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Unit 5 Review

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines a social movement in U.S. politics?

a)

A temporary campaign that focuses only on electing a specific candidate

b)

Groups that educate the public and put pressure on policymakers to bring about societal change

c)

A formal government agency that enforces existing laws without public input

d)

A private business coalition that seeks profit through market competition

2.

Which constitutional amendment granted black males the right to vote?

a)

13th Amendment

b)

14th Amendment

c)

15th Amendment

d)

19th Amendment

3.

Pair each amendment to the group whose voting rights it expanded: 15th Amendment; 19th Amendment.

a)

15th—women; 19th—black males

b)

15th—black males; 19th—women

c)

15th—property owners; 19th—non-citizens

d)

15th—former slaves only; 19th—men without property

4.

A state proposes a law to restrict women from voting in primary elections. Which amendment would most directly conflict with this proposal?

a)

15th Amendment

b)

17th Amendment

c)

19th Amendment

d)

24th Amendment

5.

What barrier to voting did the 24th Amendment specifically remove?

a)

Literacy tests

b)

Residency requirements

c)

Poll taxes

d)

Party registration

6.

Which amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?

a)

22nd Amendment

b)

23rd Amendment

c)

24th Amendment

d)

26th Amendment

7.

A policy proposal suggests raising the voting age back to 21. Which amendment would it conflict with unless the Constitution were amended again?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Fourteenth Amendment

c)

Twenty-Fourth Amendment

d)

Twenty-Sixth Amendment

8.

Which statement best defines political efficacy?

a)

Feeling satisfied with election outcomes regardless of participation

b)

Believing that your vote matters and that you can make effective political change

c)

Trusting only national elections and ignoring local ones

d)

Supporting a specific political party without voting

9.

A person with high political efficacy is most likely to do which of the following?

a)

Avoid political discussions

b)

Assume elections are predetermined

c)

Participate in voting because they believe it can create change

d)

Refuse to register to vote

10.

According to the voter demographics listed, which group is MOST likely to vote?

a)

Women over the age of 60 who are educated

b)

Men under 25 with no college education

c)

New voters who recently turned 18

d)

People who dislike politics

11.

Which combination reflects the listed demographics most likely to vote?

a)

Male, young, less educated

b)

Female, older than 60, educated

c)

Female, under 25, not educated

d)

Any gender, middle-aged, uneducated

12.

What does the term GOTV most directly refer to in U.S. elections?

a)

Counting ballots after polls close

b)

Mobilization of voters (getting people to vote)

c)

Designing campaign advertisements

d)

Registering political parties

13.

Which scenario best illustrates GOTV in action?

a)

A news outlet reports election results on TV.

b)

Volunteers call registered citizens to remind them to vote and offer rides to the polls.

c)

A candidate drafts a new policy platform.

d)

Officials draw new district boundaries.

14.

Which statement best defines Rational Choice Voting as presented?

a)

Voting strictly based on party identification

b)

Voting for a candidate you believe will benefit you personally

c)

Voting for the incumbent regardless of issues

d)

Voting randomly to protest the system

15.

Party line (straight ticket) voting primarily involves which action?

a)

Choosing candidates after evaluating personal benefits

b)

Splitting the ticket between multiple parties

c)

Choosing all candidates that align with your party

d)

Abstaining from voting in down-ballot races

16.

A voter selects a candidate because that candidate’s policies would directly reduce the voter’s taxes. Which voting behavior type does this illustrate?

a)

Rational Choice Voting

b)

Party Line/straight ticket voting

c)

Random-choice voting

d)

Retrospective voting

17.

A voter marks the ballot for every candidate from the same political party without reviewing individual positions. Which voting behavior type does this illustrate?

a)

Rational Choice Voting

b)

Party Line/straight ticket voting

c)

Split-ticket voting

d)

Issue-based independent voting

18.

Which phrase best defines prospective voting?

a)

Judging a candidate by their past performance in office

b)

Voting based on party identification alone

c)

Voting based on what you believe the candidate will be able to do once elected

d)

Choosing the incumbent because of name recognition

19.

A voter supports a challenger because they expect the candidate to lower taxes if elected. Which voting behavior is this an example of?

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Split-ticket voting

d)

Party-line voting

20.

Which statement best captures retrospective voting?

a)

Voting based on future promises and expectations

b)

Voting based on what the candidate has done in elected office

c)

Voting based on media endorsements

d)

Voting based on opinion polls before Election Day

21.

A voter evaluates the incumbent’s record on job growth and decides to vote against them. What type of voting is being used?

a)

Prospective voting

b)

Compulsory voting

c)

Retrospective voting

d)

Strategic voting

22.

Which statement expresses a key criticism of the Electoral College highlighted in the lesson?

a)

It guarantees the national popular vote winner becomes president.

b)

It sometimes allows the popular vote winner to lose the electoral vote (the presidency).

c)

It requires a national runoff election in every state.

d)

It allocates electoral votes equally to all states regardless of population.

23.

In the U.S. Electoral College, what does the Winner Take All system mean at the state level?

a)

Electoral votes are divided proportionally among candidates.

b)

Only third-party candidates can receive electoral votes.

c)

The candidate with the plurality of a state’s popular vote receives all that state’s electoral votes.

d)

A candidate must win a national majority to receive any electoral votes.

24.

Which scenario best illustrates the criticism discussed about the Electoral College?

a)

A candidate wins the most electoral votes and the most popular votes.

b)

A candidate wins the national popular vote but loses the presidency due to fewer electoral votes.

c)

Two candidates tie in both the popular and electoral votes.

d)

A candidate wins a state by a large margin but receives only half of its electoral votes.

25.

Which statement about the Winner Take All system is accurate according to the definition provided?

a)

It awards all of a state’s electoral votes to the candidate who wins a plurality in that state.

b)

It splits a state’s electoral votes among all candidates who receive at least 10% of the vote.

c)

It requires a candidate to win a majority nationwide before any electoral votes are assigned.

d)

It eliminates the difference between the popular vote and electoral vote.

26.

Which definition best matches the term Swing State?

a)

A state that consistently votes for one party by a large margin

b)

A state where levels of support for the parties are similar and elections swing back and forth between Republicans and Democrats

c)

A state that is not allowed to vote in federal elections

d)

A state that always decides elections because it has the most electoral votes

27.

Which statement best defines a Battleground state?

a)

A state where one party dominates every election

b)

A state where the election results are very close between the two parties

c)

A state that holds primary elections only

d)

A state with no electoral college votes

28.

A campaign has limited resources and must choose one type of state to visit first to potentially change the outcome. Based on the definitions provided, which type should they prioritize?

a)

Safe state

b)

Swing state

c)

Nonvoting territory

d)

Single-party state

29.

If recent polls show nearly equal support for both major parties and the final tally is expected to be extremely close, how would this state most accurately be categorized?

a)

Battleground state

b)

One-party stronghold

c)

Safe Democratic state

d)

Safe Republican state

30.

Which Supreme Court case held that corporations have First Amendment free speech protections in the context of political spending?

a)

Buckley v. Valeo

b)

McCutcheon v. FEC

c)

Citizens United v. FEC

d)

Shaw v. Reno

31.

According to the material, what did the Citizens United ruling help enable?

a)

The abolition of all campaign finance limits

b)

The creation of Super PACs

c)

Public financing for all federal candidates

d)

Direct corporate donations to candidates

32.

Which statement best defines a Super PAC?

a)

A committee that can coordinate directly with a candidate's campaign

b)

An independent expenditure committee that can spend unlimited money on ads but cannot coordinate with a candidate

c)

A traditional PAC that gives limited amounts directly to candidates

d)

A government agency that enforces election laws

33.

Which of the following is prohibited for corporations, labor unions, and associations under the rules described?

a)

Funding independent expenditures

b)

Giving directly to a candidate

c)

Purchasing political advertisements

d)

Advocating for policy positions in public

34.

Which structural feature of U.S. elections makes it hard for third parties to win seats?

a)

Proportional representation in multi-member districts

b)

Winner-take-all, single-member congressional districts

c)

Mandatory public financing for all candidates

d)

Open-list party ballots

35.

Which barrier listed is an informal (not structural) obstacle for third parties?

a)

Winner-take-all rules

b)

Single-member congressional districts

c)

Difficulty fundraising

d)

Ballot access laws written into state statutes

36.

A voter says, "I won’t vote for a third-party candidate because they can’t win here." Which informal barrier does this illustrate?

a)

Main parties absorb their issues

b)

Lack of media attention

c)

Wasting their vote

d)

Single-member districts

37.

Under winner-take-all, single-member congressional districts, what is the typical outcome for third-party candidates in most races?

a)

They gain seats proportional to their vote share

b)

They win the second-place seat

c)

They often receive votes but win no representation

d)

They automatically qualify for televised debates

38.

Which statement best defines a party platform in U.S. politics?

a)

The official list of party leaders for the next election cycle

b)

A set of positions and policy objectives that members of a political party agree to

c)

A fundraising plan used during campaigns

d)

A list of laws passed by a party while in office

39.

When and where is a party platform regularly updated?

a)

Every 2 years during midterm elections

b)

Every presidential election year at the National Convention

c)

Only when a party wins the presidency

d)

At the start of each congressional session

40.

Which statement best defines the Elite theory of democracy as presented?

a)

Power is rotated randomly among citizens each year.

b)

The wealthy class holds a disproportionate amount of economic and political power.

c)

Government power is evenly shared among many competing groups.

d)

Citizens directly vote on every law without representatives.

41.

According to the Pluralist Theory of Democracy, why can no single group grow too powerful?

a)

Courts automatically dissolve large groups.

b)

Elections remove groups after one term.

c)

Political power is distributed among many competing groups.

d)

All power is concentrated in the wealthy elite.

42.

Which scenario best illustrates Participatory Democracy as described?

a)

A small circle of wealthy donors sets policy priorities in private meetings.

b)

Multiple interest groups compete, making compromise likely.

c)

Citizens influence policymaking through involvement in civil society.

d)

A monarch consults nobles before issuing decrees.

43.

Which theory most directly emphasizes the role of wealthy individuals in shaping political outcomes?

a)

Participatory Democracy

b)

Elite theory of democracy

c)

Pluralist Theory of Democracy

44.

If a policymaking process features many interest groups competing so none dominates, which democratic theory is being demonstrated?

a)

Elite theory of democracy

b)

Pluralist Theory of Democracy

c)

Participatory Democracy

d)

Authoritarianism

45.

Which core idea is shared by both the Pluralist Theory of Democracy and Participatory Democracy?

a)

Political power is concentrated in the wealthy class.

b)

Citizen or group involvement helps shape policy outcomes.

c)

Military leaders should control the government.

d)

Only direct votes on laws are legitimate.

46.

Which statement best defines linkage institutions in U.S. politics?

a)

Organizations that write and pass laws directly

b)

Structures that connect the people to the government

c)

Private businesses that fund government agencies

d)

Courts that interpret the Constitution

47.

Which of the following is included as a linkage institution?

a)

The Supreme Court

b)

Political parties

c)

The Federal Reserve Board

d)

Cabinet departments

48.

Which example shows how elections function as a linkage institution?

a)

Judges issue rulings on constitutional cases

b)

Voters choose representatives to express their preferences to government

c)

Congress holds closed-door committee meetings

d)

The president issues an executive order

49.

What is the defining feature of candidate-centered campaigns?

a)

Parties fully control messaging and fundraising

b)

Candidates rely primarily on endorsements from party elites

c)

Candidates develop their own strategies and raise money with less party influence

d)

Campaigns focus only on local issues decided by city councils

50.

According to the vocabulary bank, what is the main goal of political parties?

a)

To enact any policy they favor directly

b)

To get their candidates elected into office

c)

To organize voluntary associations

d)

To regulate elections without candidates

51.

Which statement best defines interest groups as presented in the vocabulary bank?

a)

Government agencies that run elections

b)

Voluntary associations aiming to get policies they favor enacted

c)

Organizations that nominate candidates for office

d)

Courts that interpret policies after passage

52.

Which outcome would most directly indicate a political party achieved its primary objective?

a)

A favored bill is enacted into law

b)

Its candidate wins an election and takes office

c)

A new association of members forms

d)

A court upholds an existing policy

53.

A group of citizens forms an organization to push for a specific environmental policy to be passed. Based on the vocabulary bank, this organization is best described as which of the following?

a)

A political party

b)

An interest group

c)

A government agency

d)

A court

54.

Which statement best defines a free rider in the context of interest groups?

a)

A person who pays dues to an interest group but does not attend meetings

b)

An individual who enjoys the collective goods and benefits from the actions of interest groups without joining

c)

A member who receives extra perks for volunteering

d)

An activist who organizes group protests

55.

Selective benefits are best described as which of the following?

a)

Benefits available to everyone affected by an issue

b)

Benefits available only to those who join the interest group

c)

Benefits provided by the government regardless of membership

d)

Benefits given to nonmembers to encourage free riding

56.

Which scenario illustrates the free rider problem?

a)

Only dues-paying members receive the group's magazine

b)

A resident enjoys cleaner air after an interest group wins stricter pollution laws but never joins the group

c)

Members receive discounted training workshops

d)

An interest group limits access to its research library to members

57.

Interest groups often offer selective benefits primarily to:

a)

Reward nonmembers for supporting the cause informally

b)

Discourage membership growth

c)

Overcome the free rider problem by incentivizing people to join

d)

Provide collective goods to the general public

58.

Voting exclusively for the candidates of one party, is ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
party-line voting
prospective voting
split-ticket voting
exit poll