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Exam 3 (Peds) - GI/Autism

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SATA: What are the most common consequences of GI dysfunction in children?

a)

rapid weight gain

b)

fluid and electrolyte imbalances

c)

malnutrition

d)

poor growth

e)

malabsorption

2.

Diarrhea in children is associated with abnormal intestinal water and _______ transport.

a)

electrolyte

b)

protein

c)

lipid

d)

glucose

3.

Diarrhea has higher rates of mortality and morbidity among infants and children under 5 years old.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Which type of diarrhea is often infectious, such as gastroenteritis?

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

c)

Osmotic

d)

Secretory

5.

What is the first step in therapeutic management for dehydration?

a)

Initiate oral or IV rehydration as appropriate.

b)

Administer antibiotics immediately.

c)

Begin with surgical intervention.

d)

Restrict all fluid intake.

6.

In regards to nursing management of diarrhea, what is the guideline for replacing ongoing stool losses?

a)

Replace ongoing stool losses 1:1 with oral rehydration solution

b)

Replace ongoing stool losses 2:1 with plain water

c)

Replace ongoing stool losses 1:2 with intravenous fluids only

d)

Do not replace ongoing stool losses unless dehydration occurs

7.

What is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents called?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Regurgitation

c)

Absorption

d)

Exhalation

8.

What is the typical etiology of pediatric vomiting according to the worksheet?

a)

Gastroenteritis

b)

GERD

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Crohn's

9.

Which of the following should be ruled out as causes of vomiting?

a)

Head trauma

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Migraine

d)

All of the above

10.

Pica is characterized by the ingestion of which types of substances?

a)

Only food picas

b)

Only nonfood picas

c)

Food picas and nonfood picas

d)

Only liquids

11.

The physiologic theory of pica states that:

a)

Pica arises from malnutrition and unmet needs.

b)

Pica arises from compulsive neuroses.

c)

Pica arises from congenital defects.

d)

Pica is an autosomal recessive disorder.

12.

The psychologic theory of pica states that:

a)

Pica arises from malnutrition and unmet needs.

b)

Pica arises from compulsive neuroses.

c)

Pica arises from congenital defects.

d)

Pica is an autosomal recessive disorder.

13.

Constipation is a ______ rather than a disease.

a)

symptom

b)

byproduct

c)

infection

d)

disorder

14.

Within how many hours of life should the first meconium be passed in the newborn period?

a)

24-36 hours

b)

12-18 hours

c)

48-60 hours

d)

72-84 hours

15.

SATA: If the first meconium is not passed in an appropriate timeframe, select some conditions to assess for.

a)

Hirschsprung disease

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Intussusception

d)

Gastroesophageal reflux

e)

Cystic fibrosis

16.

Constipation in exclusively breast-fed infants is almost unknown.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What is encopresis?

a)

Pediatric constipation.

b)

Inappropriate passage of feces, often with soiling.

c)

Pediatric diarrhea.

d)

Inappropriate passage of urine and stool simultaneously.

18.

SATA: What are the 3 "Fs" of pediatric encopresis management?

a)

Fiber increase

b)

Fluid increase

c)

Fitness increase

d)

Fiber decrease

e)

Fecal increase

19.

Fill in the blank: Encopresis may result from _______.

a)

stress

b)

exercise

c)

sunlight

d)

hydration

20.

Which of the following is an age-appropriate dietary modification for encopresis?

a)

High-fiber diet

b)

High-sugar diet

c)

Low-fluid diet

d)

High-fat diet

21.

Management of obstruction in encopresis may require ______ months of behavioral, dietary, and pharmacologic interventions.

a)

6-12

b)

1-2

c)

3-5

d)

7-9

22.

Cleft lip and palate can occur independently or together.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the primary cause of cleft lip and palate?

a)

Failure of facial tissues to fuse during early gestation.

b)

Vitamin C deficiency during pregnancy.

c)

Neural thrombus defect in pregnancy due to maternal lack of folic acid.

d)

Improper feeding techniques after birth.

24.

Which anatomical structures are involved in cleft lip? (Highly doubt she'll ask about this on the exam)

a)

Vermillion border, Cupid’s bow, and philtrum.

b)

Mandible, maxilla, and zygomatic arch.

c)

Nasal septum, inferior turbinate, and hard palate.

d)

Tongue, soft palate, and uvula.

25.

What is the cause of cleft palate?

a)

Incomplete fusion of palatal shelves.

b)

Excessive growth of the mandible.

c)

Overproduction of saliva during development.

d)

Premature eruption of teeth.

26.

Etiology: Which gene mutation is associated with cleft lip and palate?

a)

BMP4 gene mutation

b)

CFTR gene mutation

c)

HTT gene mutation

d)

BRCA1 gene mutation

27.

Epidemiology: How does the prevalence of cleft lip and palate vary globally?

a)

Higher rates in Asian populations

b)

Higher rates in African populations

c)

No variation across populations

d)

Lower rates in Asian populations

e)

Higher rates in Caucasian populations

28.

Epidemiology: Is cleft lip more common in males or females?

a)

Cleft lip more common in males, cleft palate equal in both genders.

b)

Cleft lip more common in females, cleft palate more common in males.

c)

Cleft lip and palate both more common in females.

d)

Cleft lip and palate both more common in males.

29.

What is the surgical treatment for cleft lip called?

a)

Cheiloplasty

b)

Palatoplasty

c)

Mastectomy

d)

Cleftiostomy

30.

Hirschsprung Disease is caused by mechanical obstruction from inadequate motility of which organ?

a)

Stomach

b)

Intestine

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreas

31.

Hirschsprung Disease is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the colon.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Which of the following is a typical stool characteristic in Hirschsprung Disease?

a)

Watery stool

b)

Ribbon like stool

c)

Bloody stool

d)

Hard pellet like stool

33.

Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of Hirschsprung Disease?

a)

A) Aganglionic segment of colon

b)

B) Accumulation of stool with distention

c)

C) Failure of internal anal sphincter to relax

d)

D) Increased motility of the colon

34.

Fill in the blank: In more than 80% of cases, Hirschsprung Disease affects the internal sphincter, rectum, and a few centimeters of the ______ colon (short-segment disease).

a)

sigmoid

b)

ascending

c)

transverse

d)

descending

35.

Which diagnostic test is used to confirm Hirschsprung Disease?

a)

Occult stool blood test

b)

Rectal biopsy

c)

Lithotripsy

d)

MRI

36.

Therapeutic management of Hirschsprung Disease may involve two stages. What is the first stage?

a)

Pull Through procedure

b)

Temporary ostomy

c)

Medication therapy

d)

Dietary changes

37.

What is GER defined as? Fill in the blank: GER is defined as the transfer of _______ contents into the esophagus.

a)

gastric

b)

intestinal

c)

pulmonary

d)

hepatic

38.

GER occurs in everyone.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Fill in the blank: Frequency and persistency may make GER _______.

a)

abnormal

b)

normal

c)

temporary

d)

irrelevant

40.

GERD occurs in everyone.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

GERD may occur without regurgitation.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Fill in the blank: 50% of infants less than 2 months old are reported to have ______ GER.

a)

physiologic

b)

pathologic

c)

infectious

d)

congenital

43.

At what age does physiologic GER in infants usually resolve spontaneously?

a)

By age 1 year

b)

By age 6 months

c)

By age 2 years

d)

By age 3 months

44.

Fill in the blank: GER becomes pathologic when failure to thrive, bleeding, or ______ develop.

a)

dysphagia

b)

cough

c)

fever

d)

rash

45.

List two feeding alterations in infants with GER/GERD.

a)

Thickening feedings and upright positioning

b)

Reducing fluid intake and skipping feeds

c)

Feeding only solid foods and avoiding milk

d)

Delaying feeds and using cold formula

46.

What is the surgical intervention mentioned for GER/GERD management?

a)

Nissen fundoplication

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

Colectomy

47.

Fill in the blank: Irritable Bowel Syndrome is identified as a cause of recurrent ______ pain in children.

a)

abdominal

b)

chest

c)

head

d)

leg

48.

Fill in the blank: A characteristic of Irritable Bowel Syndrome is alternating ______ and ______.

a)

diarrhea; constipation

b)

vomiting; nausea

c)

pain; fever

d)

bloating; weight loss

49.

Which point is associated with epigastric pain in appendicitis?

a)

McBurney's point (RLQ abd)

b)

Murphy's point (RUQ abd)

c)

Lanz point (left iliac fossa)

d)

Rovsing's point (LLQ abd)

50.

What is the treatment for appendicitis?

a)

IV antibiotics, surgery

b)

Bed rest, increased fluid intake

c)

Topical ointments, painkillers

d)

Physical therapy, massage

51.

What is the pathophysiology of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

a)

Constriction of the pyloric sphincter with obstruction of the gastric outlet

b)

Dilation of the pyloric sphincter with increased gastric emptying

c)

Inflammation of the gastric mucosa leading to ulceration

d)

Loss of peristalsis in the small intestine

52.

Which clinical manifestation develops in the first weeks of life in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

a)

Nonbilious projectile vomiting

b)

Bloody diarrhea

c)

Jaundice

d)

Severe abdominal distension

53.

What is the laparoscopic procedure is the treatment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

a)

Pyloromyotomy

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

Colectomy

54.

What is the pathophysiology of intussusception?

a)

Telescoping of one portion of intestine into another

b)

Inflammation of the intestinal mucosa

c)

Obstruction due to gallstones in the intestine

d)

Formation of diverticula in the colon

55.

What is the classic presentation of intussusception involving stools?

a)

Current jelly-like stools

b)

Watery diarrhea

c)

Clay-colored stools

d)

Rice-water stools

56.

SATA: Which of the following is part of the classic triad of intussusception symptoms?

a)

Gradual onset of abdominal pain

b)

Sudden onset of abdominal pain

c)

Sausage-like abdominal mass

d)

Spherical mass in the perineal area

e)

"Dance sign", retraction of the RLQ

57.

Fill in the blank: Retraction of the RLQ in intussusception is also known as the ________ sign.

a)

dance

b)

murphy

c)

blumberg

d)

cullen

58.

What is the first line of treatment for intussusception?

a)

Surgical reduction

b)

Air enema

c)

Immediate antibiotics

d)

immediate corticosteroids

59.

If conservative/nonsurgical treatment for intussusception is unsuccessful, what is the next step?

a)

Repeat enema

b)

Progress to surgical treatment

c)

Increase fluid intake

d)

Discharge the patient

60.

Fill in the blank: Malrotation is due to abnormal rotation around the ________ during embryonic development.

a)

superior mesenteric artery

b)

inferior vena cava

c)

hepatic portal vein

d)

descending aorta

e)

inferior mesenteric artery

61.

Volvulus occurs when the intestine is twisted around itself and comprises ______ supply to intestines.

a)

Blood

b)

HCl acid

c)

Pepsin

d)

Bilirubin

62.

What is a classic symptom of malrotation and volvulus in the newborn period?

a)

Constipation

b)

Bilious emesis

c)

Non-bilious vomiting

d)

Fever

63.

Fill in the blank: Emergent surgical intervention is required in malrotation and volvulus to prevent ________.

a)

death

b)

infection

c)

paralysis

d)

bleeding

64.

Celiac disease is also known as ________.

a)

Gluten-induced enteropathy

b)

Lactose intolerance

c)

Crohn's disease

d)

Ulcerative colitis

65.

Which of the following is NOT a main characteristic of celiac disease?

a)

A) Steatorrhea

b)

B) General malnutrition

c)

C) Abdominal distension

d)

D) Hypertension

66.

Fill in the blank: Coffee-ground emesis is a symptom of ________ GI bleeds.

a)

Upper

b)

Lower

c)

Distal

d)

Chronic

67.

Fill in the blank: Bright red (rectal) bleeding, also known as hematochezia, is a symptom of ________ GI bleeds.

a)

Lower

b)

Upper

c)

Middle

d)

Esophageal

68.

______-fed infants may develop constipation because ______ is thick and harder to digest.

a)

Breast

b)

Formula

c)

Cow's milk

d)

Honey

69.

What is the surgical treatment for cleft palate called?

a)

Chelioplasty

b)

Palatoplasty

c)

Chelosectomy

d)

Palatrum

70.

What is the difference between GER and GERD?

a)

In GERD, the reflux causes tissue damage

b)

In GERD, the reflux causes regurgitation

c)

GERD is less severe than GER

d)

In GERD, the regurgitation causes reflux

71.

If an infant is reported as "always hungry", but they are failing to thrive, which condition does the infant most likely have?

a)

intussusception

b)

appendicitis

c)

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

d)

malrotation

72.

Tarry, black stools, also known as melena, is indicative of:

a)

biliary atresia

b)

upper GI bleeds

c)

lower GI bleeds

d)

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

73.

SATA: Select the clinical manifestations of biliary atresia.

a)

prolonged jaundice

b)

white stools

c)

steatorrhea

d)

bile duct obstruction

e)

renal failure

74.

Tracheoesophageal fistula is a congenital defect in which the esophagus fails to develop as a ____________ to the stomach.

a)

single continuous passage

b)

network of branching paths

c)

create an esophageal atresia

d)

group of multiple intertwined tubules

75.

A patient with a tracheoesophageal fistula is considered a _______ risk for ______.

a)

low, renal anomalies

b)

high, aspiration

c)

high, gastroschisis

d)

low, anal atresia

76.

A patient with a tracheoesophageal fistula should be placed on a strict NPO diet.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

What is the difference between omphalocele and gastrochisis?

a)

Omphalocele has the bowel protrude, but the bowel is contained in the peritoneal sac. In gastroschisis, the bowels feely spill out to the right of the umbilical cord.

b)

Gastroschisis has the bowel protrude, but the bowel is contained in the peritoneal sac. In omphalocele, the bowels feely spill out to the right of the umbilical cord.

78.

Umbilical hernias are common in the newborn period. When do they typically resolve on their own?

a)

within the first few days of life

b)

within the first few weeks of life

c)

within the first few months of life

d)

within the first few years of life

79.

What is a persistent cloaca?

a)

an embryonic GI structure that was supposed to be temporary

b)

an incarcerated inguinal hernia

c)

a form of tracheoesophageal fistula

d)

a form of esophageal atresia

80.

SATA: The core symptoms of autism involve alterations in:

a)

Appearance

b)

Behaviors

c)

Communications

d)

Social Deficits

81.

SATA: What are some autism associated NEUROLOGICAL issues?

a)

seizures

b)

anxiety

c)

immune dysfunction

d)

sleep deficit

e)

hyperactivity

82.

Select the autism associated SYSTEMATIC issues.

a)

mood disorders, anxiety

b)

OCD, ADHD

c)

immune dysfunction, GI disorders

d)

seizures, sleep deficit

83.

SATA: What are some autism related disorders?

a)

COPD

b)

GERD

c)

OCD

d)

ADHD

e)

SPD

84.

Choose the BEST answer (Hint: you want to do all of these). The most important treatment strategy for children with autism is:

a)

Include parents in the treatment plan.

b)

Create a calming sensory environment.

c)

Consider the child's communication methods.

d)

Give the patient some degree of predictability.

e)

Be patient with the child.

85.

Sensory processing disorder is defined as:

a)

Problems identifying social cues when conversing with others.

b)

Difficulty with a change in routine or schedule.

c)

Difficulty in the way brain takes in, organizes, and uses sensory information.

d)

Problems with appropriate behaviors and communications.