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Cardiology Quiz

Total questions: 37

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client with mitral valve stenosis is most likely to exhibit which of the following findings?

a)

Wide pulse pressure

b)

Loud S1 at the apex

c)

Bounding peripheral pulses

d)

Decreased jugular venous pressure

2.

During auscultation, a harsh, loud systolic murmur is heard at the second right intercostal space, radiating to the neck. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Mitral regurgitation

c)

Pulmonary hypertension

d)

Tricuspid stenosis

3.

A patient presents with a grade IV murmur and palpable thrill at the lower left sternal border. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

a)

Pulmonic stenosis

b)

Aortic regurgitation

c)

Ventricular septal defect

d)

Tricuspid regurgitation

4.

The primary pacemaker of the heart is the:

a)

AV node

b)

Bundle of His

c)

SA node

d)

Purkinje fibers

5.

Which position is best for auscultating an S3 heart sound?

a)

Supine

b)

Left lateral decubitus

6.

A client reports chest pain radiating down the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. The ECG shows ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the priority action?

a)

Administer nitroglycerin

b)

Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately

c)

Prepare for thrombolytic therapy

d)

Give aspirin and monitor vital signs

7.

Which of the following is a normal variation of heart sounds in children and adolescents?

a)

S4

b)

S3

c)

Murmur

d)

Pericardial friction rub

8.

The characteristic "lub" of the heartbeat is caused by closure of the:

a)

Semilunar valves

b)

AV valves

c)

Aortic arch

d)

Pulmonary veins

9.

The "dub" sound corresponds to closure of the:

a)

AV valves

b)

Semilunar valves

c)

Atria

d)

Ventricles

10.

The best site to check for a carotid bruit is:

a)

Over the carotid artery using the bell of the stethoscope

b)

Over the jugular vein with the diaphragm

c)

At the apex of the heart

d)

Over the femoral artery

11.

When assessing the jugular venous pulse, elevation of the head of the bed should be:

a)

15 degrees

b)

30-45 degrees

c)

60 degrees

d)

Fully upright

12.

Which of the following is a sign of arterial insufficiency?

a)

Cool skin and pallor when elevated

b)

Warm skin and brown pigmentation

c)

Edema and varicose veins

d)

Tenderness and swelling

13.

A client with Raynaud’s phenomenon experiences pallor, cyanosis, and redness. These episodes are most often triggered by:

a)

Exercise

b)

Cold exposure

c)

Stress

d)

High altitude

14.

A patient with peripheral vascular disease is advised to:

a)

Limit physical activity

b)

Perform regular exercise

c)

Keep extremities immobile

d)

Avoid elevation of limbs

15.

The most common site for oral cancer is:

a)

Under the tongue

b)

The palate

c)

The buccal mucosa

d)

The lips

16.

Which of the following findings suggests venous insufficiency?

a)

Pallor upon elevation

b)

Brown pigmentation around ankles

c)

Cool extremities

d)

Absent pedal pulses

17.

Which assessment finding is most indicative of left-sided heart failure?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

S3 heart sound

c)

Elevated jugular venous pressure

d)

Hepatomegaly

18.

The primary function of the Bundle of His is to:

a)

Generate electrical impulses

b)

Conduct impulses from the SA node to the ventricles

c)

Contract the atria

d)

Regulate blood pressure

19.

When auscultating, the first heart sound (S1) is loudest at the:

a)

Base of the heart

b)

Apex of the heart

c)

Erb’s point

d)

Pulmonic area

20.

The term “thrill” in cardiac assessment refers to:

a)

A palpable vibration indicating a loud murmur

b)

A soft, blowing sound in the heart

c)

A pulsation felt over the carotid artery

d)

An abnormal heart rhythm

21.

Which of the following is an abnormal finding when palpating the carotid pulse?

a)

Bounding, strong pulse

b)

Thready, weak pulse

c)

Symmetrical pulses

d)

Regular rhythm

22.

When listening for a heart murmur, the nurse should:

a)

Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope for high-pitched sounds

b)

Use the bell for high-pitched sounds

c)

Always listen to all areas with both the diaphragm and bell simultaneously

d)

Avoid auscultation if the patient has a known heart defect

23.

A client with atrial fibrillation has an irregularly irregular pulse. The most appropriate nursing action is:

a)

Administer antiarrhythmic medication

b)

Palpate the apical pulse for 1 minute and notify the provider if irregular

c)

Immediately prepare for cardioversion

d)

Check blood pressure only

24.

In peripheral arterial disease, which symptom is most characteristic?

a)

Painless swelling of limbs

b)

Coldness, pallor, and pain with activity

c)

Edema and brown pigmentation

d)

Tenderness and warmth

25.

To assess for a bruit in the carotid artery, the nurse should:

a)

Palpate the artery first

b)

Auscultate with the bell of the stethoscope while the client holds their breath briefly

c)

Listen with the diaphragm while the client breathes normally

d)

Use a Doppler device only

26.

An abnormal finding during peripheral vascular assessment is:

a)

Capillary refill less than 2 seconds

b)

Diminished pedal pulses

c)

Warm skin over extremities

d)

Symmetrical hair growth on lower limbs

27.

The primary concern in a patient with a carotid bruit is:

a)

Risk of stroke due to narrowing of the artery

b)

Heart failure

c)

Aortic aneurysm

d)

Pulmonary embolism

28.

Which of the following is an expected normal finding in the older adult’s cardiovascular assessment?

a)

S4 heart sound

b)

S3 heart sound

c)

Murmur

d)

Irregular rhythm

29.

When auscultating Erb’s point, the nurse listens at:

a)

The second right intercostal space

b)

The third to fifth left intercostal space

c)

The apex of the heart

d)

The epigastric area

30.

The most common cause of peripheral edema in older adults is:

a)

Heart failure

b)

Venous insufficiency

c)

Lymphedema

d)

Deep vein thrombosis

31.

A patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy may present with:

a)

Systolic murmur that increases with Valsalva maneuver

b)

Diastolic murmur heard at the apex

c)

Wide pulse pressure

d)

No abnormal heart sounds

32.

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing peripheral arterial disease?

a)

Smoking

b)

Sedentary lifestyle

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

All of the above

33.

Which of the following is a sign of venous insufficiency?

a)

Pale, cool skin upon elevation

b)

Brown pigmentation and edema around the ankles

c)

Cold extremities with weak pulses

d)

Sharp, stabbing pain in limbs

34.

The primary purpose of the P wave in an EKG is to represent:

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial depolarization

c)

Atrial repolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

35.

The nurse recognizes that the S4 heart sound is most likely to occur in:

a)

Healthy young adults during exercise

b)

Older adults with decreased ventricular compliance

c)

Clients with mitral valve prolapse

d)

Clients with pericarditis

36.

A client with a history of hypertension and high LDL levels is at risk for:

a)

Coronary artery disease

b)

Stroke

c)

Peripheral vascular disease

d)

All of the above

37.

When assessing for a pulse deficit, the nurse should:

a)

Palpate the radial pulse while auscultating the apical pulse for 1 full minute

b)

Palpate the carotid pulse only

c)

Listen to the heart sounds with a stethoscope

d)

Measure blood pressure in both arms