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Refresher: Macronutrients

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines macronutrients based on the refresher?

a)

Nutrients required only in trace amounts for enzyme cofactors

b)

Dietary components needed in relatively large amounts

c)

Compounds used exclusively for genetic information storage

d)

Molecules that cannot be broken down during digestion

2.

Match each macromolecule subunit to its primary function described in the refresher table.

a)

Monosaccharide — source of short-term energy and structural roles

b)

Fatty acid — speeds up reactions and enables immunity

c)

Amino acid — forms cell membranes and long-term energy storage

d)

Monosaccharide — builds antibodies and muscle tissue

3.

During digestion, macromolecules are broken into smaller subunits through catabolic reactions and later reassembled through anabolic reactions. Which scenario correctly illustrates this process?

a)

Hydrolyzing starch into glucose during digestion, then synthesizing glycogen from glucose in cells

b)

Linking fatty acids to glycerol during digestion, then breaking triglycerides in cells for energy

c)

Converting amino acids directly into cholesterol during digestion, then storing cholesterol as starch

d)

Oxidizing glucose to CO2 during digestion, then rebuilding it into glucose via catabolism

4.

According to the refresher table, which set correctly pairs a subunit with an example macromolecule containing that subunit?

a)

Monosaccharide — phospholipids

b)

Fatty acid — oil and wax

c)

Amino acid — starch

d)

Monosaccharide — antibodies

5.

Which structural formula shown in the table corresponds to an amino acid, and what key feature identifies it?

a)

Ringed hexose with multiple hydroxyl groups; indicates a monosaccharide

b)

Long hydrocarbon chains with a polar head; indicates fatty acids

c)

Central carbon with amino (NH2) and carboxyl (COOH) groups; indicates an amino acid

d)

Sterol four-ring structure; indicates cholesterol

6.

Which statement best defines a monosaccharide in the context of carbohydrates?

a)

A simple sugar that serves as the monomer of carbohydrates

b)

A complex sugar formed from long chains of glucose

c)

A storage lipid found in plant leaves

d)

A protein modified with carbohydrate groups

7.

According to the material, how much energy do carbohydrates provide per gram?

a)

2 kcal/g

b)

4 kcal/g

c)

7 kcal/g

d)

9 kcal/g

8.

Which process produces the monosaccharide glucose in plants?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Nitrogen fixation

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Transpiration

9.

Glucose can be assembled into more complex molecules. Which pairing correctly matches the polymer with its typical plant location or role?

a)

Starch—fiber in leaves

b)

Cellulose—energy storage in grains

c)

Starch—stored in grains or root vegetables

d)

Cellulose—short-term energy in animal muscle

10.

As exercise intensity increases, which fuel becomes predominant for ATP production, based on the chart described?

a)

Fat

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Ketone bodies

11.

Which function of carbohydrates is directly involved in cell recognition?

a)

Formation of antibodies as glycoproteins

b)

Long-term energy storage in adipose tissue

c)

Production of oxygen during photosynthesis

d)

Synthesis of cholesterol in membranes

12.

Which statement best distinguishes simple sugars from complex carbohydrates?

a)

Simple sugars are long chains of monosaccharides; complex carbohydrates are single glucose units

b)

Simple sugars are monosaccharides; complex carbohydrates are polymers formed by linking many monosaccharides

c)

Simple sugars are proteins with attached sugars; complex carbohydrates are lipids with sugars

d)

Simple sugars and complex carbohydrates are both lipids differing only in saturation

13.

Which role of carbohydrates helps tissues resist friction within joints?

a)

Energy transfer during intense exercise

b)

Smooth surface formation in cartilage

c)

Blood type determination on cell surfaces

d)

Water transport through xylem

14.

Recall: Which statement best describes how monosaccharide monomers contribute to larger carbohydrate structures?

a)

They remain isolated and cannot form larger molecules

b)

They join via glycosidic linkages to create disaccharides and polysaccharides

c)

They only bond to lipids to form glycolipids

d)

They combine with amino acids to form nucleic acids

15.

Recall: According to the instructional text, which is identified as a quick source of energy?

a)

Starch

b)

Glycogen

c)

Glucose

d)

Cellulose

16.

Skill/Concept: The properties of a polysaccharide depend on which combination of features of its monomer chain?

a)

Length only

b)

Orientation only

c)

Length, structure of the chain, and orientation of monomers

d)

Presence of nitrogen atoms

17.

Skill/Concept (diagram-based): Using the depicted reaction showing two hexose rings joined by a glycosidic linkage with water released, what type of carbohydrate is formed?

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Polysaccharide

d)

Triglyceride

18.

Strategic Thinking: If a nutrition plan aims for longer-term energy storage rather than rapid energy availability, which class of carbohydrates should be emphasized based on the material?

a)

Monosaccharides, such as glucose

b)

Disaccharides like sucrose exclusively

c)

Polysaccharides, such as starch and glycogen

d)

Ketone bodies

19.

Recall: Which monosaccharide is found naturally in fruits and honey and is also produced industrially in high fructose corn syrup?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Galactose

d)

Ribose

20.

Strategic Thinking: A food technologist wants to reduce the amount of sweetener added while maintaining perceived sweetness. Based on the material, which choice is most effective and why?

a)

Use glucose because it is the primary blood sugar and will taste sweeter

b)

Use fructose because it is about four times sweeter than glucose, requiring less to achieve the same sweetness

c)

Use galactose because it is common in dairy and thus intensely sweet

d)

Use starch because complex carbohydrates taste sweeter per gram

21.

Recall: Which disaccharide is commonly referred to as table sugar?

a)

Maltose

b)

Lactose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Cellulose

22.

Recall: Match each disaccharide with the monosaccharides produced upon digestion by its specific enzyme. Choose the pair that is correct based on the provided descriptions:

a)

Maltose → glucose + fructose via maltase

b)

Lactose → glucose + galactose via lactase

c)

Sucrose → glucose + galactose via sucrase

d)

Maltose → glucose + galactose via sucrase

23.

Skill/Concept: A student with low lactase activity drinks milk. Based on disaccharide digestion, which immediate molecular consequence is most likely in the small intestine?

a)

Rapid formation of glucose and galactose from lactose

b)

Accumulation of intact lactose due to reduced hydrolysis

c)

Conversion of lactose into fructose and glucose

d)

Enhanced sucrase activity compensating for lactase deficiency

24.

Skill/Concept: Which statement best explains why disaccharides must be digested before entering the bloodstream?

a)

Disaccharides are too small to be transported across intestinal cells

b)

Disaccharides are polymers that cannot be recognized by transporters for monosaccharides

c)

Disaccharides are hydrophobic and therefore insoluble in blood

d)

Disaccharides are already absorbed without modification

25.

Recall: Which polysaccharide serves primarily as energy storage in animals?

a)

Starch

b)

Glycogen

c)

Cellulose

d)

Sucrose

26.

Skill/Concept: According to the material, what property difference explains why starch is easily broken down in the human GI system while cellulose is not?

a)

Length and orientation of the monosaccharide units within the polysaccharide

b)

Presence of peptide bonds instead of glycosidic bonds

c)

Higher lipid content in starch than in cellulose

d)

Cellulose contains disaccharides rather than monosaccharides

27.

Strategic Thinking: A plant engineer wants a carbohydrate for structural support rather than energy storage. Based on the roles outlined, which choice is most appropriate and why?

a)

Starch, because its branching provides rigid cross-links

b)

Glycogen, because animals use it to stabilize tissues

c)

Cellulose, because it provides structure to plants

d)

Sucrose, because it forms long insoluble fibers

28.

Strategic Thinking with visual reference: Examine the described diagram of polysaccharide structures (amylose and amylopectin under starch, highly branched glycogen, and layered cellulose). Which option best predicts which of these would be most rapidly mobilized for energy in animals and why?

a)

Cellulose, because its layered arrangement exposes many ends for rapid enzymatic attack

b)

Glycogen, because its extensive branching creates many terminal glucose residues for quick release

c)

Amylose, because its linear chain resists enzyme binding and therefore releases glucose quickly

d)

Sucrose, because disaccharides store energy more densely than polysaccharides

29.

According to the visual guide, which statement best characterizes carbohydrate sources?

a)

Only sweet foods provide carbohydrates

b)

All starchy and sweet foods are sources of carbohydrates, including glucose

c)

Only animal products provide carbohydrates

d)

Only processed foods contain carbohydrates

30.

Which option lists a grain explicitly identified in the food sources image?

a)

Quinoa

b)

Avocado

c)

Salmon

d)

Yogurt

31.

Which item is presented as a starchy tuber and carbohydrate source?

a)

Potato

b)

Broccoli

c)

Almonds

d)

Eggs

32.

Which food category includes brown rice, white rice, and wild rice?

a)

Grains

b)

Vegetables

c)

Rice

d)

Beans & Lentils

33.

Which option names a carbohydrate source commonly used in baking and listed under 'OATS'?

a)

Oat flour

b)

Corn oil

c)

Cocoa butter

d)

Ghee

34.

Which category explicitly notes it is relatively low in carbohydrates compared with others?

a)

Vegetables

b)

Dried fruits

c)

Breads

d)

Crackers

35.

Which selection correctly matches category to example as shown?

a)

Cereals — granola

b)

Beans & Lentils — yogurt

c)

Fruits — chicken breast

d)

Crackers — naan

36.

Which item is identified as a carbohydrate source derived from legumes?

a)

Beans & Lentils

b)

Breads

c)

Dried fruits

d)

Oats

37.

Which category includes honey, maple syrup, sugars, and desserts?

a)

Other

b)

Grains

c)

Rice

d)

Crackers

38.

A student wants a whole-grain baked carbohydrate source. Which category in the visual directly addresses this?

a)

Breads

b)

Fruits

c)

Oats

d)

Dried fruits

39.

Recall: Which enzyme is responsible for the digestion of lactose into simpler sugars during normal digestion?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lactase

c)

Protease

d)

Lipase

40.

Recall: According to the material, what typically happens to the ability to digest lactose after a baby is weaned?

a)

It increases because the lactase gene turns on

b)

It remains unchanged throughout life

c)

It disappears because the gene for lactase production is turned off

d)

It fluctuates randomly with age

41.

Skill/Concept: Based on the stated prevalence, which population has the lowest rate of lactose intolerance?

a)

Asian Americans

b)

African Americans and Native Americans

c)

Americans of northern European descent

d)

All populations have equal prevalence

42.

Skill/Concept: In the provided GI tract diagram, what outcome is shown when lactose is present but lactase is unavailable?

a)

Lactose is split into glucose and galactose with normal digestion

b)

Lactose is absorbed directly without water involvement

c)

Water is retained and constipation occurs

d)

Water enters the intestinal lumen with lactose, leading to diarrhea

43.

Strategic Thinking: A genetic mutation leads to lactase persistence in certain populations. Which explanation aligns with nutrigenomics for why only about 10% of Americans of northern European descent are lactose-intolerant?

a)

Food availability historically selected for a mutation keeping the lactase gene switched on

b)

Higher dairy fat content directly increases lactase enzyme concentration without genetics

c)

Lactose molecules in those populations are structurally different and easier to digest

d)

Infant feeding practices permanently elevate lactase through learned behavior

44.

Recall: Which statement best defines nutrigenomics as presented?

a)

The study of digestive diseases caused by dairy products

b)

The study of how nutrients regulate gene expression and how genetic makeup influences responses to food

c)

The cataloging of all human genes related to metabolism

d)

The measurement of calorie intake in different populations

45.

Strategic Thinking: Which example most directly illustrates nutrigenomics affecting individual dietary choices, based on the listed areas within the field?

a)

Choosing foods solely based on cultural tradition

b)

Differences in food preferences influenced by genetic makeup

c)

Avoiding vegetables due to cost

d)

Preferring foods after advertising exposure

46.

Which statement best defines dietary fiber based on the material?

a)

Carbohydrates that can be fully digested and provide energy

b)

Proteins from animal sources that resist digestion

c)

Carbohydrates, mostly plant cellulose, that humans cannot digest and thus provide no calories

d)

Lipids that are broken down only in the small intestine

47.

Why does most dietary fiber pass through the human digestive tract undigested?

a)

Humans lack enzymes to hydrolyze the bonds in fiber such as cellulose

b)

Fiber molecules are too small to be recognized by digestive cells

c)

Fiber is absorbed directly into the bloodstream without digestion

d)

Bile salts deactivate all enzymes that would digest fiber

48.

According to the material, what role do large-intestine bacteria play in fiber digestion?

a)

They completely digest all fiber into absorbable sugars

b)

They can ferment and break down some fiber, though most remains undigested

c)

They prevent any fiber from reaching the colon

d)

They convert fiber into amino acids for absorption

49.

Which characteristic distinguishes soluble fiber from insoluble fiber?

a)

Soluble fiber dissolves in water and forms gels; insoluble fiber does not dissolve

b)

Soluble fiber cannot be fermented; insoluble fiber is readily fermented

c)

Soluble fiber is found only in whole grains; insoluble fiber occurs only in citrus fruits

d)

Soluble fiber promotes bowel regularity; insoluble fiber lowers heart disease risk

50.

Which is a documented benefit associated with soluble fiber?

a)

Lower risk of heart disease and cancer

b)

Increased risk of constipation

c)

Enhanced protein absorption

d)

Formation of gallstones

51.

Which set correctly matches fiber type to typical sources listed in the material?

a)

Soluble: whole grains and seeds; Insoluble: citrus fruits and berries

b)

Soluble: citrus fruits, berries, oats, beans; Insoluble: whole grains, seeds, legumes, fruits, vegetables

c)

Soluble: red meat and dairy; Insoluble: fish and eggs

d)

Soluble: peas and apples; Insoluble: only nuts

52.

Which statement about fermentability is accurate according to the section?

a)

Both soluble and insoluble fibers are equally fermentable by colon bacteria

b)

Only insoluble fiber is fermentable by intestinal bacteria

c)

Soluble fiber is fermentable and may cause gas and bloating; insoluble fiber cannot be fermented

d)

Neither fiber type is fermentable by bacteria

53.

A nutrition facts label lists: Total Carbohydrate = 66 g, Dietary Fiber = 6 g, Sugars = 26 g. Based on the definition that total carbohydrate includes sugars + fiber + starch, what is the grams of starch in one serving?

a)

32 g

b)

34 g

c)

36 g

d)

40 g

54.

Which statement best describes how to find carbohydrate-derived kcal from a food when fiber is present?

a)

Multiply total carbohydrate (including fiber) by 4 kcal/g.

b)

Subtract sugars from total carbohydrate, then multiply by 9 kcal/g.

c)

Subtract dietary fiber from total carbohydrate, then multiply the remainder by 4 kcal/g.

d)

Use protein grams plus carbohydrate grams multiplied by 4 kcal/g.

55.

Using the label where Total Carbohydrate = 10 g and Dietary Fiber = 5 g, what are the net carbohydrate calories for one serving?

a)

10 kcal

b)

15 kcal

c)

20 kcal

d)

40 kcal

56.

On many nutrition labels, starch is not explicitly listed. What procedure yields starch grams from the listed carbohydrate components?

a)

Add sugars and fiber and divide by total carbohydrate.

b)

Subtract sugars and fiber from total carbohydrate.

c)

Multiply total carbohydrate by 4 and subtract protein kcal.

d)

Subtract total fat grams from total carbohydrate grams.

57.

Recall: What does the Glycemic Index (GI) describe? Choose the best definition.

a)

How different types of carbs affect blood glucose on a scale from 1–100

b)

How much total carbohydrate a food contains per serving

c)

How quickly proteins are digested and absorbed

d)

How fiber content changes the calorie density of food

58.

Recall: According to the GI scale shown, which statement is correct?

a)

Pure glucose is assigned a GI of 100

b)

White rice has a GI higher than glucose

c)

Kidney beans have a GI equal to white bread

d)

Apple has a GI above Jelly beans

59.

Skill/Concept: Which type of carbohydrate typically has a higher GI, and why?

a)

Simple carbohydrates, because they are rapidly catabolized into monosaccharides

b)

Complex carbohydrates, because they contain more fiber

c)

Simple carbohydrates, because they contain more protein

d)

Complex carbohydrates, because they slow gastric emptying

60.

Skill/Concept: Based on the chart, which pair correctly identifies the food with the lower GI?

a)

Kidney beans vs. white bread: kidney beans have the lower GI

b)

Jelly beans vs. apple: jelly beans have the lower GI

c)

Instant mashed potatoes vs. glucose: instant mashed potatoes have the lower GI

d)

Rice Krispies vs. oat bran bread: Rice Krispies have the lower GI

61.

Strategic Thinking: A patient wants to reduce post-meal blood glucose spikes. Which modification is most consistent with GI principles stated?

a)

Replace white bread with oat bran bread to increase fiber and lower GI

b)

Switch from kidney beans to white rice to lower GI

c)

Choose instant mashed potatoes over glucose to achieve the lowest GI

d)

Add simple sugars to complex meals to reduce GI

62.

Recall: Which factor generally raises the GI of a food?

a)

Greater processing of the food

b)

Higher soluble fiber content

c)

Higher protein content

d)

Higher fat content

63.

Skill/Concept: Which mechanism explains how fat influences GI?

a)

Fat lowers GI by slowing gastric emptying

b)

Fat raises GI by accelerating carbohydrate absorption

c)

Fat has no effect on GI because it contains no carbohydrates

d)

Fat lowers GI by increasing glucose release into the bloodstream

64.

Recall the definitions to answer: Which statement best distinguishes Glycemic Index (GI) from Glycemic Load (GL)?

a)

GI estimates a food’s ability to raise blood glucose levels, whereas GL reflects the total impact of all carbohydrates in a serving.

b)

GI measures total grams of carbohydrates per serving, whereas GL measures only fiber grams.

c)

GI and GL are identical metrics; both quantify the amount of protein and fat per serving.

d)

GI describes how much water a food contains, whereas GL describes the sweetness of simple sugars.

65.

Apply the formula provided: A food has GI = 70 and contains 8 grams of digestible carbohydrates per serving. What is its Glycemic Load (GL)? Use GL = GI × grams of carbs in a serving ÷ 100.

a)

5.6

b)

8.8

c)

70

d)

0.8

66.

Use the watermelon example described: Why can watermelon have a high GI (~70) but a low GL (~6)?

a)

Its carbohydrates are mostly complex starches that digest slowly.

b)

It contains many grams of digestible carbohydrates per serving.

c)

It contains very few digestible carbohydrates per serving because it has a high water content.

d)

Its GI value is adjusted downward when fiber is present.

67.

Use the table values for 1 cup servings: Which food shows the highest GL among the listed items?

a)

Baked potato (GI 95; carbs 21 g; GL 20)

b)

White rice (GI 68; carbs 82 g; GL 56)

c)

Oatmeal, cooked in water (GI 60; carbs 15 g; GL 9)

d)

Low-fat yogurt, plain (GI 35; carbs 1.5 g; GL 0.5)

68.

Strategic reasoning with the formula and table: Two foods have similar GI values (around 60–68). Based on the data, which factor most explains why white rice has a much higher GL than cooked oatmeal?

a)

White rice contains substantially more digestible carbohydrates per serving.

b)

Cooked oatmeal has more fat, which increases GL.

c)

White rice has lower fiber, and GL directly includes fiber grams.

d)

Cooked oatmeal has a lower GI because it is cooked in water.

69.

Which statement best describes the primary action of insulin on body cells?

a)

It closes glucose channels to keep glucose in the bloodstream

b)

It opens channels in cells to allow glucose to enter and be removed from the bloodstream

c)

It converts glucose directly into amino acids inside the bloodstream

d)

It releases glucose from the liver into the blood

70.

Under which condition is glucagon most likely to be released?

a)

High blood glucose after a carbohydrate-rich meal

b)

Normal blood glucose during fasting

c)

Low blood glucose when energy is needed

d)

Immediately after insulin binds to its receptor

71.

What is the role of the liver in blood glucose regulation as described?

a)

It produces insulin to open glucose channels in cells

b)

It stores glucose as glycogen and releases it when stimulated by glucagon

c)

It blocks glucose uptake in tissue cells during fasting

d)

It directly absorbs glucose from the pancreas

72.

According to the diagram titled “How does insulin work?”, what happens after insulin binds its receptor on the cell membrane?

a)

The glucose channel remains closed and glucose accumulates in blood

b)

The glucose channel opens, permitting glucose to enter the cell

c)

Glucagon is released to increase blood glucose

d)

The cell secretes more glycogen into the bloodstream

73.

Which sequence correctly traces the feedback loop when blood glucose is high?

a)

High blood glucose → glucagon release → glycogen breakdown → higher blood glucose

b)

High blood glucose → insulin release → increased glucose uptake into cells → decreased blood glucose

c)

High blood glucose → insulin release → glycogen breakdown → increased blood glucose

d)

High blood glucose → no hormone release → homeostasis maintained

74.

When blood glucose is low, which process is stimulated to raise it?

a)

Glycogen formation in the liver

b)

Glucose uptake into tissue cells

c)

Glycogen breakdown in the liver with release of glucose

d)

Insulin secretion from the pancreas

75.

A high glycemic index (GI) food is most likely to cause which immediate physiological response?

a)

Slow, modest rise in blood glucose with minimal insulin release

b)

Rapid rise in blood glucose triggering strong insulin release and possible later rebound drop

c)

Decline in blood glucose that stimulates glucagon release first

d)

Direct conversion of glucose to glycogen without hormonal involvement

76.

Which pairing correctly matches the hormone with its primary effect on blood glucose?

a)

Insulin — increases blood glucose by releasing glycogen from the liver

b)

Glucagon — decreases blood glucose by opening cell glucose channels

c)

Insulin — decreases blood glucose by stimulating uptake into cells

d)

Glucagon — increases blood glucose by inhibiting glycogen breakdown

77.

A student eats a high-GI snack leading to a rapid spike in blood glucose. Which outcome best explains the rebound effect that may follow?

a)

Persistent elevation in blood glucose because insulin is not released

b)

Overshoot of insulin-mediated glucose uptake causing blood glucose to fall below baseline

c)

Glucagon keeps blood glucose elevated by releasing more glucose

d)

The liver halts glycogen breakdown, preventing any drop in blood glucose