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Lab Values and Drug Monitoring Ch 4

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Explain why monitoring "Lipids and Cardiovascular Risk" is important in drug therapy management.

a)

It helps in diagnosing anemia

b)

It is essential for assessing risk of heart disease and guiding therapy

c)

It is only relevant for respiratory diseases

d)

It is used to monitor HIV progression

2.

Which of the following is commonly included in a Complete Blood Count (CBC)?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Albumin

c)

Glucose

d)

Sodium

3.

What is the primary purpose of therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

a)

To monitor drug levels and efficacy/safety

b)

To diagnose infections

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To test for pregnancy

4.

Which test panel includes analysis of electrolytes, glucose, and renal function?

a)

Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)

b)

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

c)

Liver Function Test (LFT)

d)

Lipid Panel

5.

What additional tests are included in a Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP) that are not in a BMP?

a)

Albumin, ALT, AST, total bilirubin, total protein

b)

Hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelets

c)

Glucose, sodium, potassium

d)

White blood cells, red blood cells

6.

Why might a healthcare provider use point-of-care (POC) testing?

a)

For rapid results at the site of patient care

b)

To send samples to an outside laboratory

c)

To monitor only liver function

d)

To test for genetic disorders

7.

When a CBC with differential is ordered, what additional information is provided?

a)

Types of white blood cells analyzed

b)

Blood glucose levels

c)

Electrolyte concentrations

d)

Liver enzyme levels

8.

A pharmacist in many states can order and interpret lab tests for which of the following purposes?

a)

Screening for and diagnosing disease, monitoring drug levels, checking medication adherence

b)

Prescribing antibiotics

c)

Performing surgery

d)

Administering vaccines

9.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a basic metabolic panel (BMP)?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Sodium

c)

Creatinine

d)

Glucose

10.

What is the significance of stick diagrams in lab practice?

a)

They denote the primary components of CBC or BMP in paper chart notes

b)

They show the results of genetic testing

c)

They illustrate the process of blood collection

d)

They are used to calculate medication dosages

11.

Which type of blood cell is also known as an erythrocyte?

a)

Red blood cell

b)

White blood cell

c)

Platelet

d)

Neutrophil

12.

What is the term for an increase in white blood cell count?

a)

Leukocytosis

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Polycythemia

13.

Which condition is characterized by a decrease in red blood cells or hemoglobin?

a)

Anemia

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Thrombocytosis

d)

Leukocytosis

14.

Which drug is NOT listed as a cause of agranulocytosis?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Clozapine

c)

Methimazole

d)

Carbamazepine

15.

What is the significance of a lab value that is termed "critical"?

a)

It indicates a condition that needs to be addressed quickly.

b)

It is always within the normal reference range.

c)

It does not require any action.

d)

It is only used for research purposes.

16.

Why do reference ranges for lab results vary between facilities?

a)

Due to slight variances in products and techniques

b)

Because all patients have the same reference range

c)

Because lab results are always abnormal

d)

Because only adult populations are considered

17.

Which of the following is a decrease in multiple blood cell lines including WBCs, RBCs, and platelets?

a)

Myelosuppression

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Thrombocytosis

d)

Leukocytosis

18.

Agranulocytosis involves a decrease in which types of white blood cells?

a)

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

b)

Lymphocytes, monocytes, and platelets

c)

Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, and neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils, lymphocytes, and erythrocytes

19.

What is the role of the Joint Commission regarding lab results?

a)

Requires all accredited facilities to create and follow a protocol to identify and report critical values

b)

Provides reference ranges for all lab tests

c)

Treats all abnormal lab results with medication

d)

Only evaluates lab results for research purposes

20.

How can familiarity with lab tests and their interpretation benefit pharmacists taking the NAPLEX?

a)

It greatly reduces the time required to evaluate cases on the exam.

b)

It guarantees a passing score.

c)

It eliminates the need to study disease state chapters.

d)

It is only useful for research pharmacists.

21.

Which of the following is the normal reference range for total calcium (Ca) in adult laboratory tests?

a)

8.5–10.5 mg/dL

b)

4.5–5.1 mg/dL

c)

135–145 mEq/L

d)

70–110 mg/dL

22.

What is the primary reason to calculate corrected calcium in laboratory results?

a)

If albumin is low

b)

If glucose is high

c)

If sodium is low

d)

If potassium is high

23.

Which electrolyte is commonly used with other labs to assess acid-base status and fluid balance?

a)

Chloride (Cl)

b)

Magnesium (Mg)

c)

Phosphate (PO4)

d)

Glucose

24.

A patient with chronic kidney disease is most likely to have an increased level of which electrolyte?

a)

Phosphate (PO4)

b)

Sodium (Na)

c)

Glucose

d)

Bicarbonate (HCO3)

25.

Which of the following drugs can increase potassium (K) levels in the blood?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Loop diuretics

c)

NSAIDs

d)

H2RAs

26.

What is the reference range for serum creatinine (SCr) in adults?

a)

0.6–1.3 mg/dL

b)

7–20 mg/dL

c)

24–30 mEq/L

d)

3.5–5 mEq/L

27.

Which condition is suggested by an increased anion gap (AG) in laboratory results?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Renal impairment

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Osteoporosis

28.

Which laboratory value is used to assess acid-base status and can be measured in both venous and arterial blood?

a)

Bicarbonate (HCO3 or "bicarb")

b)

Serum creatinine (SCr)

c)

Glucose

d)

Magnesium (Mg)

29.

A patient with low muscle mass, amputation, or hemodilution may have falsely low levels of which laboratory value?

a)

Serum creatinine (SCr)

b)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

c)

Sodium (Na)

d)

Phosphate (PO4)

30.

Which of the following is the normal reference range for sodium (Na) in adult laboratory tests?

a)

135–145 mEq/L

b)

95–106 mEq/L

c)

1.3–2.1 mEq/L

d)

5–12 mEq/L

31.

Which of the following is the reference range for White Blood Cells (WBCs) in adults?

a)

4,000–11,000 cells/mm³

b)

1,000–5,000 cells/mm³

c)

10,000–20,000 cells/mm³

d)

500–2,000 cells/mm³

32.

What is the primary function of neutrophils in the body?

a)

To fight infection

b)

To transport oxygen

c)

To produce antibodies

d)

To regulate blood pressure

33.

Which condition is associated with an increase in eosinophils?

a)

Asthma

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Osteoporosis

34.

Bands are best described as:

a)

Immature neutrophils released from the bone marrow

b)

Mature red blood cells

c)

Platelets involved in clotting

d)

Lymphocytes that fight viruses

35.

Which of the following is a reason for decreased red blood cell (RBC) count?

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

Smoking

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs)

36.

What is the reference range for hemoglobin (Hgb) in adult females?

a)

12–16 g/dL

b)

13.5–18 g/dL

c)

10–14 g/dL

d)

16–20 g/dL

37.

Which laboratory value reflects the size and average volume of red blood cells?

a)

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

b)

Hematocrit (Hct)

c)

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)

d)

RBC Distribution Width (RDW)

38.

A patient with macrocytic anemia is most likely to have an increased value in which of the following?

a)

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

b)

Hemoglobin (Hgb)

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Bands

39.

Which of the following is a cause of increased lymphocytes?

a)

Viral infections

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Smoking

d)

Blood loss

40.

Which of the following statements about RBC Distribution Width (RDW) is correct?

a)

RDW measures the variability in RBC size.

b)

RDW measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs.

c)

RDW measures the number of platelets.

d)

RDW measures the concentration of hemoglobin in plasma.

41.

A patient is found to have a decreased Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV). Which condition is most likely present?

a)

Microcytic anemia

b)

Macrocytic anemia

c)

Leukemia

d)

Asthma

42.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of increased white blood cell (WBC) count?

a)

Systemic steroids

b)

Colony-stimulating factors

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Blood loss

43.

Which laboratory test is used to assess the likelihood of acute infection by calculating the absolute neutrophil count (ANC)?

a)

Neutrophils and bands

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Lymphocytes

44.

Which of the following is a reason for increased hematocrit (Hct)?

a)

Use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs)

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Blood loss

d)

Deficiency anemias

45.

Which of the following is a condition associated with decreased RBC count due to low production?

a)

Deficiency anemias (e.g., B12, folate)

b)

Asthma

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Hypersensitivity reactions

46.

What is the reference range for serum iron in adults?

a)

65–150 mcg/dL

b)

250–400 mcg/dL

c)

2–25 mIU/mL

d)

11–300 ng/mL

47.

Which laboratory test is monitored as part of the workup and treatment for iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)

b)

Methylmalonic acid (MMA)

c)

Reticulocyte Count

d)

Anti-Factor Xa Activity

48.

Transferrin saturation (TSAT) reference range for males is:

a)

15–50%

b)

12–45%

c)

5–25 mcg/L

d)

0.5–2.5%

49.

Which vitamin is used for further workup of macrocytic anemia when its deficiency is suspected?

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin K

50.

Which of the following drugs can decrease folic acid levels?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Metformin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Dapsone

51.

What is the reference range for reticulocyte count?

a)

0.5–2.5%

b)

5–25 mcg/L

c)

65–150 mcg/dL

d)

2–25 mIU/mL

52.

Which test is used in the diagnosis of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

a)

Coombs Test, Direct

b)

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD)

c)

Ferritin

d)

Erythropoietin

53.

Which enzyme deficiency is determined using the Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) test?

a)

G6PD

b)

MMA

c)

TIBC

d)

TSAT

54.

Which of the following is used to monitor low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs)?

a)

Anti-Factor Xa Activity

b)

Reticulocyte Count

c)

Ferritin

d)

Transferrin

55.

For unfractionated heparin (UFH), after how many hours post IV infusion should a peak anti-Xa level be obtained?

a)

6 hours

b)

2 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

8 hours

56.

Which laboratory value is increased due to iron supplementation and decreased due to blood loss or poor nutrition?

a)

Iron

b)

Ferritin

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Vitamin B12

57.

Which of the following is a reason for increased reticulocyte count?

a)

Blood loss and hemolysis

b)

Iron supplementation

c)

Vitamin D deficiency

d)

Low molecular weight heparin therapy

58.

Which test is used to determine if hemolytic anemia is due to G6PD deficiency?

a)

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD)

b)

Coombs Test, Direct

c)

Reticulocyte Count

d)

Ferritin

59.

Which of the following drugs can cause immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Metformin

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Vitamin B12

60.

A patient with suspected iron deficiency anemia has a TIBC of 450 mcg/dL. Is this value above, below, or within the reference range?

a)

Above the reference range

b)

Below the reference range

c)

Within the reference range

d)

Not applicable

61.

If a drug-induced cause is suspected and the Coombs test is positive, what should be done?

a)

Discontinue the offending drug

b)

Increase iron supplementation

c)

Start vitamin B12 therapy

d)

Monitor reticulocyte count

62.

Which population should supplement folate according to the notes?

a)

Women of childbearing age and those with alcohol use disorder

b)

Elderly men

c)

Children under 5

d)

Patients with diabetes

63.

What is the reference range for Vitamin B12?

a)

> 200 pg/mL

b)

65–150 mcg/dL

c)

5–25 mcg/L

d)

250–400 mcg/dL

64.

Which test measures the amount of reticulocytes being made by the bone marrow?

a)

Reticulocyte Count

b)

Ferritin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Anti-Factor Xa Activity

65.

Which laboratory test is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy?

a)

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

b)

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

c)

Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio (PT/INR)

d)

Platelet count (PLTs)

66.

What is the typical reference range for platelet count (PLTs) in cells/mm³?

a)

10,000–50,000 cells/mm³

b)

150,000–450,000 cells/mm³

c)

1,000–5,000 cells/mm³

d)

500,000–1,000,000 cells/mm³

67.

Which condition is suspected when platelets drop more than 50% from baseline after treatment with UFH or LMWH?

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

c)

Leukemia

d)

Anemia

68.

A positive SRA (serotonin release assay) test confirms the diagnosis of which condition?

a)

Liver cirrhosis

b)

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

c)

Hepatic encephalopathy

d)

Bile duct blockage

69.

Which enzyme is released from injured hepatocytes and is used to assess liver function?

a)

Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

b)

Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)

c)

Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase (GGT)

d)

Ammonia

70.

Low albumin levels can be caused by which of the following conditions?

a)

Diabetes and hypertension

b)

Cirrhosis and malnutrition

c)

Asthma and bronchitis

d)

Renal failure and gout

71.

Which laboratory value is often measured in suspected hepatic encephalopathy?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Albumin

c)

Ammonia

d)

Platelets

72.

Why is it important to correct calcium serum concentrations for low albumin?

a)

Because low albumin increases potassium levels

b)

Because low albumin affects protein-bound drug levels

c)

Because low albumin causes anemia

d)

Because low albumin increases bilirubin

73.

Which medication can cause a false increase in INR?

a)

Daptomycin

b)

Linezolid

c)

Valproic acid

d)

Lactulose

74.

What is the main use of Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) in laboratory testing?

a)

To monitor warfarin therapy

b)

To assess liver, biliary tract, and bone disease

c)

To diagnose anemia

d)

To detect platelet disorders

75.

A patient with suspected bile duct blockage would most likely have which laboratory test elevated?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Bilirubin (Tbil)

c)

Albumin

d)

Platelets

76.

Which of the following drugs can increase ammonia levels?

a)

Lactulose

b)

Topiramate

c)

Warfarin

d)

Daptomycin

77.

Which laboratory test is used to monitor UFH and parenteral direct thrombin inhibitors?

a)

Prothrombin Time/INR

b)

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

c)

Platelet count

d)

Albumin

78.

What is the reference range for albumin in g/dL?

a)

0.1–1.2 g/dL

b)

3.5–5 g/dL

c)

10–40 g/dL

d)

19–60 g/dL

79.

Which laboratory test is used along with other tests to determine causes of liver damage and detect bile duct blockage?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Bilirubin (Tbil)

c)

Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase (GGT)

d)

Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)

80.

Which laboratory test is used to assess muscle inflammation (myositis) or more serious muscle damage?

a)

Creatine Kinase or Creatine Phosphokinase (CK or CPK)

b)

Troponin I (TnI)

c)

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

d)

C-reactive Protein (CRP)

81.

What is the desirable reference range for Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol?

a)

< 100 mg/dL

b)

< 200 mg/dL

c)

< 150 mg/dL

d)

< 130 mg/dL

82.

Which of the following is true regarding CK-MB, Troponin T, and Troponin I?

a)

They are called "cardiac enzymes" and are used in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI).

b)

They are used to assess liver function.

c)

They are used to measure cholesterol levels.

d)

They are used to diagnose peripheral artery disease.

83.

What does a higher value of C-reactive Protein (CRP) indicate?

a)

Increased inflammation and higher risk of cardiovascular disease

b)

Lower risk of muscle damage

c)

Improved liver function

d)

Decreased cholesterol levels

84.

Which test is used to assess severity of peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

a)

Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)

b)

Troponin I (TnI)

c)

High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

d)

Coronary Artery Calcium score

85.

If a patient has an ABI (Ankle Brachial Index) of less than 1, what does this indicate?

a)

Presence of peripheral artery disease (PAD)

b)

High risk of myocardial infarction

c)

Normal cardiovascular function

d)

Elevated cholesterol levels

86.

Which of the following statements best describes the role of BNP and NT-proBNP in cardiovascular assessment?

a)

They are markers of cardiac stress and are not heart failure (HF) nor heart disease-specific, but higher values indicate a higher likelihood of HF when consistent with HF symptoms.

b)

They are used to diagnose liver inflammation.

c)

They are used to measure cholesterol levels.

d)

They are used to assess muscle inflammation.

87.

Why is fasting recommended before a lipid blood draw?

a)

To ensure accurate measurement of cholesterol and triglyceride levels

b)

To reduce inflammation markers

c)

To improve muscle enzyme accuracy

d)

To assess liver function

88.

Which laboratory value is associated with both increased coagulation and increased risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

a)

Lipoprotein-a, Lp(a)

b)

Troponin T (TnT)

c)

Creatine Kinase (CK)

d)

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

89.

A coronary artery calcium score is used to measure:

a)

Calcium build-up in the coronary arteries

b)

Muscle inflammation

c)

Liver function

d)

Peripheral artery disease

90.

ABI is used to:

a)

Assess severity of peripheral artery disease (PAD)

b)

Measure liver function

c)

Diagnose myocardial infarction

d)

Assess cholesterol levels

91.

Which fasting plasma glucose (FPG) value is considered positive for diabetes?

a)

≥ 126 mg/dL

b)

80–130 mg/dL

c)

< 154 mg/dL

d)

100–125 mg/dL

92.

What does a Hemoglobin A1C (A1C) value of less than 7% (ADA) or 6.5% (AACE) indicate?

a)

Good average blood glucose control over the past 3 months

b)

High risk of diabetes

c)

Acute hyperglycemia

d)

Severe hypoglycemia

93.

Which test is used to evaluate beta-cell function and distinguish type 1 from type 2 diabetes?

a)

C-Peptide (fasting)

b)

Amylase

c)

Total Thyroxine (T4)

d)

Uric Acid

94.

What is the reference range for preprandial blood glucose according to ADA guidelines?

a)

80–130 mg/dL

b)

< 110 mg/dL

c)

< 180 mg/dL

d)

5–160 units/L

95.

Which enzyme is increased in pancreatitis and can be caused by GLP-1 agonists, DPP-4 inhibitors, valproic acid, and hypertriglyceridemia?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

TSH

d)

Uric Acid