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COSC85

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines Data Communications in this course context?

a)

The conversion of analog signals into digital signals

b)

The transmission of digital data between two or more computers

c)

The process of securing data with encryption algorithms

d)

The storage of information in a centralized database

2.

In data communication, which term refers to information presented in a form agreed upon by the parties creating and using it?

a)

Protocol

b)

Telemetry

c)

Data

d)

Signal

3.

Which fundamental characteristic ensures that a system delivers data to the correct destination?

a)

Accuracy

b)

Timeliness

c)

Delivery

d)

Jitter

4.

Jitter in data communications is best described as which of the following?

a)

Loss of packets during transmission

b)

Variation in packet arrival time or uneven delay in audio/video delivery

c)

Encryption delay due to key exchange

d)

Increased bandwidth usage under heavy load

5.

Identify the correct set of components of data communication.

a)

Message, Sender, Receiver, Transmission Medium, Protocol

b)

Data, Accuracy, Timeliness, Jitter, Delivery

c)

Node, Link, Topology, Security, Standards

d)

Router, Switch, Hub, Bridge, Repeater

6.

Which example correctly illustrates Simplex data flow?

a)

Walkie-talkies communicating back and forth

b)

Telephone line allowing simultaneous talking and listening

c)

Keyboard transmitting to a monitor without receiving

d)

Wi‑Fi link enabling bidirectional streaming

7.

Half-Duplex data flow allows which capability?

a)

Only transmit or only receive, but never both

b)

Transmit and receive simultaneously

c)

Transmit and receive, but not at the same time

d)

Broadcast to multiple receivers at the same time

8.

Full-Duplex data flow is exemplified by which medium according to the lesson?

a)

Walkie-talkies

b)

Telephone line

c)

Keyboard-to-monitor link

d)

Fiber-optic broadcast network

9.

Which description best defines a Network in this lecture?

a)

A set of software tools managing databases

b)

A set of devices connected by communication links

c)

A topology diagram used for planning

d)

A protocol suite enabling encryption

10.

What is a Node in networking as introduced here?

a)

A routing algorithm used to discover paths

b)

A computer, printer, or other device capable of sending and/or receiving data on the network

c)

A standardized connector for physical cables

d)

A logical address used for packet delivery

11.

Network reliability in this lecture is measured by which considerations?

a)

Frequency of failure, time to recover from failure, robustness in a catastrophe

b)

Transit time and response time only

c)

Bandwidth and latency under peak load

d)

Number of nodes and links in the topology

12.

Which statement summarizes the focus of Network Security criteria here?

a)

Optimizing routing and switching paths

b)

Protecting data from unauthorized access, damage, and change

c)

Minimizing jitter in audio/video delivery

d)

Ensuring de facto practices become de jure

13.

Which set lists the protocol elements covered in this lecture?

a)

Routing, Switching, Encoding

b)

Syntax, Semantics, Timing

c)

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

d)

Compression, Encryption, Hashing

14.

Which statement correctly distinguishes de facto from de jure standards?

a)

De facto are legislated by a recognized body; de jure are adopted through widespread use

b)

De facto are adopted through widespread use without an organized body; de jure are legislated by an officially recognized body

c)

Both de facto and de jure are informal practices without official recognition

d)

De jure standards evolve from jitter minimization

15.

In physical structures, what best characterizes a point-to-point link?

a)

A single link shared among multiple devices

b)

A dedicated link between two devices

c)

A wireless broadcast medium covering a campus

d)

A logical grouping of nodes for routing

16.

Which statement describes a multipoint physical structure?

a)

A fiber-optic ring with redundancy

b)

More than two specific devices share a single link

c)

Two devices connected with separate dedicated cables

d)

One device connected to the internet backbone

17.

Network topology, as defined in the lecture, refers to which aspect?

a)

The encryption scheme used for secure communication

b)

The physical and logical relationship of nodes in a network

c)

The performance of protocols under load

d)

The legal status of standards across regions

18.

Which topology connects each device with a dedicated point-to-point link to every other device?

a)

Star topology

b)

Mesh topology

c)

Bus topology

d)

Ring topology

19.

In a star topology, each device has a point-to-point link to which component?

a)

A shared bus cable

b)

Every other device directly

c)

A central controller such as a hub or switch

d)

Only the two neighboring devices

20.

Which statement best defines a bus topology?

a)

Every node attaches to a single shared bus cable

b)

Each device connects to a central router only

c)

Devices form a closed loop with dual paths

d)

All devices connect in a full mesh

21.

Ring topology is characterized by which connection pattern?

a)

Each device connects to a central controller

b)

Each device connects only to the two devices on either side

c)

Each device connects to a single shared backbone cable

d)

Each device connects to every other device

22.

What is a hybrid topology?

a)

A topology with redundant rings only

b)

A mixture or combination of two or more different topologies

c)

A single bus with multiple repeaters

d)

A star topology implemented using wireless links

23.

Which network category connects computers within a small area?

a)

WAN (Wide Area Network)

b)

LAN (Local Area Network)

c)

PAN (Personal Area Network)

d)

SAN (Storage Area Network)

24.

Which network type typically spans a large geographical area?

a)

LAN

b)

MAN

c)

WAN

d)

CAN

25.

Which statement describes a MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)?

a)

Smaller than a LAN and used in homes

b)

Between the size of a LAN and a WAN, often covering a town or city

c)

Global interconnection of autonomous systems

d)

Dedicated storage network within data centers

26.

In networking, what does 'physical' refer to when describing topology?

a)

The data flow in the network

b)

The placement of various nodes

c)

The encryption of data at rest

d)

The logical addressing scheme

27.

Which OSI layer is called the "End User layer" and enables user access and interfaces?

a)

Presentation layer

b)

Session layer

c)

Application layer

d)

Transport layer

28.

Which set lists services provided at the Application layer?

a)

IP, ICMP, ARP

b)

FTP, HTTP, SMTP, TELNET

c)

SSL, TLS, SSH

d)

DNS, DHCP, NTP

29.

Which OSI layer is referred to as the "Syntax layer" and concerns the format and meaning of exchanged information?

a)

Transport layer

b)

Session layer

c)

Application layer

d)

Presentation layer

30.

Which Session layer task adds checkpoints to a stream of data?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Synchronization

c)

Flow Control

d)

Authorization

31.

Which Session layer task allows communication in half-duplex or full-duplex mode?

a)

Dialog Control

b)

Error Control

c)

Translation

d)

Data Compression

32.

Which OSI layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery of the entire message and ensures reliable, ordered data transfer without errors?

a)

Network layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Session layer

d)

Data Link layer

33.

Which Transport layer task divides data from the session layer into segments?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Flow Control

c)

Error Control

d)

Translation

34.

Which statement about TCP is accurate based on the material?

a)

TCP is connectionless and does not provide feedback

b)

TCP is connection-oriented and supports retransmission of lost data

c)

TCP operates at the Network layer and routes packets

d)

TCP is used only for voice over IP applications

35.

According to the material, which common activities use TCP?

a)

Internet surfing, Emails, FTP

b)

Routing updates, ARP resolution, ICMP messages

c)

Real-time video streaming exclusively

d)

Bluetooth device pairing

36.

Which task belongs to the Presentation layer and enhances security, e.g., via SSL?

a)

Encryption

b)

Authorization

c)

Authentication

d)

Flow Control

37.

Which Session layer task determines if the user has permission to access a file?

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Encryption

d)

Synchronization

38.

Flow control at the Transport layer primarily aims to do what?

a)

Compress data to save bandwidth

b)

Control the amount of data sent so as not to overwhelm the receiver

c)

Translate data into a common format

d)

Verify user credentials

39.

Which layer provides authentication of the user as listed in the tasks?

a)

Application layer

b)

Session layer

c)

Presentation layer

d)

Transport layer

40.

Which term best matches the description: concerned with the syntax and semantics of the information exchanged?

a)

Application layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Presentation layer

d)

Network layer

41.

Which topology description matches "each device has a dedicated point-to-point link only to a central controller"?

a)

Mesh topology

b)

Ring topology

c)

Star topology

d)

Bus topology

42.

Which function is NOT listed as a Session layer task?

a)

Dialog Control

b)

Synchronization

c)

Data Compression

d)

Authentication

43.

Which statement correctly contrasts LAN and WAN as defined?

a)

LAN covers a large geographical area; WAN is limited to a small office

b)

LAN connects computers in a small area; WAN extends over a large geographical area

c)

Both LAN and WAN only operate within a single building

d)

WAN is smaller than a MAN

44.

At the Network layer, what are the data units called?

a)

Frames

b)

Packets

c)

Segments

d)

Bits

45.

Which task at the Network layer involves assigning sender and receiver IP addresses to each segment?

a)

Routing

b)

Path determination

c)

Logical addressing

d)

Framing

46.

Routing at the Network layer primarily focuses on which action?

a)

Moving data packets from source to destination based on logical addresses.

b)

Encoding bits into signals for transmission.

c)

Dividing streams into frames to prevent overflow.

d)

Assigning MAC addresses to devices.

47.

Which protocol characteristic matches UDP as described?

a)

Connection-oriented with delivery feedback

b)

Connectionless and provides no feedback on delivery

c)

Reliable with guaranteed sequencing

d)

Used only for file transfers

48.

Which is a typical use case listed for UDP?

a)

Database replication

b)

Email delivery

c)

Streaming and voice calls

d)

Secure file transfer

49.

Which statement correctly defines the role of the Data Link layer?

a)

It converts binaries into electrical, radio, or optical signals.

b)

It receives packets from the network layer and organizes them into frames while handling MAC addressing and flow/error/access control.

c)

It assigns IP addresses and determines routing paths like OSPF or BGP.

d)

It synchronizes sender and receiver clocks.

50.

Which Data Link layer task adds mechanisms to detect and retransmit damaged or lost frames?

a)

Physical addressing

b)

Framing

c)

Error control

d)

Access control

51.

At the Data Link layer, physical addressing assigns addresses of which type to both devices?

a)

IPv4/IPv6 addresses

b)

Port numbers

c)

MAC addresses

d)

VLAN IDs

52.

Which statement defines the Physical layer’s primary role?

a)

Transmits data segments between networks.

b)

Receives packets and organizes them into frames.

c)

Converts binaries (bits) into signals for transmission using electrical, radio, or optical media.

d)

Assigns MAC addresses to devices.

53.

Which Physical layer definition concerns the duration of a bit?

a)

Representation of bits

b)

Data rate

c)

Line configuration

d)

Transmission mode

54.

Which Physical layer definition ensures sender and receiver clocks are aligned?

a)

Physical topology

b)

Synchronization of bits

c)

Line configuration

d)

Representation of bits

55.

Which Physical layer concept describes how devices connect to the media?

a)

Line configuration

b)

Transmission mode

c)

Representation of bits

d)

Logical addressing

56.

According to the definitions, which item specifies how devices are connected to make a network?

a)

Synchronization of bits

b)

Physical topology

c)

Data rate

d)

Access control

57.

Which statement correctly characterizes analog data versus digital data?

a)

Analog data have discrete states; digital data are continuous.

b)

Analog data are continuous and take on continuous values; digital data have discrete states and discrete values.

c)

Analog data are square waves; digital data are sine waves.

d)

Analog data can only have two values; digital data have infinite values.

58.

Which statement correctly characterizes analog signals versus digital signals?

a)

Analog signals carry binary data and are square waves; digital signals are continuous sine waves.

b)

Analog signals have an infinite number of values in a range and are continuous sine waves; digital signals have a limited number of defined values and are square waves carrying binary data.

c)

Both analog and digital signals have infinite possible values.

d)

Digital signals are always electromagnetic noise and not used for transmission.

59.

In the context of periodic analog signals, which description matches a simple signal?

a)

A sine wave that cannot be decomposed into simpler signals

b)

A waveform composed of multiple sine waves

c)

A rectangular pulse with repeating cycles

d)

A composite signal exhibiting multiple frequencies

60.

What is the peak amplitude of a signal?

a)

The number of cycles per second

b)

The absolute value of the signal's highest intensity, proportional to the energy it carries

c)

The position of the waveform relative to time 0

d)

The time a signal needs to complete one cycle

61.

If a signal has a frequency of 250 Hz, what is its period?

a)

0.25 s

b)

0.004 s

c)

4.0 s

d)

0.0025 s

62.

Which property describes the position of a waveform relative to time 0?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Phase

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

63.

Which plot shows changes in signal amplitude with respect to time?

a)

Phase-domain plot

b)

Time-domain plot

c)

Frequency-domain plot

d)

Wavelength-domain plot

64.

Which plot is concerned only with the peak value and the frequency?

a)

Time-domain plot

b)

Composite-domain plot

c)

Frequency-domain plot

d)

Amplitude-domain plot

65.

Which statement correctly defines bandwidth for a composite signal?

a)

The number of cycles per second of the highest frequency component

b)

The range of frequencies contained in a composite signal

c)

The absolute value of the peak amplitude

d)

The time it takes for one cycle to complete

66.

Using the bandwidth formula B = f_h − f_l, what is the bandwidth if f_h = 18 kHz and f_l = 2 kHz?

a)

16 Hz

b)

20 kHz

c)

18 kHz

d)

16 kHz

67.

Which signal type changes without exhibiting a repeating pattern or cycle?

a)

Periodic signal

b)

Aperiodic (non-periodic) signal

c)

Simple signal

d)

Composite signal

68.

A composite signal is analyzed in the frequency domain. Which pair of attributes is most relevant to this analysis?

a)

Amplitude over time and wavelength

b)

Peak value and frequency

c)

Period and phase shift

d)

Energy and transmission medium

69.

A waveform completes 500 cycles each second. Which statement is accurate?

a)

Its frequency is 500 Hz and its period is 0.002 s

b)

Its frequency is 500 Hz and its period is 2 s

c)

Its frequency is 0.5 Hz and its period is 500 s

d)

Its frequency is 500 Hz and its period is 0.2 s