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Introduction to Shock and Oxygen Delivery

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines shock as introduced in this section?

a)

A state of elevated blood pressure

b)

A disease process associated with inadequate tissue perfusion leading to poor oxygen delivery

c)

A condition of excess oxygen in tissues

d)

A normal response to exercise

2.

In clinical assessment, inadequate tissue perfusion is often evaluated under which concept?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Shock

d)

Hyperoxia

3.

Which list includes three typical categories of shock noted in the introduction?

a)

Cardiogenic, Septic, Hypovolemic

b)

Allergic, Neurogenic, Traumatic

c)

Respiratory, Renal, Hepatic

d)

Ischemic, Toxic, Autoimmune

4.

Match each type of shock with its causative pathophysiologic mechanism category label as presented.

a)

Cardiogenic shock

1.

Pump failure of the heart

b)

Distributive shock

2.

Peripheral vasodilation/maldistribution

c)

Obstructive shock

3.

Physical blockage to circulation

d)

Hypovolemic shock

4.

Reduced intravascular volume

5.

According to the categorization by causative pathophysiologic mechanism, which of the following is NOT listed?

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Metabolic shock

c)

Hypoxic shock

d)

Neurogenic shock

6.

Which set correctly lists all the shock categories mentioned on the Types of Shock slide?

a)

Cardiogenic, Distributive, Hypoxic, Metabolic, Obstructive, Hypovolemic

b)

Septic, Anaphylactic, Neurogenic, Cardiogenic

c)

Hemorrhagic, Traumatic, Toxic, Hypoxic

d)

Cardiogenic, Respiratory, Endocrine, Obstructive

7.

Oxygen delivery represents which of the following?

a)

The partial pressure of oxygen in venous blood

b)

The amount or volume of oxygen transported to the tissues each minute

c)

The saturation of hemoglobin in the lungs

d)

The total body oxygen consumption per day

8.

Cardiac output is defined as the product of which two variables?

a)

Stroke volume and vascular resistance

b)

Heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Stroke volume and heart rate

d)

End-diastolic volume and ejection fraction

9.

Oxygen content refers to what, according to the Oxygen Delivery slide?

a)

Amount of oxygen in venous blood

b)

Amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma only

c)

Amount of oxygen in arterial blood

d)

Total body oxygen stores

10.

Which component directly contributes to oxygen delivery by determining flow of blood to tissues?

a)

Oxygen consumption

b)

Cardiac output

c)

Venous return pressure

d)

Baroreflex sensitivity

11.

A patient with reduced stroke volume would most directly have a decrease in which parameter listed?

a)

Oxygen content

b)

Cardiac output

c)

Arterial oxygen partial pressure

d)

Tissue oxygen extraction

12.

Which combination best links the concept to its brief description?

a)

Shock

1.

Often the clinical manifestation assessed when oxygen delivery is poor

b)

Inadequate tissue perfusion

2.

Leads to poor oxygen delivery to tissues

c)

Cardiac output

3.

Product of stroke volume and heart rate

d)

Oxygen content

4.

Amount of oxygen in arterial blood

13.

Which statement best defines cardiogenic shock as presented in the material?

a)

Failure of forward flow leading to inadequate tissue perfusion despite adequate intravascular volume

b)

Loss of vessel tone due to vasodilatory mediators

c)

Reduced oxygen content in arterial blood

d)

Inadequate nutrients for cellular energy production

14.

Which factor is NOT listed as a contributor to cardiogenic shock?

a)

Ineffective forward blood flow

b)

Structural problems

c)

Systolic and diastolic dysfunction

d)

Loss of vessel tone from sympathetic failure

15.

Select the primary mechanism underlying distributive shock.

a)

Excessive intravascular volume

b)

Loss of vessel tone

c)

Obstructed venous return

d)

Myocardial infarction with pump failure

16.

Which pair correctly matches a state that can lead to distributive shock?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Myocardial rupture

d)

Hypoglycemia

17.

Two mechanisms contribute to loss of vessel tone in distributive shock. Which option lists them both?

a)

Decreased sympathetic control and presence of vasodilatory mediators

b)

Hypoxemia and hypercapnia

c)

Intravascular fluid loss and hemorrhage

d)

Valve stenosis and regurgitation

18.

According to the described neurogenic response in distributive shock, which sequence of changes is correct?

a)

Increased preload → increased stroke volume → increased cardiac output → increased DO2

b)

Decreased preload → decreased stroke volume → decreased cardiac output → decreased DO2

c)

Increased afterload → decreased cardiac output → increased DO2

d)

Decreased heart rate → increased preload → increased DO2

19.

Hypoxic shock is best characterized by which condition?

a)

Reduction in oxygen content in arterial blood

b)

Inability of mitochondria to utilize oxygen

c)

Massive fluid losses from vasculature

d)

Autoimmune destruction of cardiac tissue

20.

Metabolic shock occurs under which circumstance?

a)

When there is a reduction in oxygen content in arterial blood

b)

When there are inadequate nutrients for cellular energy production or poor utilization of delivered oxygen and nutrients

c)

When sympathetic control of vasomotor tone increases

d)

When structural cardiac defects obstruct ejection

21.

Match each shock type with the key phrase from the material.

a)

Cardiogenic shock

1.

Forward flow failure despite adequate intravascular volume

b)

Distributive shock

2.

Loss of vessel tone

c)

Hypoxic shock

3.

Reduced oxygen content in arterial blood

d)

Metabolic shock

4.

Inadequate nutrients or poor utilization of oxygen/nutrients

22.

Which example best fits the list of conditions that can lead to distributive shock?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Massive hemorrhage

d)

Tension pneumothorax

23.

Which change is NOT part of the end result described for the neurogenic response in distributive shock?

a)

Decreased preload

b)

Decreased stroke volume

c)

Decreased cardiac output

d)

Increased DO2

24.

Which set correctly identifies the three listed contributors to cardiogenic shock?

a)

Ineffective forward blood flow; structural problems; systolic and diastolic dysfunction

b)

Loss of sympathetic tone; vasodilatory mediators; neurogenic state

c)

Reduced arterial oxygen; inadequate nutrients; poor oxygen utilization

d)

External compression; hemorrhage; dehydration

25.

Which statement best defines obstructive shock based on the material?

a)

A sudden drop in blood volume from hemorrhage

b)

Mechanical obstruction of blood flow in the vascular system

c)

Failure of the heart muscle to contract effectively

d)

Widespread loss of vascular tone leading to pooling of blood

26.

Where can the obstruction occur in obstructive shock? Select the most accurate option from those listed.

a)

Only in peripheral arteries

b)

In the great vessels, heart, or lungs

c)

Only in the microcirculation

d)

Exclusively within the brain vasculature

27.

Match each shock type to its characteristic described in the material.

a)

Obstructive shock

1.

Mechanical obstruction of blood flow

b)

Hypovolemic shock

2.

Complex and dynamic process involving many compensatory mechanisms

c)

Both types

3.

Involve circulatory compromise

28.

Which description aligns with hypovolemic shock in this section?

a)

A static condition with minimal physiologic response

b)

Complex and dynamic process involving many compensatory mechanisms

c)

Blockage of blood flow in the lungs only

d)

Localized vasodilation without volume change

29.

Which statement best describes the initial recognition of shock according to the instructional material?

a)

It is primarily laboratory-based using lactate and base deficit.

b)

It is based on historical and physical findings.

c)

It requires ultrasound confirmation before treatment.

d)

It depends solely on central venous oxygen saturation.

30.

Which group lists the three major categories of markers used to guide resuscitation?

a)

Cardiac output, urine output, and temperature

b)

Hemodynamic stability, tissue perfusion, and oxygen delivery

c)

Electrolytes, coagulation factors, and blood glucose

d)

Arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, and ECG

31.

In the framework presented, which of the following is classified as an upstream parameter?

a)

Lactate

b)

Capillary refill time

c)

Central venous oxygen saturation

d)

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) as part of afterload

32.

Match each category of resuscitation markers with an example marker.

a)

Upstream

1.

Shock index

b)

Microcirculation

2.

Capillary refill time

c)

Downstream

3.

Lactate

33.

Which of the following is listed under microcirculation assessment?

a)

Mucous membrane color

b)

Central venous oxygen saturation

c)

Hemoglobin concentration

d)

Vena cava size

34.

According to the material, preload assessment under upstream parameters includes which measure?

a)

pH/base deficit

b)

CVP and vena cava size

c)

PaO2

d)

Heart rhythm on ECG

35.

Which parameter belongs to the oxygen delivery (DO2) group under upstream markers?

a)

Central venous oxygen (PO2)

b)

Hemoglobin (Hgb)

c)

Lactate

d)

Capillary refill time

36.

Which downstream marker is explicitly named in the material?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Contractility by ultrasound

c)

Lactate

d)

Shock index

37.

Which item is identified as a hemodynamic component under upstream parameters?

a)

pH/base deficit

b)

Capillary refill time

c)

Central venous oxygen saturation

d)

Heart rate

38.

Which pairing correctly aligns an upstream afterload measure with its specific indicator?

a)

Afterload — MAP

b)

Afterload — Lactate

c)

Afterload — PaO2

d)

Afterload — Capillary refill

39.

Which finding best indicates a reduced level of mentation during the initial assessment for shock?

a)

Hyperalertness and rapid responses to stimuli

b)

Loss of interest in the environment with diminished or absent responses to stimuli

c)

Increased engagement with surroundings and talkativeness

d)

Normal attention with occasional distraction

40.

Pale or white mucous membranes during shock most directly reflect which underlying issue?

a)

Excess red blood cells perfusing mucosal capillary beds

b)

Reduced quantity of red blood cells perfusing the capillary beds of the mucosal tissue

c)

Increased tissue oxygen extraction with normal perfusion

d)

Hyperpigmentation unrelated to perfusion

41.

Match each physical assessment indicator with what it suggests in shock.

a)

Slow capillary refill time (CRT)

1.

Poor perfusion

b)

Fast CRT with other perfusion abnormalities

2.

Distributive shock pattern

c)

Red mucous membranes

3.

Finding noted under mucous membrane color

42.

During assessment for shock, what is the primary implication of a slow capillary refill time (CRT)?

a)

Normal perfusion

b)

Poor perfusion

c)

High cardiac output state

d)

Measurement error; CRT is not useful

43.

Which statement about heart rate in shock assessment is most accurate?

a)

Heart rate does not vary with body size

b)

Heart rate varies with body size

c)

Heart rate can only be measured invasively

d)

Heart rate is irrelevant to shock assessment

44.

Pulse quality during shock assessment is primarily determined by which method?

a)

Automated blood pressure cuff

b)

Digital palpation of the femoral pulse

c)

Electrocardiographic amplitude

d)

Auscultation over the apex

45.

Which set best summarizes why clinical signs may differ among patients in shock?

a)

Differences in hydration only

b)

Changes in vasomotor tone leading to either vasoconstrictive or vasodilatory forms of shock

c)

Random patient variability without physiological basis

d)

Errors in measurement of vital signs

46.

Which extremity temperature pattern aligns with altered perfusion in shock according to the assessment focus?

a)

Extremity temperature is not assessed in shock

b)

Extremity temperature is part of the physical assessment and may vary with perfusion changes

c)

Only core temperature matters; extremity temperature is constant

d)

Warm extremities always indicate hypoperfusion

47.

Which parameter listed is specifically described as a tool developed in human medicine to quantify shock severity and response to therapy in the emergency room?

a)

Jugular vein distention

b)

Ultrasonographic caudal vena cava assessment

c)

Shock index (SI)

d)

Lactate concentration

e)

Central venous oxygen saturation

48.

Jugular vein distention is included among additional assessment parameters for evaluating shock.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which modality uses ultrasound to evaluate venous status as part of shock assessment?

a)

Central venous oxygen saturation

b)

Ultrasonographic caudal vena cava assessment

c)

Base deficit/base excess

d)

Lactate concentration

50.

Select the parameter that is part of a blood gas profile and helps determine a patient’s acid-base status.

a)

Shock index (SI)

b)

Lactate concentration

c)

Base deficit (BD)/base excess (BE)

d)

Jugular vein distention

51.

Which of the following is explicitly listed as an additional assessment parameter for shock related to tissue perfusion and metabolism?

a)

Lactate concentration

b)

Jugular vein distention

c)

Ultrasonographic caudal vena cava assessment

d)

Shock index (SI)

52.

Match each assessment parameter with the best brief descriptor.

a)

Shock index (SI)

1.

Tool from human medicine for quantifying shock severity and therapy response

b)

Ultrasonographic caudal vena cava assessment

2.

Imaging-based evaluation of venous status

c)

Base deficit/excess

3.

Part of blood gas profile; informs acid–base status

d)

Central venous oxygen saturation

4.

Measure of oxygen saturation in central venous blood

53.

Central venous oxygen saturation is included as an additional parameter for assessing shock.

a)

Included

b)

Not included

54.

Which pair correctly combines a parameter with a stated purpose from the material?

a)

Jugular vein distention — determines acid–base status

b)

Base deficit/base excess — part of a blood gas profile

c)

Lactate concentration — ultrasound measure of caudal vena cava

d)

Shock index — measure of central venous oxygen saturation

55.

Which statement best describes a primary goal of oxygen therapy in shock management?

a)

Maintaining oxygen saturation to support blood oxygenation

b)

Preventing venous catheter infections

c)

Lowering heart rate below baseline

d)

Eliminating the need for arterial blood gases

56.

A patient’s blood oxygenation status is uncertain. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

a)

Wait for lab results before intervening

b)

Provide supplemental oxygen until arterial blood gases or hemoglobin oxygen saturation confirm it is unnecessary

c)

Begin venous catheterization immediately

d)

Start fluid restriction

57.

Which assessment can confirm that supplemental oxygen is not necessary?

a)

Capillary refill time alone

b)

Arterial blood gases or hemoglobin oxygen saturation

c)

Chest X-ray findings

d)

Heart rhythm on ECG

58.

Match each concept with its role in oxygen therapy.

a)

Maintaining oxygen saturation

1.

Primary goal for blood oxygenation

b)

Supplemental oxygen when in doubt

2.

Interim measure until assessment

c)

Arterial blood gases/Hb oxygen saturation

3.

Objective tests confirming oxygen need

59.

Which factor is NOT listed as influencing the selection of a vein to catheterize?

a)

Size and species of the animal

b)

Skill of the operator placing the catheter

c)

Therapeutic goals

d)

Availability of antibiotics

e)

Animal’s problem or disease

60.

According to the material, venous access site selection depends on several factors. Which pairing is correct?

a)

Operator skill — influences which vein can be safely catheterized

b)

Animal’s color — determines vein patency

c)

Room temperature — dictates catheter length

d)

Owner preference — determines catheter gauge

61.

Match each factor with how it can influence vein selection for catheterization.

a)

Size and species of animal

1.

Vein accessibility and appropriate catheter size

b)

Skill of operator

2.

Feasibility and safety of placement

c)

Therapeutic goals

3.

Choice of site to meet intended treatment

d)

Animal’s problem or disease

4.

Site selection adjusted for underlying condition

62.

Which statement best summarizes the decision process for choosing a vein to catheterize?

a)

It is standardized to the cephalic vein for all cases

b)

It depends on animal characteristics, operator skill, therapeutic goals, and the animal’s disease

c)

It should avoid large veins to reduce risk

d)

It is based solely on equipment availability

63.

Which fluid type is commonly employed in the treatment of hypovolemic shock because it has electrolyte concentrations similar to extracellular fluid?

a)

Hypertonic crystalloids

b)

Isotonic crystalloids

c)

Colloids

d)

Free water

64.

Which statement best describes colloids used in fluid resuscitation?

a)

They readily cross capillary membranes

b)

They are poor blood volume expanders compared with isotonic crystalloids

c)

They are large-molecular-weight solutions that do not cross capillary membranes readily

d)

They have electrolyte concentrations identical to intracellular fluid

65.

In terms of expanding blood volume, which option is more effective according to the material?

a)

Isotonic crystalloids

b)

Colloids

c)

Free water

d)

Hypertonic saline

66.

Match each fluid category with its key characteristic.

a)

Crystalloids

1.

Electrolyte concentrations like extracellular fluid

b)

Colloids

2.

Large-molecular-weight; limited capillary crossing

c)

Isotonic crystalloids

3.

Commonly used for hypovolemic shock

67.

Sympathomimetics are indicated when a patient is unresponsive to which initial approach?

a)

Immediate blood transfusion without fluids

b)

Vigorous fluid therapy

c)

Long-term antibiotic therapy

d)

Electrolyte restriction

68.

Which of the following are listed as examples of sympathomimetics for managing shock?

a)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

Dopamine and dobutamine

c)

Phenylephrine and vasopressin

d)

Atropine and adenosine

69.

When sympathomimetics are used because perfusion and vasomotor tone have not returned to acceptable levels, what monitoring is recommended?

a)

Respiratory rate only

b)

Blood pressure and ECG monitoring

c)

Urine output only

d)

Central venous oxygen saturation alone

70.

Match the clinical parameter with the status that justifies initiating sympathomimetics.

a)

Arterial blood pressure

1.

Has not returned to acceptable levels

b)

Vasomotor tone

2.

Has not returned to acceptable levels

c)

Tissue perfusion

3.

Has not returned to acceptable levels

71.

Which parameter directly reflects arterial oxygenation using a noninvasive sensor in patients with shock?

a)

Electrocardiogram

b)

Oxygen saturation

c)

Central venous pressure

d)

Hematocrit

72.

Which measure provides a continuous assessment of systemic perfusion pressure in shock management?

a)

Arterial blood pressure

b)

Urinary output

c)

Total protein

d)

Electrolytes

73.

Identify the monitoring tool primarily used to detect cardiac rhythm abnormalities during shock.

a)

Central venous pressure

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Colloid osmotic pressure

d)

Blood gases

74.

Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring most directly informs clinicians about which physiologic aspect during shock care?

a)

Pulmonary compliance

b)

Right-sided preload/venous return

c)

Systemic vascular resistance

d)

Arterial oxygen content

75.

Match each monitoring category to an example parameter used in the ongoing evaluation of a patient in shock.

a)

Physiologic parameter

1.

Arterial blood pressure

b)

Laboratory parameter

2.

Hematocrit and total protein

c)

Physiologic parameter

3.

Electrocardiogram

d)

Laboratory parameter

4.

Blood gases and pH

76.

Which parameter from laboratory monitoring best assesses the acid–base status of a patient with shock?

a)

Electrolytes

b)

Colloid osmotic pressure

c)

Blood gases and pH

d)

Total protein alone

77.

A drop in hematocrit and total protein during resuscitation most likely indicates which clinical issue?

a)

Improved oxygenation

b)

Hemodilution or blood loss

c)

Increased cardiac output

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

78.

Which pair lists one physiologic and one laboratory parameter, respectively, used in shock monitoring?

a)

Urinary output; electrolytes

b)

Colloid osmotic pressure; CVP

c)

Hematocrit; ECG

d)

Blood gases; arterial blood pressure