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General Knowledge and Health Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are 3 examples of leadership styles?

a)

Autocratic, Democratic, Laissez-faire

b)

Transactional, Transformational, Servant

c)

Charismatic, Bureaucratic, Visionary

d)

Participative, Directive, Supportive

2.

A shaper on a team must do what?

a)

Challenge the team to improve and focus on goals

b)

Avoid taking responsibility for team outcomes

c)

Focus only on individual achievements

d)

Discourage team members from sharing ideas

3.

An implementer on a team must do what?

a)

Turn ideas into actions efficiently

b)

Focus solely on planning and never executing

c)

Avoid taking responsibility for tasks

d)

Delegate all work to others

4.

Having a car is an effective strategy for saving money?

a)

True

b)

False

5.

List 3 types of microorganisms.

a)

Bacteria, Viruses, Fungi

b)

Plants, Animals, Rocks

c)

Water, Air, Soil

d)

Fish, Birds, Insects

6.

What are 2 reasons it’s important to keep track of your credit score?

a)

Helps qualify for loans, checks for identity theft

b)

Improves your social status, increases your salary

c)

Makes you eligible for free vacations, lowers your taxes

d)

Allows you to vote, gives you free insurance

7.

What does income consist of? (3)

a)

Wages, Interest, Dividends

b)

Rent, Taxes, Fines

c)

Loans, Debts, Expenses

d)

Gifts, Donations, Grants

8.

What is a loan?

a)

A loan is money you can borrow that must be paid back.

b)

A loan is a gift that you never have to return.

c)

A loan is a type of insurance policy.

d)

A loan is a reward for good behavior.

9.

What would cause a soft diet?

a)

Oral surgery, GI problems

b)

High protein needs

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

Seasonal allergies

e)

Vitamin deficiency

10.

Vitamin D is found in?

a)

Milk, Sunlight/Fish

b)

Bread

c)

Rice

d)

Potato

11.

Cholesterol statement (True/False):

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Nuts and seeds are NOT a complex carbohydrate.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What unit measures energy in food?

a)

Calorie

b)

Joule

c)

Gram

d)

Liter

14.

Foods considered complete proteins:

a)

Meat, Fish, Eggs, Dairy, Soy

b)

Rice, Beans, Corn, Peas, Lentils

c)

Broccoli, Spinach, Carrots, Potatoes, Tomatoes

d)

Oats, Barley, Wheat, Rye, Quinoa

15.

Dairy servings equal to 1 cup of milk:

a)

1½ oz cheese, 1 cup yogurt

b)

2 oz cheese, 2 cups yogurt

c)

½ oz cheese, ½ cup yogurt

d)

1 oz cheese, ½ cup yogurt

16.

What does a patient navigator do?

a)

Guides patients through care and appointments

b)

Performs surgical procedures

c)

Prescribes medication

d)

Conducts laboratory tests

17.

What does NOT happen with cold therapy?

a)

Increased blood flow

b)

Decreased swelling

c)

Reduced pain

d)

Slowed nerve activity

18.

How long should a cold or hot pack be applied?

a)

15-20 minutes

b)

5-10 minutes

c)

30-40 minutes

d)

1 hour

19.

A barrier to learning in the psychomotor domain:

a)

Physical disability, pain, fatigue

b)

Lack of interest in reading

c)

Difficulty in understanding abstract concepts

d)

Limited access to digital resources

e)

Poor time management skills

20.

Example of health maintenance coaching:

a)

Exercise or immunizations

b)

Skipping meals

c)

Ignoring health checkups

d)

Avoiding vaccinations

e)

Sedentary lifestyle

21.

Which is NOT a complex carbohydrate?

a)

White rice and bread

b)

Brown rice

c)

Oats

d)

Quinoa

22.

A test of peripheral nerve functioning: ________

a)

Electromyography (EMG)

b)

Electroencephalography (EEG)

c)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

d)

Computed Tomography (CT)

23.

Facial nerve paralysis is called: ________

a)

Bell's palsy

b)

Trigeminal neuralgia

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Parkinson's disease

24.

Dizziness is referred to as: ________

a)

Vertigo

b)

Nausea

c)

Fatigue

d)

Insomnia

25.

25. Difficulty swallowing is: ________

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Dysuria

d)

Dyspepsia

26.

26. Fainting from emotional stress is: ________

a)

Vasovagal syncope

b)

Orthostatic hypotension

c)

Cardiac arrhythmia

d)

Hypoglycemia

27.

The covering of the axon: ________

a)

Myelin sheath

b)

Synapse

c)

Dendrite

d)

Node of Ranvier

28.

28. Basic unit of the nervous system: ________

a)

Neuron

b)

Axon

c)

Glia

d)

Dendrite

29.

29. Efferent nerves are also called: ________

a)

Motor nerves

b)

Sensory nerves

c)

Mixed nerves

d)

Autonomic nerves

30.

30. Pathology of Alzheimer’s disease: ________

a)

Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

b)

Lewy bodies and alpha-synuclein deposits

c)

Demyelination and oligodendrocyte loss

d)

Granulomas and caseous necrosis

31.

Prevention/treatment of osteoporosis: ________

a)

Calcium, Vitamin D, exercise

b)

High sugar intake, sedentary lifestyle

c)

Excessive caffeine, low protein diet

d)

Smoking, alcohol consumption

32.

32. Medications that cause constipation (2): ________

a)

Opioids, Iron supplements

b)

Antibiotics, Antivirals

c)

Beta blockers, ACE inhibitors

d)

Antacids, Antihistamines

33.

Dysphagia in older adults means: ________

a)

Difficulty swallowing

b)

Difficulty breathing

c)

Difficulty hearing

d)

Difficulty walking

34.

Clouding of the lens of the eye: ________

a)

Cataract

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Conjunctivitis

d)

Astigmatism

35.

Disorder associated with aging: ________

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Asthma

c)

Chickenpox

d)

Hemophilia

36.

Leading cause of death among men and women: ________

a)

Heart disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Stroke

d)

Cancer

37.

Enlargement of thyroid gland: ________

a)

Goiter

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Arthritis

38.

Protrusion of eyeballs: ________

a)

Exophthalmos

b)

Ptosis

c)

Strabismus

d)

Nystagmus

39.

Gland regulating metabolism: ________

a)

Thyroid

b)

Pituitary

c)

Adrenal

d)

Pancreas

40.

Hormone that stimulates adrenal cortex: ________

a)

ACTH

b)

TSH

c)

FSH

d)

GH

41.

41. Androgen and estrogen are: ________

a)

Sex hormones

b)

Digestive enzymes

c)

Vitamins

d)

Neurotransmitters

42.

Aldosterone regulates blood volume, blood pressure, and ________

a)

electrolyte balance

b)

oxygen transport

c)

glucose metabolism

d)

protein synthesis

43.

Another term for epinephrine: ________

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Serotonin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Insulin

44.

Combining form for master gland: ________

a)

Pituitar/o

b)

Thyroid/o

c)

Adren/o

d)

Pancreat/o

45.

Local anesthesia can last as long as 5 hours.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Topical anesthetic before local injection.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Rinse after chemical sterilizing agent.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Causes of incomplete autoclave sterilization: _________.

a)

Overloading, low temperature

b)

Excessive pressure, high temperature

c)

Proper loading, adequate temperature

d)

Short cycle, correct pressure

49.

Venipuncture protocol: _________.

a)

Aseptic technique

b)

Rapid injection

c)

Unsterile handling

d)

No gloves required

50.

Instrument with fine tip: _________.

a)

Splinter forceps

b)

Artery forceps

c)

Needle holder

d)

Towel clip

51.

Instrument for sutures: _________.

a)

Suture removal scissors

b)

Needle holder

c)

Scalpel

d)

Forceps

52.

Handling instruments post-surgery: _________

a)

Clean, disinfect, sterilize

b)

Rinse and reuse

c)

Wipe with alcohol only

d)

Store without cleaning

53.

Lymphatic swelling from obstruction: _________.

a)

Lymphedema

b)

Ascites

c)

Edema

d)

Cellulitis

54.

Inflammation of lymph vessel: _________.

a)

Lymphangitis

b)

Lymphadenopathy

c)

Lymphedema

d)

Lymphoma

55.

Chemical messengers in immune system: _________.

a)

Cytokines

b)

Enzymes

c)

Hormones

d)

Antibodies

56.

Lymphaden/o means: _________.

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Lymph vessels

c)

Lymph fluid

d)

Lymphatic tissue

57.

Stool for O&P test is used for: _________

a)

Amebic dysentery and giardiasis

b)

Typhoid fever

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Malaria

58.

Malaria diagnosed from: _________.

a)

Stained blood sample for protozoa

b)

Urine sample

c)

Saliva test

d)

X-ray imaging

59.

Stool culture confirms staph poisoning?

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Legionnaires’ disease gram-positive?

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Mycoplasmas have more PG?

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Gram-positive cell description: True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Gonorrhea culture kept at room temp?

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Chlamydia specimen transported on ice?

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Tetanus diagnosed by blood sample?

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Antibiotic effectiveness label: _________.

a)

S (sensitive)

b)

R (resistant)

c)

I (intermediate)

d)

N (non-effective)

67.

Serology lab test: _________.

a)

Antibody/antigen tests

b)

Blood sugar tests

c)

Urine analysis

d)

Electrolyte panel

68.

Gram-negative bacteria stain color: _________.

a)

Pink/red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Purple

69.

UTI diagnosis count: _________.

a)

>100,000 CFU/mL

b)

<10,000 CFU/mL

c)

10-50 CFU/mL

d)

1,000-10,000 CFU/mL

70.

Pathogenic organisms’ temperature: _______

a)

37°C

b)

25°C

c)

50°C

d)

10°C

71.

Tetanus deep wounds?

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Tinea pedis fungal infection?

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Epstein-Barr causes mono?

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis anaerobe?

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Pathogens viable at 37°C for 72 hrs?

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Specimens collected acute phase + 24 hrs post antibiotics?

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Negative strep test must be confirmed?

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Bacterial endospores survive harsh environments?

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Fungi classified as: _______

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

Viruses

d)

Bacteria

80.

Bacteria classified as: _______

a)

Prokaryotes

b)

Eukaryotes

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

81.

Molecules needed for metabolism: _______

a)

Nutrients

b)

Hormones

c)

Enzymes

d)

Vitamins

82.

Structures inside a cell: _______

a)

Organelles

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Enzymes

d)

Hormones

83.

4 CLIA-waived serology tests: _______

a)

HIV, H. pylori, Hepatitis, Mononucleosis

b)

HIV, Syphilis, Hepatitis, Influenza

c)

HIV, H. pylori, Hepatitis, Rubella

d)

HIV, H. pylori, Hepatitis, Strep

84.

3 organisms in sputum sample: _______

a)

Bacteria, Fungi, Mycobacteria

b)

Bacteria, Virus, Protozoa

c)

Fungi, Virus, Algae

d)

Mycobacteria, Protozoa, Helminths

85.

Prefix for bacteria in clusters: _______

a)

Staphylo-

b)

Strepto-

c)

Diplo-

d)

Cocco-

86.

Rule for genus name: _______

a)

Capitalized and italicized (or underlined)

b)

Lowercase and bold

c)

Capitalized and underlined only

d)

Italicized and lowercase

87.

Tape test for pinworms requires: _______

a)

Tape applied to anal area, placed on slide

b)

Tape applied to tongue, placed on slide

c)

Tape applied to hand, placed on slide

d)

Tape applied to scalp, placed on slide

88.

Rapid test for ulcers detects: _______

a)

H. pylori

b)

Salmonella typhi

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Escherichia coli

89.

“S” on antibiotic report means: _______

a)

Sensitive

b)

Severe

c)

Sterile

d)

Specific

90.

True about gonorrhea: _______

a)

Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, sexually transmitted

b)

Caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, airborne transmission

c)

Caused by Escherichia coli, foodborne transmission

d)

Caused by Staphylococcus aureus, waterborne transmission

91.

Infection caused by fungus: _______

a)

Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)

b)

Impetigo

c)

Scabies

d)

Cellulitis

92.

Prefix staphylo- means: _______

a)

Grape-like clusters

b)

Chains

c)

Pairs

d)

Spirals

93.

Color for gram-positive bacteria: _______

a)

Purple

b)

Pink

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

94.

Organism not sexually transmitted: ________

a)

E. coli

b)

Chlamydia trachomatis

c)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d)

Treponema pallidum

95.

Tightly coiled bacteria: ________

a)

Spirochetes

b)

Cocci

c)

Bacilli

d)

Vibrios

96.

Organism flexible with oxygen: ________

a)

Facultative anaerobe

b)

Obligate aerobe

c)

Obligate anaerobe

d)

Microaerophile

97.

Anaerobic organism from wound: ________

a)

Clostridium

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Pseudomonas

98.

Helminth diagnosis requires: ________

a)

Stool sample (O&P test)

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Chest X-ray

d)

Urine dipstick

99.

Sensitivity testing determines: ________

a)

Which antibiotics inhibit bacteria

b)

Which bacteria cause infection

c)

Which antibiotics are safe for humans

d)

Which bacteria are resistant to antibiotics

100.

Structures inside cells performing functions: ________

a)

Organelles

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Enzymes

d)

Hormones

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