The job requires intelligence, skill, and to be dedicated.

b)

The job requires intelligence, skill, and dedication.

c)

The job requires to be intelligent, skill, and dedication.

d)

The job requires intelligence, to be skilled, and dedication.

61.

Which of the following sentences is correct?

a)

The team lost it’s final game.

b)

The team lost its final game.

c)

The team lost its’ final game.

d)

The team lost it final game.

62.

Read the following passage and answer the question: "After years of research, scientists have finally discovered a cure for the disease." What is the tone of this passage?

a)

Disappointed

b)

Excited

c)

Indifferent

d)

Sarcastic

63.

Which sentence is correct?

a)

If I was you, I would study harder.

b)

If I were you, I would study harder.

c)

If I am you, I would study harder.

d)

If I be you, I would study harder.

64.

Which of the following best supports an argumentative essay?

a)

Personal anecdotes only

b)

Emotional appeals only

c)

Facts, statistics, and expert opinions

d)

Jokes and humor

65.

Choose the sentence that is free of errors.

a)

Who’s book is this on the table?

b)

Whose book is this on the table?

c)

Whose book’s is this on the table?

d)

Who book is this on the table?

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