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AES Individual Proficiency Test

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The [___] is the appointed CAG Safety Manager who is the focal point for the implementation and maintenance of an effective SMS within CAG. The [___] is also 6the primary liaison with CAAS AAR on aerodrome safety regulatory matters.

a)

EVP, Safety and Security

b)

EVP, Airport Management

c)

Senior Vice President, Aerodrome Safety

d)

Head, Inspectorate

2.

The airport category for RFF should be based on the overall [___] aeroplanes normally using the airport and their maximum fuselage width.

a)

Weight of the heaviest

b)

Length of the longest

c)

Length of the widest

d)

Size of the biggest

3.

During a Safety Time Out, [___] must be informed immediately by the conducting officer after the suspension of the activity.

a)

OPC/OC

b)

Division Safety Manager

c)

Commander Civil/Military

d)

Inspectorate Unit

4.

Personnel shall not participate in the training if their body temperature is above [____]?

a)

36.9 Degree Celsius

b)

37.5 Degree Celsius

c)

38.0 Degree Celsius

d)

38.5 Degree Celsius

5.

The purpose of the Task Resource Analysis (TRA), by using a qualitative risk based approach, which focuses upon probable and credible worst-case scenarios a task and resource analysis should be done to identify the minimum number of personnel required to undertake identified tasks in real time before supporting external services are able to effectively assist RFFS.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The Risk Assessment for on-going activities should be minimally reviewed and updated based on the [___]. [___] and [___].

a)

Event, Risk, Time

b)

Event, Process, Time

c)

Hazard, Risk, Time

d)

Hazard, Process, Time

7.

BA training shall be conducted in an indoor or outdoor environment with ambient temperature between [___] to [___] Degree Celsius* (measured using SWC issued Kestrel Heat Stress Tracker).

a)

28; 30

b)

30; 32

c)

32; 34

d)

36; 38

8.

To maintain a safe distance between AES vehicles when travelling in convoy, the vehicle which is following shall remain a minimum of [___] seconds from the vehicle directly in front.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

9.

As part of safety management system, all CAG staff should be responsible to:

 

i.                     Consider safety implications and incorporate safety requirements in all stages of development and implementation of new projects, systems, facilities or procedures to minimise risk of harm.

ii.                   Adhere to standard operating procedures and comply with regulatory requirements in daily operations and activities.

iii.                 Report or highlight any safety deficiencies or lapses timely to the relevant party to take the necessary correction actions to prevent an escalation to a more serious consequence.

iv.                 Ensure that zero workplace occurrence took place in the division.

v.                   Keep abreast of new technological developments and harness these technologies to enhance safety and efficiency of operations.

a)

i, ii, iv only

b)

ii, iii, v only

c)

i, ii, iii, v only

d)

All of the above

10.

In accordance to the Wet-Bulb-Global-Temperature (WBGT) Work-Rest Cycle, which statement is incorrect?

a)

For WBGT above 33 °C , the WRC is 30 mins work, 15 mins rest

b)

For WBGT below 29.9 °C , the WRC is 60 mins work, 15 mins rest

c)

For WBGT between 30 - 30.9 °C, the WRC is 45 mins work, 15 mins rest

d)

For WBGT between 32 - 32.9 °C, the WRC is 30 mins work, 30 mins rest

11.

The [___] is responsible for overseeing AES’ Safety Management System and serves as the chairperson of the Safety Working Committee.

a)

Chief, AES

b)

Divisional Safety Manager

c)

Unit Safety Officer

d)

Senior Safety and Standards Inspector

12.

Which of the following statement is inaccurate?

             

i.            A Safety Time Out involves the temporary suspension of all or part of an operation to

identify and address pressing WSH concerns at our workplace.

ii.           Only appointed safety, conducting and supervising officers can call for a Safety Time Out

iii.          Once a Safety Time Out is called, the work activity shall stop immediately so as to prevent a safety occurrence.

a)

ii

b)

iii

c)

All of the baove

d)

None of the above

13.

Only firefighting and rescue personnel wearing approved protective firefighting clothing and equipment should be allowed in close proximity to an aircraft accident site. Such clothing should be worn within a distance of approximately [__] from any point on the aircraft or any fuel spillage.

a)

25 metres

b)

50 metres

c)

100 metres

d)

200 metres

14.

In an event, where an AES vehicle is involved in an accident-causing injury to person, animal or damage to any vehicle, while responding to a fire alarm activation, the driver should [___].

a)

Stop immediately, exchange particulars with involved, and to carry on as soon as possible to affected location.

b)

Stop immediately, with attention given to persons injured by requesting as soon as possible for the ambulance. The VOIC shall ensure the appliance remains at scene till the arrival of the Police and the approval is granted for it to be moved.

c)

Stop immediately, VOIC to exchange details with the injured and/or owner of the property.

d)

Proceed as usual, VOIC to inform WRO on the incident.

15.

The critical area is a concept for rescue of the occupants of an aircraft. It differs from other concepts in that, instead of attempting to control only that area of fire adjacent to the fuelsage , it seeks to control and extinguish the entire fire. . The objective is to safeguard the integrity of the fuselage and maintain tolerable conditions for its occupants.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Communications between the flight crew, air traffic control and the RFF service should be maintained throughout the emergency response. The officer-in-charge of the RFF operations should never delay transmission to the aircraft regardless of air traffic control, should there be a fire that threatens the survivability of the passengers.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The aerodrome familiarisation shall minimally cover the following:-

 

i.            Recognise landmarks especially during daytime where visibility is not affected;

ii.           Select longest routes to any point of the aircraft movement area when normal routes are not accessible; and

iii.          Familiarisation with the landside operating rules and regulations, including accident reporting procedures.

a)

i only

b)

ii and iii only

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

18.

The main purpose of the reaction time test is to test the operational crew’s alertness to respond to sudden activation. The reaction time is considered to be the time in which the first foam producing fire vehicles start it engine in [___] or less.

a)

15 seconds

b)

20 seconds

c)

25 seconds

d)

30 seconds

19.

When conducting the Heat Acclimatisation (HA) Training, the Conducting Officer shall terminate the training if the staff had exceeds a blood pressure measurement of [___] and a temperature of [___].

a)

129/90mmHg & 37.5°C

b)

129/90mmHg & 39.0°C

c)

139/90mmHg & 39.0°C

d)

139/90mmHg & 40.0°C

20.

RFF personnel should remain up to [___] from the rear depending on the size of the aeroplane to avoid the jet blast danger area.

a)

100m

b)

200m

c)

500m

d)

800m

21.

All AES operators shall don the P100 disposable particulate respirators for the purpose of providing respiratory protection when they are on the ground, inside the hot zone.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

As part of safety management system, all CAG staff should be responsible to:

 

i.            Consider safety implications and incorporate safety requirements in early stages of development and implementation of new projects, systems, facilities or procedures to minimise risk of harm;

ii.           Adhere to standard operating procedures and comply with regulatory

requirements in daily operations and activities; and

iii.          Ensure that administrative safety issues or concerns identified are appropriately

considered and duly resolved.

a)

ii only

b)

i and ii

c)

ii and iii

d)

All of the above

23.

The [___] shall ensure that the safety checklist (Pre-Training Checks) is signed off before commencement of training.

a)

Supervising Officer

b)

Conducting Officer

c)

Safety Officer

d)

Assistant Safety Officer

24.

To ensure routine and emergency response activities are performed safely, operational staff shall:-

i. familiarise themselves with relevant Risk Assessments;
ii. understand the hazards and risks associated with those activities;
iii. select and use the correct Personal Protective Equipment; follow the instructions as specified in the standard operating procedures and
iv. employ all reasonable mitigating measures/actions required to perform those activities.

a)

i, ii

b)

i, iii, iv

c)

ii, iii, iv

d)

All of the above

25.

The Wet-Bulb-Global-Temperature (WBGT) Work Rest Cycle (WRC) also applies to training and exercises, simulating real AES operations, to test unit-level competency, such as annual crash exercise (Exercise Bear and Exercise Bobcat).

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The [___] is to test the fundamental knowledge of all AES staff, before being assigned rescue and fire-fighting duties at the deployed unit.

a)

On-The-Job Training

b)

Firemanship Test

c)

Station/Tactical Test

d)

Operational Leadership Level 1/2

27.

Risk assessment is the [___] ,[___] and [___] associated with the identified hazards arising from operations and activities.

a)

Identification, Analysis, Mitigation of Risk

b)

Identification, Study, Mitigation of Errors

c)

Documentation, Pursuit, Mitigation of Risk

d)

Documentation, Study, Mitigation of Errors

28.

When driving an oversized vehicle, such as the Foam Tender, the vehicle OIC shall comply to the following:

 

i.                     Deploy a lead vehicle to escort AES oversize vehicles on the public roads.

ii.                   Display the ‘Oversized Vehicle’ sign on the front of the lead vehicle.

iii.                 Display the ‘Oversized Vehicle’ sign on the rear of the oversized vehicle.

a)

iii only

b)

i, ii only

c)

i, iii only

d)

All of the above

29.

Drivers shall execute the AES Safe Driving and Callout procedures at all times when driving in the aerodrome and airbase during emergency and non-emergency response scenarios.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The Hot Fire Fighting Training is designed to test the staff and their handling of equipment under controlled fire conditions. Each AES operational AEO should undergo this training once every [___], conducted in an [___] environment. The [___] checklist can be used to assess the performance of the crew.

a)

6 months / Outdoor / After Action Review

b)

3 months / Outdoor / Safety

c)

6 months / Indoor / CPT Assessment

d)

3 months / Outdoor / CPT Assessment

31.

The [____] is accountable for the safety of his staff during training and exercise. He must ensure that all the necessary safety standards and arrangements for all aspects of training and exercise within his command are known and complied with by its staff.

a)

Duty Officer

b)

Officer Commanding and Operations Commander

c)

Conducting Officer

d)

Commander

32.

What is 'ASK U!' all about?

a)

Safety and hazard reporting channel where staff could raise concerns anonymously in AES.

b)

Automated process to submit vehicle ratings

c)

Online forum to discuss disciplinary matters with SO, Manpower

d)

Submitting of safety and operational initiatives

33.

For optimum foam firefighting and burn-back performance, the foam-making equipment should produce expansions ranges from [___] and drainage time should be in excess of [___] for film-foaming foams.

a)

4-10 / 3 minutes

b)

5-10 / 4 minutes

c)

6-10 / 3 minutes

d)

7-10 / 4minutes

34.

When an AES vehicle is required to come to a temporary stop, such as at security checkpoint; picking up and alighting passengers, the [___] must be fully engaged and transmission shall be placed in the [___] position.

a)

Parking brakes / Neutral

b)

Parking brakes / Drive

c)

Foot brakes / Neutral

d)

Foot brakes / Drive

35.

Which of these workplace occurrences requires immediate reporting to AES Inspectorate?

i. Vehicle and building defects
ii. Runway incursion
iii.  Vehicular accidents
iv. Near-miss

a)

i, ii

b)

i, iv

c)

i, iii

d)

ii, iii, iv

36.

Emergency access roads should be provided on an airport where terrain conditions permit their constructions so as to facilitate the achievement of minimum response time. Particular attention should be given to the provision of ready access to approach areas up to [___] from the threshold or at least from the threshold to the airport boundary.

a)

500m

b)

1000m

c)

1500m

d)

2000m

37.

The telephone numbers of the mutual aid agencies should be verified [___] and a revised list issued if any changes have occurred.

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Yearly

38.

What are the signs and symptoms when identifying personnel suffering from heat exhaustion:


i.  Profuse Sweating;
ii. Confusion;
iii. Vomiting;
iv. Not responsive to verbal cues; and
v. Swelling of face.

a)

ii, iii only

b)

i, ii, iii only

c)

i, ii, iii, iv only

d)

All of the above

39.

The Breathing Apparatus (BA) training should be conducted once every [___] for each AEO for a duration of [___] per participants.

a)

6 months / 10 minutes

b)

6 months / 20 minutes

c)

3 months / 20 minutes

d)

3 months / 10 minutes

40.

It is important to provide serviceable communication equipment in sufficient quantity to ensure rapid response of personnel and equipment to an emergency. The portable radios, one-way radios should be available to provide each participating agency with the ability to provide incident updates to the command post.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The response time is considered to be the time between the [___] to the rescue and fire-fighting service and the time when the first responding vehicle(s) is/are in position to apply foam at a rate of at least 50% of the discharge rate as specified in ICAO’s Annex 14, Chapter 9.

a)

Sounding of the fire bell

b)

Sounding of the Personal Announcement System

c)

Initial call

d)

Subsequent call

42.

What are the conditions of personnel to ensure safe training?

 

i. Personnel shall ensure that they do not participate in the training following a night-duty and no less than three hours before the start of night shift.

ii. Personnel shall ensure that they are not consuming substances (drugs, medicine, alcohol, narcotics, etc) which might impair their concentration and performance during the training.

iii. Staff shall inform the Conducting Officer if they do not feel well after the training has completed.

a)

i only

b)

ii only

c)

i, ii only

d)

All of the above

43.

When treating a casualty with severe heat stress, rapid cooling is priority to reduce both the severity of the condition and the risk of possible complications. Which are the three areas of the human body being most effective for rapid cooling?

a)

Neck, Armpit, Groin

b)

Head, Hand, Feet

c)

Neck, Chest, Groin

d)

Neck, Armpit, Feet

44.

We adopt a proactive approach to management of safety with adequate allocation of resources to achieve the following safety objectives:

 

i.            Comply with Singapore standards and regulatory safety requirements

ii.           Minimise unplanned disruptions and associated safety risks

iii.          Provide a safe and seamless travelling experience for passengers

a)

ii only

b)

i and ii

c)

ii and iii

d)

All of the above

45.

An approval from [____] is required to lift the Safety Timeout.

a)

Chief, AES

b)

Head, Inspectorate

c)

Commander Civil/Military

d)

SSO, Standards and Safety

46.

For Aircraft Familiarisation Training, the major aircraft systems to be familiarised with are:

 

i.            Undercarriage systems;

ii.           Propulsion systems (turbojet / turbofan / turboprop / turboshaft), including the APU; and

iii.          Communication port for ground-to-flight deck communication.

a)

i and ii only

b)

i and iii only

c)

ii and iii only

d)

All of the above

47.

The On-The-Job Training (OJT) seeks to integrate the basic knowledge of the trainees with actual hands-on drills and practical session. The [___] should arrange the duties for the trainees in a manner so as to maximise the learning potential of each trainee.

a)

Countersigning Officer

b)

Reporting Officer

c)

Commander Civil/Military

d)

Staff Officer, Standards and Safety

48.

Both principal and complementary agents should normally be provided at an airport. Principal agents produce a [___] control, while complementary agents have [___] capability.

a)

Permanent; Rapid Fire Suppression

b)

Temporary; Intermittent Fire Control

c)

Permanent; Intermittent Fire Control

d)

Temporary; Rapid Fire Suppression

49.

The AES adopts the concept of “As Low as Reasonably Practicable” (ALARP) when conducting risk assessment.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The aircraft familiarisation shall be carried out in no less than [___] minutes per session at site for physical aircraft familiarisation.

a)

10 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

30 minutes

51.

When driving an oversized vehicle, such as the Foam Tender, the vehicle OIC shall comply to the following:

 

i.         Deploy a lead vehicle to escort AES oversize vehicles on the public roads.

ii.       Display the ‘Oversized Vehicle’ sign on the front of the lead vehicle.

iii.     Display the ‘Oversized Vehicle’ sign on the rear of the oversized vehicle.

a)

iii only

b)

i, ii only

c)

i, iii only

d)

All of the above

52.

What are the signs and symptoms when identifying personnel suffering from heat exhaustion:


i. Profuse Sweating;
ii. Confusion;
iii. Vomiting;
iv. Not responsive to verbal cues; and
v. Swelling of face.

a)

ii, iii only

b)

i, ii, iii only

c)

i, ii, iii, iv only

d)

All of the above

53.

When responding to a wheel fire, RFF members should approach the wheels with extreme caution in a fore or aft direction angle because of [___].

a)

Potential Explosion Hazard

b)

Potential Structural Collapse of Fuselage

c)

Requirement to Remian Visual with Pilot

d)

Ease of Extinguishing Agent Application

54.

For optimum foam firefighting and burn-back performance, the foam-making equipment should produce expansions ranges from [___] and drainage time should be in excess of [___] for film-foaming foams.

a)

4-10 / 3 minutes

b)

5-10 / 4 minutes

c)

6-10 / 3 minutes

d)

7-10 / 4 minutes

55.

Should spill of a flammable liquid occur without fire breaking out, it is important to eliminate as many ignition sources as possible while the spill is being neutralized or covered with foam. Engine ignition sources should be made inert or cooled. There may be enough residual heat in turbine aircraft engines to ignite fuel vapours up to [___] after shutdown or [___] on piston engines.

a)

30 minutes; 10 minutes

b)

60 minutes; 30 minutes

c)

90 minutes; 60 minutes

d)

120 minutes; 60 minutes

56.

According to ASM Part 7 – Emergency Planning, [___] is the alert status that will be activated when an aircraft approaching the airport is, or is suspected to be, in such trouble that there is an imminent danger of an accident.

a)

Local Standby

b)

Local Action

c)

Full Emergency

d)

Crash Action

57.

It is preferable that two (2) grid maps be provided; one map should depict the confines of airport access roads, location of water supplies, rendezvous points, staging areas, etc. The other map should include surrounding communities and depict appropriate medical facilities, access roads, rendezvous points, etc. within a distance of approximately [___] from the centre of the airport.

a)

5km

b)

6km

c)

7km

d)

8km

58.

What is the primary objective of the AES Workplace Occurrence Debrief?

a)

To assess compliance to CAG legal requirements

b)

To identify hazards and risk associated

c)

To identify systemic lapses and provide preventive measures

d)

To review and evaluate the trainings needs for AES staff