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Worksheets

Cardiovascular

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to the largest vein in the body that returns blood to the right atrium?

a)

Ventricle

b)

Vena cava

c)

Venule

d)

Aorta

2.

What is the best definition of ventricle in the context of the heart?

a)

Upper chamber of the heart

b)

Small vein

c)

One of two lower chambers of the heart

d)

Largest artery

3.

Which structure is described as a small vein?

a)

Venule

b)

Ventricle

c)

Vena cava

d)

Atrioventricle

4.

The combining form angi/o most closely means:

a)

Heart

b)

Vessel

c)

Vein

d)

Aorta

5.

The combining form aort/o refers to the:

a)

Atrium

b)

Valve

c)

Aorta

d)

Arteriole

6.

Which term would most likely describe an imaging record of a blood vessel?

a)

Angioplasty

b)

Angiogram

c)

Aortic stenosis

d)

Venography

7.

Based on the combining form angi/o, which procedure is intended to repair or open a vessel?

a)

Angioplasty

b)

Aortography

c)

Phlebitis

d)

Cardiomegaly

8.

Aortic stenosis most directly refers to:

a)

Inflammation of the aorta

b)

Narrowing of the aorta

c)

Imaging of the aorta

d)

Rupture of the aorta

9.

Which combining form means artery?

a)

arter/o, arteri/o

b)

ather/o

c)

cardi/o

d)

phleb/o

10.

The term atherosclerosis best describes which condition?

a)

Hardening of veins

b)

Yellowish plaque with cholesterol and lipids found within the lining of an artery

c)

Enlargement of the heart

d)

Inflammation of the atrium

11.

What does the combining form ather/o mean?

a)

Joint

b)

Yellowish plaque, fatty substance

c)

Upper heart chamber

d)

Blue

12.

Cardi/o refers to which anatomical structure?

a)

Lung

b)

Heart

c)

Artery

d)

Vein

13.

Which terminology corresponds to abnormal thickening of heart muscle, usually in the left ventricle?

a)

Cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic)

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Endarterectomy

d)

Cyanosis

14.

Tachycardia is best described as:

a)

A pulse slower than 60 bpm

b)

A pulse faster than 100 bpm

c)

Normal pulse of 60–100 bpm

d)

Complete absence of pulse

15.

Which term indicates failure of the heart in its pumping action leading to inadequate delivery of oxygen and nutrients?

a)

Endarterectomy

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Atherectomy

d)

Arrhythmia

16.

Which combining form means atrium (upper heart chamber)?

a)

atri/o

b)

arteri/o

c)

brachi/o

d)

steth/o

17.

Which term refers to surgical removal of plaque from the inner lining of an artery?

a)

Endarterectomy

b)

Atherectomy

c)

Phlebotomy

d)

Pericardiocentesis

18.

Which definition matches arteriosclerosis?

a)

Narrowing of veins

b)

Hardening of arteries

c)

Inflammation of the pericardium

d)

Clot dissolution

19.

Hypercholesterolemia uses which combining form and means what?

a)

cholesterol/o; elevated cholesterol

b)

coron/o; heart attack

c)

cyan/o; lack of oxygen

d)

myx/o; muscle tumor

20.

Which arteries come down over the top of the heart like a crown?

a)

Pulmonary arteries

b)

Carotid arteries

c)

Coronary arteries

d)

Brachial arteries

21.

Cyanosis indicates which clinical finding?

a)

Excess mucus

b)

Bluish discoloration due to diminished oxygen content of the blood

c)

Rapid heart rhythm

d)

Removal of fluid from the pericardial space

22.

A benign tumor derived from connective tissue with mucoid stroma is called:

a)

Myxoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Carcinoma

d)

Sarcoma of the lung

23.

Hypoxia is defined as:

a)

Excess oxygen in tissues

b)

Inadequate oxygen in tissues

c)

Lack of blood flow to the skin

d)

Blue discoloration of the lips

24.

Phlebotomy involves which structure and action?

a)

Artery; dilation

b)

Vein; opening for drawing blood

c)

Heart; imaging

d)

Lung; biopsy

25.

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is associated with which condition noted in the text?

a)

Endarterectomy

b)

Thrombophlebitis

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Cyanosis

26.

Which instrument measures pressure?

a)

Stethoscope

b)

Sphygmomanometer

c)

Cardiograph

d)

Spirometer

27.

Thrombolysis refers to:

a)

Formation of a clot

b)

Dissolution of a clot

c)

Inflammation of a vein

d)

Surgical removal of plaque

28.

Which combining form means vein?

a)

phleb/o

b)

arteri/o

c)

coron/o

d)

sphygm/o

29.

Which combining form refers to a valve in the cardiovascular system?

a)

vas/o

b)

valvul/o, valv/o

c)

ven/o, ven/i

d)

ventricul/o

30.

Which term means pertaining to blood vessels?

a)

Vascular

b)

Venous

c)

Valvotomy

d)

Interventricular

31.

Venipuncture is primarily performed to do what?

a)

Dilate a cardiac valve

b)

Start an intravenous infusion or for phlebotomy

c)

Repair a vein surgically

d)

Treat rheumatic fever

32.

What best describes arrhythmias?

a)

Inflammation of heart valves

b)

Abnormal heart rhythms (dysrhythmias)

c)

Blockage of coronary arteries

d)

Excessive thickening of vessel walls

33.

According to the material, arrhythmias are problems with which system of the heart?

a)

Circulatory (blood flow) system

b)

Conduction or electrical system

c)

Immune defense system

d)

Endocrine signaling system

34.

Bradycardia is best defined as which of the following?

a)

Abnormally fast heart rate

b)

Abnormally slow heart rate

c)

Irregular vessel dilation

d)

Inflammation of a ventricle

35.

Heart block (atrioventricular block) reflects failure of impulses to properly conduct from which node toward the atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)?

a)

SA node

b)

Purkinje fibers

c)

Bundle branches

d)

Aortic node

36.

Which combining form pair refers to a vein?

a)

vascul/o

b)

valv/o

c)

ven/o, ven/i

d)

ventricul/o

37.

Atrial fibrillation most directly involves which heart chambers?

a)

Ventricles contracting irregularly

b)

Atria quivering instead of contracting in a coordinated rhythm

c)

Aorta narrowing

d)

Pulmonary veins constricting

38.

Ventricular fibrillation is most dangerous because it can quickly lead to

a)

low-grade fever

b)

sudden cardiac death or cardiac arrest

c)

mild chest discomfort only

d)

gradual vision loss

39.

Which immediate treatment can interrupt ventricular fibrillation so normal rhythm takes over?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Defibrillation (electrical shock)

c)

Steroids

d)

Diuretics

40.

Automatic external defibrillators (AEDs) are described as devices that are

a)

used only in hospitals

b)

found in public places and used in emergencies to reverse ventricular fibrillation

c)

implanted under the skin

d)

only for measuring pulse rate

41.

Which minimally invasive procedure uses radiofrequency energy or extreme cold to destroy tissue causing arrhythmias?

a)

Valve replacement

b)

Catheter ablation

c)

Coronary stent placement

d)

Bypass grafting

42.

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) refers to a passageway between which two vessels that remains open after birth?

a)

Aorta and vena cava

b)

Pulmonary vein and left atrium

c)

Aorta and pulmonary artery

d)

Coronary artery and aorta

43.

Septal defects are described as small holes located where?

a)

Between the aorta and pulmonary artery

b)

In the walls between the atria or between the ventricles

c)

In the valves of the heart

d)

In the coronary arteries

44.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four defects in tetralogy of Fallot?

a)

Pulmonary artery stenosis

b)

Ventricular septal defect

c)

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle

d)

Left atrial appendage closure

45.

In tetralogy of Fallot, what does a shift of the aorta to the right cause?

a)

Aorta overrides the interventricular septum

b)

Closure of the ductus arteriosus

c)

Increased oxygenation of blood in the lungs

d)

Narrowing of the left ventricle

46.

An infant with tetralogy of Fallot is often called a “blue baby” primarily due to

a)

high fever

b)

extreme degree of cyanosis present at birth

c)

excess red blood cells

d)

enlarged spleen

47.

Which statement best defines congestive heart failure (CHF)?

a)

The heart stops beating suddenly

b)

The heart is unable to pump its required amount of blood

c)

The lungs fill with air due to obstruction

d)

Arteries widen and increase blood flow

48.

Which symptom is a common sign of CHF due to fluid retention?

a)

Pitting edema in legs, feet, and ankles

b)

Skin rash on arms

c)

Blurred vision

d)

Increased hair growth

49.

Pulmonary edema in CHF refers to

a)

Fluid loss through kidneys

b)

Fluid accumulation in the lungs

c)

Air trapping in the lungs

d)

Blood clot in a peripheral vein

50.

Which treatment is mentioned to promote fluid loss in CHF management?

a)

Increase dietary sodium

b)

Use of diuretics

c)

Daily corticosteroids

d)

High-protein diet

51.

What is the primary function of a left ventricular assist device (LVAD)?

a)

Paces the heart’s electrical activity

b)

Defibrillates during cardiac arrest

c)

Pumps blood out of the left ventricle to the body

d)

Filters toxins from the blood

52.

Atherosclerosis is best described as

a)

Deposition of fatty compounds in the inner lining of arteries

b)

Sudden rupture of heart muscle fibers

c)

Infection of the pericardium

d)

Congenital absence of coronary arteries

53.

The sequence of plaque formation, roughening, and clotting that stops blood flow can result in which outcome?

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Stroke only

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Varicose veins

54.

An infarct is defined in the material as

a)

Area of temporarily weakened muscle

b)

Area of dead myocardial tissue replaced by scar tissue

c)

Collection of pus in the pericardium

d)

Benign tumor of the heart wall

55.

In the diagram of coronary artery occlusion, the area deprived of blood supply is labeled as

a)

Zone of hyperperfusion

b)

Zone of ischemia and infarction

c)

Area of regeneration

d)

Coronary sinus

56.

After an acute myocardial infarction, what eventually replaces the infarcted area?

a)

Healthy new myocardium

b)

Scar tissue

c)

Fatty tissue only

d)

Cartilage

57.

Which term best describes inflammation of the inner lining of the heart, often caused by bacterial infection?

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Aneurysm

d)

Hypertensive heart disease

58.

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) from endocarditis is most directly caused by:

a)

Heart valve stenosis

b)

Mitral valve prolapse

c)

Emboli lodging in brain vessels

d)

Pericardial friction rub

59.

Hypertensive heart disease primarily results from which change in the blood vessels?

a)

Dilation of veins

b)

Narrowing of arterioles

c)

Calcification of capillaries

d)

Occlusion of venules

60.

In hypertensive heart disease, the left ventricle becomes enlarged because it must:

a)

Pump against decreased resistance

b)

Compensate for reduced blood volume

c)

Pump more vigorously to overcome increased arterial resistance

d)

Respond to congenital defects

61.

Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is defined as:

a)

Narrowing of the mitral valve

b)

Improper closure of the mitral valve

c)

Inflammation of the mitral valve

d)

Replacement of the mitral valve with a prosthesis

62.

During auscultation, a midsystolic click is most characteristic of which condition?

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Mitral valve prolapse

c)

Hypertensive heart disease

d)

Aneurysm

63.

Mitral regurgitation refers to:

a)

Forward flow of blood into the aorta

b)

Backflow of blood into the left atrium

c)

Leakage between ventricles

d)

Obstruction of the mitral valve

64.

Which statement about heart murmurs is accurate?

a)

They are always dangerous and require emergency surgery

b)

They are extra heart sounds, often due to valvular defects

c)

They cannot be heard with a stethoscope

d)

They only occur in infants

65.

Pericarditis is inflammation of which structure?

a)

Endocardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Pericardium

d)

Aorta

66.

Cardiac tamponade is caused by:

a)

Scarring of heart valves

b)

Collection of fluid in the pericardial cavity compressing the heart

c)

Narrowing of arterioles

d)

Backflow through the mitral valve

67.

Rheumatic heart disease most commonly follows which childhood illness?

a)

Otitis media

b)

Streptococcal pharyngitis

c)

Viral pneumonia

d)

Chickenpox

68.

Which heart valve problem is commonly associated with rheumatic heart disease?

a)

Mitral stenosis

b)

Aortic regurgitation only

c)

Tricuspid atresia

d)

Pulmonic insufficiency only

69.

An aneurysm is best defined as:

a)

A clot within a vein

b)

Local widening (dilation) of an arterial wall

c)

Inflammation of an artery

d)

Complete occlusion of a vessel

70.

The major danger of an aneurysm is:

a)

Valve prolapse

b)

Rupture and hemorrhage

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Infection of the endocardium

71.

Which condition is defined as a blood clot (thrombus) forming in a large vein, usually in a lower limb, that can lead to a pulmonary embolism if untreated?

a)

Peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

b)

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

c)

Raynaud's disease

d)

Varicose veins

72.

What best describes hypertension (HTN) as presented?

a)

Low blood pressure due to dehydration

b)

High blood pressure, often essential with no identifiable cause

c)

An irregular heart rhythm

d)

Blockage of veins in the legs

73.

Which lifestyle change is specifically mentioned as helpful for reducing blood pressure in essential hypertension?

a)

Increasing sodium intake

b)

Quitting exercise

c)

Limiting sodium intake and losing weight

d)

Increasing caffeine intake

74.

Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is primarily described as:

a)

Blockage of veins that return blood to the heart

b)

Blockage of arteries carrying blood to the legs, arms, kidneys, and other organs

c)

Inflammation of capillaries in the skin

d)

Spasm of venules in the fingers

75.

Intermittent claudication, a sign of PAD in the lower extremities, is best defined as:

a)

Numbness in the toes at night

b)

Pain, tension, and weakness after walking that are absent at rest

c)

Constant leg cramps at rest

d)

Swelling of the ankles after standing

76.

Which blood pressure range defines Hypertension (High Blood Pressure) Stage 1?

a)

Systolic 120–129 and diastolic less than 80

b)

Systolic 130–139 or diastolic 80–89

c)

Systolic 140 or higher or diastolic 90 or higher

d)

Systolic higher than 180 and/or diastolic higher than 120

77.

Raynaud's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of pallor and cyanosis primarily in which areas?

a)

Heart and lungs

b)

Fingers and toes

c)

Neck and face

d)

Abdomen and back

78.

Which triggers are mentioned for Raynaud's episodes?

a)

High-salt meals and dehydration

b)

Cold temperatures, emotional stress, cigarette smoking, and caffeine

c)

Intense exercise only

d)

Bacterial infection

79.

Varicose veins are described as:

a)

Abnormally swollen and twisted veins, usually occurring in the legs

b)

Inflamed arteries in the arms

c)

Blocked capillaries in the skin

d)

Blood clots in deep veins of the thigh

80.

Which complication can result from the slow flow of blood in varicose veins?

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Thrombosis (thrombo phlebitis)

c)

Hypertrophic scarring

d)

Hyperthyroidism