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Livestock Judging Test Bank Part 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Gilts selected for breeding should:

a)

Come from small litters

b)

Have poor udders

c)

Have 6–7 functional teats per side

d)

Be narrow at the chest floor

2.

Leanest cuts can be evaluated using:

a)

Weight alone

b)

Ultrasound technology

c)

Hair thickness

d)

Tail setting

3.

When ranking a swine class:

a)

Place on type, structure, and muscling

b)

Pick the cutest pig

c)

Ignore performance data

d)

Only evaluate from the front

4.

Improper underline development:

a)

Is irrelevant to sow productivity

b)

Means high milk production

c)

Negatively affects pig survival

d)

Can’t be seen visually

5.

Performance data considerations include:

a)

Litter size, days to market, loin-eye area

b)

Height and weight only

c)

Ear width and snout length

d)

Slope of rump only

6.

A major predator of sheep in the U.S. is:

a)

Bears

b)

Foxes

7.

Which of the following is a sign of poor animal structure?

a)

Too much slope and uneven proportions

b)

Correct body proportions

c)

Proud head carriage

8.

A common way to classify sheep is by:

a)

Ear shape

b)

Wool type

c)

Hoof shape

d)

Eye color

9.

Sheep production in the U.S. is primarily:

a)

Farm flocks in the South

b)

Range flocks in the West

c)

Indoor confinement in the Midwest

d)

Feedlots only

10.

Range production accounts for about:

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

80%

11.

Sheep make a good second farm enterprise because:

a)

They require expensive facilities

b)

They require little labor and low initial cost

c)

They require excessive grain diets

d)

They must be raised alone

12.

The general build or overall appearance of the sheep is called:

a)

Style

b)

Type

c)

Balance

d)

Frame score

13.

The only breed raised for fur in the U.S. is:

a)

Merino

b)

Cheviot

c)

Karakul

d)

Suffolk

14.

The most common breed classification method is:

a)

Country of origin

b)

Carcass type

c)

Wool type

d)

Ear size

15.

The pelt refers to:

a)

Internal organs

b)

The skin and fleece

c)

Facial structure

d)

Hooves

16.

Sheep that stay together naturally show:

a)

High aggression

b)

Banding (flocking) instinct

c)

Low flight zone

d)

Poor herding skills

17.

Staple in wool terminology refers to:

a)

Wool fiber length

b)

Wool color

c)

Wool cleanliness

d)

Wool elasticity

18.

“Golden Fleece” refers to:

a)

Cheviot fleece

b)

Karakul fleece

c)

Merino fleece

d)

Dry lot fleece

19.

Leading sheep-feeding states include:

a)

Florida, Alabama, Georgia

b)

Colorado, California, Texas, Wyoming

c)

Ohio, Pennsylvania, Maryland

d)

New York and New Jersey

20.

The Delaine Merino:

a)

Has wrinkled skin

b)

Is medium wool only

c)

Grows poorly on range

d)

Produces coarse fleece

21.

Rambouillet sheep are:

a)

Of English origin

b)

Not used in crossbreeding

c)

Popular in Western U.S.

d)

Small-framed

22.

Dorset sheep:

4 lines
23.

Hampshire sheep:

a)

Are horned

b)

Have black face and legs

c)

Are poor for market lambs

d)

Produce little muscle

24.

Columbia sheep:

a)

Are poorly adapted to Western range

b)

Originated in the U.S.

c)

Are horned only

d)

Are fine wool only

25.

Classifying wool types: Long wool breeds:

a)

Used increase lambing percentages only

b)

Used frequently for crossbreeding

c)

Rare in the U.S.

d)

Have low growth performance

26.

When selecting a ram, choose one that:

a)

Matches or improves traits in ewes

b)

Looks best only in shows

c)

Lacks muscle

d)

Has steep rump

27.

Native (farm flock) ewes compared to Western (range) ewes:

a)

Produce more muscular lambs

b)

Declining prolifically

c)

Lower lamb crop

d)

Better on range

28.

Selecting ewes should consider:

a)

Open-fleeced, coarse fibers

b)

Age >6 years

c)

Well-grown yearlings

d)

Animals with bad udders

29.

Sheep age can be determined by:

a)

Horn curl

b)

Permanent teeth in lower jaw

30.

Sheep with heavy bone, muscle, and capacity are typically:

a)

Wool breeds

b)

Meat breeds

c)

Fur breeds

d)

Miniature breeds

31.

The decline of small sheep enterprises is due to:

a)

Increased sheep numbers

b)

Predator problems, low wool price

c)

High lamb pricing

d)

Increased government incentives

32.

Which is a Fine Wool breed?

a)

Rambouillet

b)

Cheviot

c)

Hampshire

d)

Karakul

33.

A Medium Wool breed:

a)

Cheviot

b)

Lincoln

c)

Karakul

d)

Delaine Merino

34.

Long wool breed:

a)

Lincoln

b)

Southdown

c)

Finnsheep

d)

Karakul

35.

Crossbred wool breed:

a)

Columbia

b)

Karakul

c)

Merino

d)

Suffolk

36.

Carpet wool breed:

a)

Black-Faced Highland

b)

Dorset

c)

Southdown

d)

Hampshire

37.

Fur sheep:

a)

Karakul

b)

Shropshire

c)

Merino

d)

Dorset

38.

A buck is:

a)

An unbred female goat

b)

A castrated male goat

c)

An intact male goat

d)

A young female goat

39.

Goats are:

a)

Monogastrics

b)

Ruminants

c)

Hind-gut fermenters

d)

Simple-stomach browsers

40.

The most important trait when evaluating breeding does is:

a)

Color

b)

Horn length

c)

Soundness & structure

d)

Tail set

41.

Fiber goats are judged based on:

a)

Color only

b)

Body and fleece

c)

Height only

d)

Head shape only

42.

Cashmere refers to:

a)

Goat hair from Angoras only

b)

Body and fleece

c)

Height only

d)

Head shape only

43.

Mohair is produced by:

a)

Alpine goats

b)

Angora goats

c)

Nubian goats

d)

Nigerian Dwarf goats

44.

Texas produces approximately what percent of U.S. mohair?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

90%

45.

Browse refers to:

a)

Grains fed to goats

b)

Minerals in salt blocks

c)

Twigs, shoots, leaves goats eat

d)

Fiber collected from goats

46.

Myotonic goats are known for:

a)

Spasms causing temporary stiffness

b)

Extreme horn length

c)

High milk production

d)

Being hornless

47.

A female goat of any age:

a)

Ewe

b)

Sow

c)

Doe

d)

Heifer

48.

Market goats deposit fat:

a)

Over the ribs first

b)

From front to rear first

c)

Inside the body (internal) first

d)

Evenly all over at the same time

49.

Guardian animals for goats include all EXCEPT:

a)

A. Donkeys

b)

B. Great Pyrenees

50.

Meat goats should show:

a)

Light muscle

b)

Thick muscle and wide base

c)

Weak top and steep rump

d)

Early finish and excess fat

51.

A meat goat with good capacity shows:

a)

Large barrel and depth of body

b)

Short body and narrow top

c)

Shallow chest floor

d)

Fine bone and small rumen

52.

Dairy goats should be selected based heavily on:

a)

Milk production traits

b)

Horn length

c)

Hair color pattern

d)

Number of kids born

53.

The French Alpine goat is recognized for:

a)

Long drooping ears

b)

Good milk production, erect ears

c)

Only red coloring

d)

Fiber production only

54.

The LaMancha breed:

a)

Has long erect ears

b)

Has tiny “elf” or “gopher” ears

c)

Is black only

d)

Is an angora goat

55.

The Nubian breed is known for:

a)

Very small size

b)

Long drooping ears

c)

Producing mohair

d)

White-only coloration

56.

The Saanen breed is known for:

a)

Being the largest U.S. dairy breed

b)

Producing cashmere

c)

Being exclusively horned

d)

Poor milk production

57.

The Toggenburg breed coloration:

a)

Solid white

b)

Various patterns with facial stripes

c)

Only black

d)

Always has spots

58.

Growing kids are usually weaned at:

a)

Birth

b)

2 months

c)

1 year

d)

8 months

59.

Loose housing for dairy goats requires about:

a)

5 sq ft per goat

b)

10 sq ft per goat

c)

30 sq ft per goat

d)

No space required

60.

Dairy goats are commonly milked:

a)

Once per day

b)

Twice daily at 12-hour intervals

c)

Every two days

d)

Only when needed

61.

Meat goats in a judging class are typically:

a)

Under 1 year old

b)

3–4 years old

c)

Retired dairy does

d)

Newborn kids

62.

A ranking of 2-4-1-3 means the most desirable animal is:

a)

#1

b)

#2

c)

#3

d)

#4

63.

The topline of a meat goat should be:

a)

Steep

b)

Highly curved

c)

Long and nearly level

d)

Short and sloping

64.

A kid is defined as:

4 lines
65.

Buck kids should be separated from does at:

a)

Birth

b)

2–3 months

c)

8–12 months

d)

Age doesn’t matter

66.

The ranking portion of a livestock evaluation event students justify verbally is called:

a)

Placings

b)

Reasons

c)

Debriefing

d)

Performance notes

67.

Most goats in the U.S. are:

a)

Milk goats

b)

Fiber goats

c)

Meat goats

d)

Dual purpose

68.

Goat meat is:

a)

High in fat and cholesterol

b)

Low in fat and cholesterol

c)

Not consumed in the world

d)

Illegal in the U.S.

69.

A thick fat cover in market goats indicates:

a)

Ideal condition

b)

Too fat

c)

Not finished enough

d)

Lean and efficient growth

70.

Best browse plants for Angoras include:

a)

Corn and wheat

b)

Guajillo and live oak

c)

Bermuda grass only

d)

Only alfalfa hay

71.

Indicators of soundness include:

a)

Weak pasterns

b)

Strong feet and legs

c)

B. Strong feet and legs

d)
72.

The loin is located:

a)

Between the shoulder and ribs

b)

Between ribs and round

c)

Around the brisket

d)

In the lower leg

73.

The round is found on the:

a)

Forequarter

b)

Hindquarter

c)

Belly

d)

Head

74.

The brisket is located on the:

a)

Top of the back

b)

Lower chest

c)

Hind leg

d)

Rump

75.

The ribeye area is measured at which rib?

a)

1st rib

b)

10th rib

c)

12th–13th rib

d)

6th rib

76.

The shoulder wholesale cut of beef is known as:

a)

Chuck

b)

Loin

c)

Round

d)

Flank

77.

The plate is located:

a)

On the back near the loin

b)

Along the belly

c)

In the hind leg

d)

On the head

78.

Swine Anatomy & Cuts The most valuable primal cut on a hog:

a)

Belly

b)

Loin

c)

Hock

d)

Jowl

79.

The Boston butt comes from the:

a)

Ham region

b)

Upper shoulder

c)

Belly

d)

Neck only

80.

Swine Anatomy & Cuts The picnic shoulder is located:

a)

Lower shoulder

b)

Head

c)

Ham

d)

Belly

81.

Swine Anatomy & Cuts The ham refers to:

a)

Shoulder blade

b)

Hind leg

c)

Rib section

d)

Snout area

82.

Swine Anatomy & Cuts The spare ribs come from the:

a)

Loin

b)

Belly

c)

Ham

d)

Foot

83.

The leg of lamb is the:

a)

Foreleg

b)

Hind leg

c)

Belly cut

d)

Rib section

84.

The rack is the:

a)

Shoulder section

b)

Belly section

c)

Rib section

d)

Flank

85.

The loin of lamb is located:

a)

Behind the rack

b)

In front of the leg

c)

At the shoulder

d)

Under the belly

86.

A strong topline indicates:

a)

Weak muscle structure

b)

Good balance and muscling

c)

Poor structural soundness

d)

Poor market readiness

87.

Finish in goats refers to:

a)

Internal organ fat

b)

Muscle score only

c)

Coat condition

d)

Bone thickness

88.

Width between the hocks suggests:

a)

Narrow muscle

b)

Strong muscling

c)

Lack of capacity

d)

Structural unsoundness

89.

Black cattle that are polled and known for carcass quality:

a)

Hereford

b)

Angus

c)

Shorthorn

d)

Charolais

90.

White beef cattle with high feed efficiency:

a)

A. Brahman

b)

B. Simmental

c)

C. Charolais

d)

D. Angus

91.

Beef breed with hump, loose skin, heat tolerance:

a)

Brahman

b)

Shorthorn

c)

Simmental

d)

Hereford

92.

Sheep breed with a black face and legs:

a)

Dorset

b)

Hampshire

c)

Rambouillet

d)

Karakul

93.

White hog with erect ears:

a)

Yorkshire

b)

Duroc

c)

Hampshire

d)

Chester White

94.

Black hog with a white belt:

a)

Hereford

b)

Berkshire

c)

Hampshire

d)

Poland China

95.

Red hog with forward-drooping ears:

a)

Duroc

b)

Pietrain

c)

Chester White

d)

Landrace

96.

Dairy goat breed with "gopher ears":

(a)  

97.

Goat breed producing mohair:

a)

Nigerian Dwarf

b)

Boer

c)

Angora

d)

Nubian

98.

Fur sheep used for pelts:

a)

Suffolk

b)

Columbia

c)

Karakul

d)

Cheviot

99.

A hog that is narrow-based likely has:

a)

Strong muscling

b)

Weak muscling

c)

Too much fat

d)

High carcass cutout

100.

A beef animal with a steep rump indicates:

a)

Ideal muscle

b)

Skeleton issues that reduce productivity

c)

Strong maternal value

d)

Better yield grade