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Test 3 chapter 10

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the role of HR executives in an organization according to the slide?

a)

HR executives make vital contributions to high-level decisions and strategic efforts to deal with ever-changing business environments, circumstances, and challenges.

b)

HR executives are responsible only for payroll processing and leave management.

c)

HR executives focus solely on organizing company events and celebrations.

d)

HR executives handle only recruitment and onboarding processes.

2.

HRM is a pervasive aspect of organizational and managerial life.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

HRM was historically known as ________.

a)

personnel management

b)

human resource planning

c)

organizational behavior

d)

industrial relations

4.

According to the text, human resource management becomes strategic and creates a competitive advantage when it _________.

a)

creates value

b)

reduces costs

c)

increases paperwork

d)

delays decisions

5.

According to the text, human resource management becomes strategic and creates a competitive advantage when it is _________.

a)

rare

b)

common

c)

ineffective

d)

unstructured

6.

According to the text, human resource management becomes strategic and creates a competitive advantage when it is difficult to imitate, thus becoming a possible source of _________.

a)

competitive advantage

b)

financial loss

c)

employee turnover

d)

market saturation

7.

According to the text, human resource management becomes strategic and creates a competitive advantage when it is _________.

a)

organized

b)

randomized

c)

neglected

d)

ignored

8.

What is human capital according to the text?

a)

Human capital is employees' knowledge, skills, and abilities that have economic value for the organization.

b)

Human capital is the physical assets owned by a company, such as buildings and machinery.

c)

Human capital refers to the financial resources available for investment in new projects.

d)

Human capital is the total number of employees working in an organization.

9.

What is recruitment? Recruitment is ___

a)

the development of a pool of applicants for jobs in an organization

b)

the process of firing employees from an organization

c)

the evaluation of employee performance

d)

the training of new employees

10.

Recruitment may be either ______ or ______ hiring.

a)

internal; external

b)

direct; indirect

c)

temporary; permanent

d)

local; overseas

11.

What is selection? Selection is ____.

a)

choosing from among qualified applicants to hire

b)

the process of training new employees

c)

the act of firing unproductive workers

d)

the evaluation of company performance

12.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Applications and résumés

b)

Job termination

c)

Salary negotiation

d)

Employee benefits

13.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Interviews

b)

Job posting

c)

Training

d)

Layoff

14.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Reference checks

b)

Vacation policy

c)

Promotion

d)

Retirement planning

15.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Background checks

b)

Team building

c)

Payroll processing

d)

Employee recognition

16.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Personality tests

b)

Health insurance

c)

Job rotation

d)

Exit interviews

17.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Drug testing

b)

Employee discounts

c)

Retirement benefits

d)

Job analysis

18.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Cognitive ability tests

b)

Team meetings

c)

Employee surveys

d)

Job evaluation

19.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Performance tests

b)

Employee orientation

c)

Salary review

d)

Job description

20.

Which of the following is a selection practice?

a)

Integrity tests

b)

Employee assistance programs

c)

Job enrichment

d)

Succession planning

21.

What is a job analysis? A job analysis is a systematic process of identifying and determining the __________, requirements, and nature of a job.

a)

responsibilities

b)

salary

c)

location

d)

duration

22.

Which of the following best describes a job description?

a)

A tool for collecting data on each unit of a job

b)

A plain-language tool that explains the tasks, duties, functions, and responsibilities associated with a specific position

c)

A method for establishing KSAs

d)

A way to analyze the organization's mission and goals

23.

KSAs refer to the specific knowledge, skills, and abilities a position requires, and are included in job specifications.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What is a structured interview? A structured interview is a selection technique that involves asking all applicants the ________ and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers.

a)

same questions

b)

different questions

c)

random questions

d)

personal questions

25.

Which type of interview uses hypothetical situations?

a)

Structured interview

b)

Situational interview

c)

Behavioral description interview

d)

Unstructured interview

26.

Which type of interview explores what the candidates have done in the past?

a)

Structured interview

b)

Situational interview

c)

Behavioral description interview

d)

Panel interview

27.

What is the purpose of reference checks according to the passage?

a)

To verify information about applicants by contacting listed references or former employers and educational institutions.

b)

To determine the salary expectations of applicants.

c)

To conduct background checks for criminal records only.

d)

To assess the technical skills of applicants through written tests.

28.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a background check?

a)

Social Security verification

b)

Prior employment verification

c)

Educational institution contact for references

d)

Driving record

29.

Which of the following companies use personality tests?

a)

JPMorgan Chase

b)

ExxonMobil

c)

Hewlett-Packard

d)

All of the above

30.

Personality tests have been correlated with higher levels of ________ and worker engagement.

a)

job satisfaction

b)

workplace conflict

c)

employee turnover

d)

absenteeism

31.

During times of “hot” job markets, employers often relax drug testing or opt not to test for certain recreational drugs like marijuana.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Drug testing is commonly used by companies as a ________ instrument before hiring.

a)

pre-hire screening

b)

post-hire evaluation

c)

annual review

d)

exit interview

33.

What is a Performance Test in applicant testing? In a performance test, the test taker performs a ________ of the job. The classic example is the typing test.

a)

sample

b)

summary

c)

review

d)

description

34.

Which type of applicant testing involves several candidates participating in a variety of exercises or situations?

a)

Performance Tests

b)

Assessment Centers

c)

Integrity Tests

35.

Many companies use ________ tests to assess candidates’ honesty. The Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA) bans using lie detectors for most employment purposes.

a)

integrity

b)

aptitude

c)

personality

d)

skill

36.

According to the passage, performance tests tend to have higher levels of validity than which of the following?

a)

Interviews

b)

Written exams

c)

Group discussions

d)

Presentations

37.

A typical assessment center consists of how many candidates participating in a variety of exercises or situations?

a)

10 - 12

b)

2 - 4

c)

20 - 25

d)

50 - 60

38.

Which managerial behaviors and skills are mentioned as being displayed in assessment center exercises?

a)

Leadership, integrity, decision-making, and communication

b)

Technical expertise, financial planning, and negotiation

c)

Creativity, artistic ability, and physical fitness

d)

Salesmanship, customer service, and product design

39.

__________ is the consistency of test scores over time and across alternative measurements.

a)

Reliability

b)

Validity

c)

Objectivity

d)

Usability

40.

__________ is the degree to which a selection test predicts or correlates with job performance.

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

c)

Objectivity

d)

Flexibility

41.

What is the process of separating with an employee for a reason other than 'just cause' called?

a)

Layoffs

b)

Promotion

c)

Transfer

d)

Retirement

42.

What does 'termination-at-will' mean?

a)

An employee may be fired for any reason.

b)

An employee can never be fired.

c)

An employee must be given a promotion before termination.

d)

An employee can only be fired for criminal activity.

43.

What is the process of helping people who have been dismissed from the company regain employment elsewhere called?

a)

Outplacement

b)

Onboarding

c)

Retrenchment

d)

Succession Planning

44.

What is the legal concept that an employee may be terminated for any reason, but is not absolute (e.g., illegal discrimination, whistleblowing, job contracts, union contracts)?

a)

Employment-at-will Doctrine

b)

Collective Bargaining Agreement

c)

Wrongful Termination Doctrine

d)

Constructive Dismissal

45.

What is a discussion between a manager and an employee about the employee’s dismissal called?

a)

Termination interview

b)

Performance review

c)

Orientation session

d)

Promotion meeting

46.

Is 'Make termination the last step in a clear and fair process, being certain you have the facts.' a Do or a Don't when terminating an employee?

a)

Do

b)

Don't

47.

Is 'Don’t spring a termination on an employee as a total surprise.' a Do or a Don't when terminating an employee?

a)

Do

b)

Don't

48.

When terminating an employee, be sure the person terminating the employee is the employee’s _________

a)

direct supervisor

b)

HR manager

c)

team member

d)

CEO

49.

When terminating an employee, be prepared with answers to basic questions such as the official end date and any ________ benefits.

a)

severance

b)

health

c)

retirement

d)

vacation

50.

Is 'Don’t start a meeting unprepared, causing the terminated employee to wait awkwardly while you find answers or call in an HR representative.' a Do or a Don't?

a)

Do

b)

Don't

51.

Is 'Don’t beat around the bush; state the termination simply and briefly.' a Do or a Don't?

a)

Do

b)

Don't

52.

Consult with the human resource department to identify any _______ available; give the employee a written list of information about benefits and policies.

a)

benefits

b)

vacancies

c)

documents

d)

meetings

53.

Is 'Don’t get caught up in responding to the employee’s emotions or views about fairness; focus on practical realities including the need to move on.' a Do or a Don't?

a)

Do

b)

Don't

54.

Invite a trained ______ representative to attend the meeting.

a)

HR

b)

IT

c)

Sales

d)

Marketing

55.

Is 'Don’t argue with the employee or apologize.' a Do or a Don't?

a)

Do

b)

Don't

56.

Listen _________.

a)

respectfully

b)

loudly

c)

carelessly

d)

quickly

57.

Is 'Don’t offer to help the employee find another job, if you cannot honestly give a good reference.' a Do or a Don't?

a)

Do

b)

Don't

58.

What is the definition of 'Adverse impact' in the context of employment practices?

a)

Adverse impact refers to a situation in which a seemingly neutral employment practice has a disproportionately negative effect on a protected group (e.g., women and minority members).

b)

Adverse impact refers to a situation where all employees are treated equally regardless of their background.

c)

Adverse impact refers to a positive effect of employment practices on all groups.

d)

Adverse impact refers to the intentional discrimination against a specific group in employment practices.

59.

An employment test that results in far fewer women being hired than men, despite equal numbers of qualified applicants, may be considered to have an adverse impact.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Why must an employment practice (e.g., a performance test) be related to the job?

a)

Because employment practices must be job-related to avoid adverse impact and legal challenges.

b)

Because it makes the hiring process more expensive.

c)

Because it allows employers to discriminate more easily.

d)

Because it is required for all types of jobs, regardless of relevance.

61.

What was the main issue addressed in the Supreme Court case Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971)?

a)

Environmental protection

b)

Employment discrimination

c)

Tax evasion

d)

Intellectual property rights

62.

According to the passage, what employment practice did Duke Power Company institute that disproportionately affected African American employees?

a)

Requiring a college degree for all jobs

b)

Requiring a high school diploma or passing an intelligence test for lower-level jobs

c)

Offering higher salaries to certain groups

d)

Providing free training for all employees

63.

The Supreme Court ruled that employment practices could be considered discriminatory under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, ________ if not intentionally discriminatory.

a)

even

b)

only

c)

rarely

d)

never

64.

What concept did the Supreme Court establish in Griggs v. Duke Power Company, which means a seemingly neutral policy could still be illegal if it disproportionately affected a protected group?

a)

Disparate impact

b)

Strict scrutiny

c)

Equal protection

d)

Affirmative action

65.

The Supreme Court's decision in Griggs v. Duke Power Company was significant because it established which principle regarding employment practices and discrimination?

a)

Employment practices must be related to job performance and not have a discriminatory impact.

b)

Employers can use any employment test regardless of its impact.

c)

Discrimination is only illegal if it is intentional.

d)

Only race-based discrimination is prohibited in employment.

66.

Which U.S. Equal Employment Law was enacted in 1938?

a)

Fair Labor Standards Act

b)

Civil Rights Act

c)

Americans with Disabilities Act

d)

Equal Pay Act

67.

The Equal Pay Act was enacted in which year?

a)

1963

b)

1955

c)

1972

d)

1980

68.

Title VII of Civil Rights Act was enacted in which year?

a)

1964

b)

1954

c)

1972

d)

1980

69.

Which Executive Orders related to U.S. Equal Employment Laws were issued in 1965?

a)

Executive Orders 11246 and 11375

b)

Executive Orders 10925 and 11141

c)

Executive Orders 11478 and 11625

d)

Executive Orders 12086 and 12138

70.

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act was enacted in which year?

a)

1967

b)

1972

c)

1980

d)

1955

71.

Which U.S. Equal Employment Law was enacted in 1973?

a)

Vocational Rehabilitation Act

b)

Civil Rights Act

c)

Americans with Disabilities Act

d)

Equal Pay Act

72.

The Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act was enacted in which year?

a)

2008

b)

1990

c)

2010

d)

2015

73.

Which U.S. Equal Employment Law was enacted in 1991 and deals with civil rights?

a)

Civil Rights Act

b)

Americans with Disabilities Act

c)

Age Discrimination in Employment Act

d)

Fair Labor Standards Act

74.

The Family and Medical Leave Act was enacted in which year?

a)

1991

b)

1990

c)

1993

d)

1988

75.

What is the definition of Training? Training is ___________.

a)

Teaching lower-level employees how to perform their present jobs.

b)

Evaluating employee performance for promotions.

c)

Developing new company policies.

d)

Assigning tasks to upper management.

76.

What is the definition of Development? Development is __________.

a)

Helping managers and professional employees learn the broad skills needed for their present and future jobs.

b)

Providing only technical training for entry-level employees.

c)

Focusing solely on increasing company profits.

d)

Assigning routine tasks to employees without skill enhancement.

77.

What is the definition of Needs assessment? Needs assessment is ___________.

a)

An analysis identifying the jobs, people, and departments for which training is necessary.

b)

A method for evaluating employee performance.

c)

A process for hiring new staff members.

d)

A strategy for increasing company profits.

78.

Orientation training is training designed to introduce new employees to the company and familiarize them with ________, procedures, culture, and the like.

a)

policies

b)

salaries

c)

vacations

d)

products

79.

Team training provides employees with the skills and perspectives they need to ________ with others.

a)

collaborate

b)

compete

c)

ignore

d)

argue

80.

Diversity training focuses on identifying and reducing biases against people with differences and developing the skills needed to manage a ________ workforce.

a)

diversified

b)

homogeneous

c)

isolated

d)

unskilled

81.

Sexual harassment training is becoming increasingly ________.

a)

important

b)

irrelevant

c)

unnecessary

d)

outdated

e)

controversial

82.

What is performance appraisal (PA)? Performance appraisal (PA) is the assessment of an employee’s _________.

a)

job performance

b)

attendance record

c)

personal interests

d)

salary

83.

Which of the following is a use of performance appraisal?

a)

Generates information

b)

Increases salary

c)

Can be used for employee development

d)

Both A and C

84.

Performance appraisal can be used for employee _________

a)

development

b)

termination

c)

vacation

d)

punishment

85.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of performance assessed in performance appraisal?

a)

Traits

b)

Behaviors

c)

Results

d)

Skills

86.

List the three categories of performance that are assessed in performance appraisal.

a)

Traits, Behaviors, Results

b)

Skills, Experience, Education

c)

Attendance, Punctuality, Attitude

d)

Goals, Strategies, Feedback