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Overview and Functional Divisions of the Nervous System

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

a)

Includes brain and spinal cord; processes and sends signals controlling body functions

b)

Includes cranial and spinal nerves only; carries information to and from the CNS

c)

Controls only voluntary movement

d)

Primarily regulates digestion and heart rate automatically

2.

Which structures are included in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?

a)

Cranial nerves

b)

Spinal nerves

c)

Brain and spinal cord

d)

Organs and glands

e)

Limbs and skin

3.

Which statement about CNS and PNS interaction is most accurate?

a)

They operate independently for most functions.

b)

They must cooperate at all times to ensure normal body function.

c)

The CNS only receives information but never sends signals to the PNS.

d)

The PNS only controls automatic functions.

4.

Afferent (sensory) pathways are best remembered by which mnemonic and direction?

a)

Efferent = Exits the CNS; impulses to periphery

b)

Afferent = Arrives at the CNS; impulses from periphery to CNS

c)

Afferent = Away from CNS; impulses to muscles

d)

Efferent = Enters the CNS; impulses from receptors

5.

Touching a hot stove sends a signal to the brain via which division?

a)

Afferent (sensory)

b)

Efferent (motor)

c)

Autonomic

d)

Parasympathetic

6.

Which description defines the efferent (motor) division?

a)

Transmits impulses from peripheral organs to the CNS causing sensation

b)

Transmits impulses from the CNS to peripheral organs causing an effect or action

c)

Controls involuntary functions like heart rate exclusively

d)

Connects only to skeletal muscle reflexes

7.

After touching a hot stove, pulling your hand away is mediated by which division?

a)

Afferent (sensory)

b)

Efferent (motor)

c)

Somatic sensory

d)

Cerebral cortex only

8.

Which body functions are primarily controlled by the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Breathing (respirations)

c)

Voluntary limb movement

d)

Digestion

9.

Which changes are typical of Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) activation?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Decreased digestion

c)

Decreased blood pressure

d)

Increased respirations

10.

Being startled or angry most directly triggers which system?

a)

Parasympathetic nervous system

b)

Central nervous system

c)

Somatic nervous system

d)

Sympathetic nervous system

11.

Which statement characterizes the Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS) within the ANS?

a)

Activated in stress; prepares for fight or flight

b)

Increases blood pressure and respirations

c)

Activated during relaxation; promotes digestion and calm

d)

Causes muscle wasting

12.

During parasympathetic dominance, which physiological changes occur?

a)

Heart rate decreases

b)

Blood pressure decreases

c)

Respirations decrease

d)

Digestion is inhibited

13.

Which sequence correctly outlines the reflex arc pathway?

a)

Stimulus → Motor neuron → Sensory neuron → Reflex muscle movement

b)

Stimulus → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Reflex muscle movement

c)

Receptor → Brain cortex → Spinal cord → Effector muscle

d)

Stimulus → Interneuron only → Reflex muscle movement

14.

A tap on the patellar tendon causing an involuntary leg kick exemplifies what?

a)

Voluntary motor planning

b)

Reflex arc at work

c)

Parasympathetic activation

d)

Conscious sensory integration

15.

Match each neurological term to its definition.

a)

Ataxia

b)

Atrophy

c)

Hemiplegia

d)

Dysphasia

e)

Diplopia

16.

Which term best describes paralysis of one side of the body (arm and leg)?

a)

Ataxia

b)

Atrophy

c)

Hemiplegia

d)

Dysphasia

17.

Which brain structure is the largest part of the brain and controls voluntary muscle movement, speech, emotions, and learning?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Brainstem

d)

Hypothalamus

18.

Damage to the cerebrum most directly risks which outcome?

a)

Ataxia (unsteady gait)

b)

Respiratory failure

c)

Aphasia or paralysis on one side

d)

Temperature regulation failure

19.

Where is the cerebellum located?

a)

Front of the brain, above the brainstem

b)

Back of the head, beneath the cerebrum

c)

Deep center, near the hypothalamus

d)

Within the spinal cord

20.

Which functions are primarily controlled by the cerebellum? Select all that apply.

a)

Balance (walking, standing)

b)

Coordination of movement

c)

Speech and thought

d)

Heart rate

21.

The brainstem connects the brain to the spinal cord and includes which parts?

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Thalamus

d)

Cerebral cortex

22.

Injury to which structure can be immediately life‑threatening due to effects on breathing and vital signs?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brainstem

d)

Hypothalamus

23.

Which set lists only vital life functions controlled by the brainstem?

a)

Respiration, heart rate, blood pressure, swallowing

b)

Speech, emotions, memory, learning

c)

Balance, coordination, posture

d)

Temperature control, thirst, homeostasis

24.

The hypothalamus is best described as a small but powerful gland that primarily regulates which of the following? Select all that apply.

a)

Body temperature

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Thirst

d)

Voluntary movement

25.

Failure to regulate body temperature due to hypothalamic injury can result in which conditions?

a)

Hypothermia or hyperthermia

b)

Ataxia

c)

Aphasia

d)

Seizures only

26.

Which disorder is a progressive demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that affects movement and coordination?

a)

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

ALS

d)

Seizure disorder

27.

In which disorder do patients lose motor function while mental function remains intact, often feeling “trapped” in their bodies?

a)

Seizure disorder

b)

ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)

c)

TIA

d)

Parkinson’s disease

28.

Decreased dopamine leading to tremors, rigidity, and slow movement characterizes which disease?

a)

ALS

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Multiple Sclerosis

d)

Stroke

29.

A stroke (CVA) is defined as which event?

a)

Temporary loss of blood flow to the brain

b)

Sudden abnormal electrical brain activity

c)

Loss of blood flow to part of the brain causing cell death

d)

Nerve degeneration with intact cognition

30.

Which statement correctly distinguishes ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke?

a)

Ischemic is bleeding into brain; hemorrhagic is blockage

b)

Ischemic is blockage (lack of oxygen); hemorrhagic is bleeding

c)

Both involve temporary loss of blood flow only

d)

Neither requires immediate intervention

31.

ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) requires getting the patient to the cath lab within approximately how long to restore blood flow?

a)

30 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

90 minutes

d)

120 minutes

32.

“Time = Tissue” emphasizes what key action in emergencies like stroke and STEMI?

a)

Delay imaging to avoid radiation

b)

Fast response to save cells by restoring perfusion

c)

Treat pain first, then circulation

d)

Observe for 24 hours before intervention

33.

During any emergency assessment, what does A–B–C stand for?

a)

Alertness, Blood sugar, Capillary refill

b)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

c)

Assessment, Baseline, Care plan

d)

Arterial blood gas, Breaths, Chest compressions

34.

Which statement best reflects the integration concept for prioritizing care?

a)

Treat limb injuries before airway issues to preserve mobility

b)

The heart, lungs, and brain function independently

c)

Prioritize life over limb; airway and breathing take precedence

d)

Focus on neurological exam before circulation

35.

Match each brain area to a typical damage effect based on the quick review table.

a)

Cerebrum → Aphasia/paralysis

b)

Cerebellum → Ataxia/unsteady gait

c)

Brainstem → Respiratory failure/coma

d)

Hypothalamus → Temperature regulation failure

36.

Which pairing of brain area and primary function is accurate?

a)

Cerebellum — speech and thought

b)

Hypothalamus — temperature and blood pressure control

c)

Cerebrum — heart rate and respiration

d)

Brainstem — balance and coordination

37.

Which vital functions are jointly controlled by the pons and medulla oblongata? Select all that apply.

a)

Respiration

b)

Heart rate

c)

Visual acuity

d)

Blood pressure

e)

Facial expression

38.

A brainstem stroke damaging the medulla most directly threatens which immediate priority?

a)

Renal perfusion

b)

Airway protection and breathing

c)

Long-term memory

d)

Fine motor coordination

39.

Which outcome is commonly associated with severe brainstem strokes due to involvement of vital life functions?

a)

Typically excellent

b)

Typically poor

c)

Variable but often full recovery

d)

Always fatal

40.

Which nursing action aligns with ABCs when caring for a patient with suspected brainstem injury?

a)

Encourage early ambulation

b)

Assess airway, breathing, and circulation first

c)

Begin cognitive screening first

d)

Restrict oral fluids immediately

41.

Impaired swallowing after a brainstem stroke increases the risk of which complication?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Aspiration

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Renal failure

42.

Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for smell, and what is a key assessment?

a)

I Olfactory — identify scents

b)

II Optic — visual acuity

c)

VIII Vestibulocochlear — hearing test

d)

XII Hypoglossal — stick out tongue

43.

Which cranial nerve controls visual acuity?

a)

II Optic

b)

III Oculomotor

c)

IV Trochlear

d)

VI Abducens

44.

Which cranial nerve is assessed by checking PERRLA (pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation)?

a)

III Oculomotor

b)

V Trigeminal

c)

VII Facial

d)

XI Accessory (Spinal)

45.

Following a finger laterally primarily tests which cranial nerve?

a)

IV Trochlear

b)

VI Abducens

c)

VIII Vestibulocochlear

d)

X Vagus

46.

Touch sensation on the face and jaw strength evaluate which cranial nerve?

a)

V Trigeminal

b)

VII Facial

c)

IX Glossopharyngeal

d)

XII Hypoglossal

47.

Smile, frown, and raise eyebrows are key assessments for which cranial nerve?

a)

VII Facial

b)

XI Accessory (Spinal)

c)

VIII Vestibulocochlear

d)

I Olfactory

48.

Voice, swallowing, heart rate, and digestion are associated with which cranial nerve?

a)

IX Glossopharyngeal

b)

X Vagus

c)

XI Accessory (Spinal)

d)

XII Hypoglossal

49.

Which structures make up the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Brain and peripheral nerves

c)

Spinal cord and autonomic nerves

d)

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves

50.

Which safety practice is specifically recommended to protect the CNS during biking, skating, and sports?

a)

Use of knee braces

b)

Wearing helmets

c)

Using elbow pads only

d)

Avoiding outdoor activities

51.

Seatbelts primarily help prevent fatal outcomes in which scenario related to CNS protection?

a)

Motor vehicle accidents

b)

Swimming

c)

Rock climbing

d)

Skiing

52.

Which items are listed as workplace personal protective equipment (PPE) relevant to CNS protection? Select all that apply.

a)

Hard hats

b)

Steel-toed boots

c)

Goggles

d)

Earplugs

53.

Which is identified as a common CNS injury?

a)

Traumatic brain injury (TBI)

b)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

c)

Sprained ankle

d)

Tendonitis

54.

Diving accidents are commonly associated with which specific type of injury mentioned for young adults during spring break?

a)

Lumbar disc herniation

b)

Cervical spine injury

c)

Concussion only

d)

Pelvic fracture

55.

Falls in older adults commonly lead to which outcome related to the CNS?

a)

Head trauma

b)

Wrist sprain

c)

Ankle fracture

d)

Lung contusion

56.

What does anoxia mean?

a)

Excess carbon dioxide in tissues

b)

Absence of oxygen to tissues

c)

Low blood sugar

d)

High blood pressure

57.

Which is the correct sequence of the ABCs of CPR?

a)

Breathing, Airway, Circulation

b)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

c)

Circulation, Airway, Breathing

d)

Airway, Circulation, Breathing

58.

During CPR, where should you check the pulse in an adult?

a)

Radial artery

b)

Carotid artery

c)

Femoral artery

d)

Brachial artery

59.

Which initial actions are specified once CPR is started? Select all that apply.

a)

Open the airway

b)

Give 2 breaths

c)

Begin chest compressions

d)

Call for advanced life support only

60.

A decrease in which neurotransmitter is noted in Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Epinephrine

61.

Which neurotransmitter imbalance is associated with Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Decreased dopamine

b)

Increased serotonin

c)

Decreased norepinephrine

d)

Increased acetylcholine

62.

Which statement about norepinephrine (noradrenaline) is accurate?

a)

It is used in EpiPen.

b)

It works with the sympathetic nervous system.

c)

It primarily regulates mood and sleep.

d)

It is decreased in Parkinson’s disease.

63.

Runner’s high is most directly linked to a surge of which chemicals?

a)

Serotonin and acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine and endorphins

c)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

Glutamate and GABA

64.

Which neurotransmitter is commonly decreased in depression according to the material?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Epinephrine

65.

Epinephrine is correctly linked with which clinical use?

a)

Treatment for depression

b)

Used in EpiPen

c)

Antipsychotic medication

d)

Muscle relaxant

66.

An older adult reports feeling cold easily. Which age-related change is most consistent with this complaint?

a)

Decreased homeostasis

b)

Decreased pupil size

c)

Decreased temperature regulation

d)

Decreased cerebral blood flow

67.

Which manifestations are commonly associated with decreased dopamine in aging? Select all that apply.

a)

Tremors

b)

Slowed movement

c)

Forgetfulness

d)

Increased light adaptation

68.

What is the expected effect of decreased reflexes in aging?

a)

Improved balance

b)

Increased falls and injuries

c)

Faster responses

d)

Reduced dizziness

69.

Which activity best represents cognitive stimulation to help keep the brain active?

a)

Watching television passively

b)

Sudoku and puzzles

c)

Skipping meals

d)

Avoiding technology use

70.

During a focused neuro assessment, which element assesses orientation?

a)

Asking the patient to lift an arm

b)

Checking PERRLA

c)

Asking person, place, time, and situation

d)

Testing grip strength

71.

Which list correctly names common levels of consciousness (LOC) used in a neuro assessment?

a)

Alert, euphoric, manic, unresponsive

b)

Alert, drowsy, stuporous, unresponsive

c)

Asleep, awake, excited, confused

d)

Lucid, delirious, comatose, anxious

72.

Which safety measure specifically targets prevention of drowning?

a)

Use age-appropriate car seats

b)

Wear helmets

c)

Teach swimming and constant supervision

d)

Use gloves with chemicals

73.

Which recreational drugs are noted to damage nasal passages and brain vessels, highlighting a prevention priority?

a)

Cannabis and LSD

b)

Cocaine and meth

c)

Heroin and fentanyl

d)

Alcohol and nicotine

74.

Match each neurologic disorder category with a representative example.

a)

Huntington’s disease is Genetic/Developmental

b)

Head injuries are Traumatic

c)

Meningitis is Infectious

d)

ALS is Degenerative

75.

Which disorders are classified as neuromuscular in the provided scheme? Select all that apply.

a)

ALS

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Bell’s palsy

d)

Parkinson’s disease