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The Meninges

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which meningeal layer is described as thin, innermost, and bound tightly to the brain surface?

a)

Dura mater

b)

Arachnoid mater

c)

Pia mater

d)

Periosteum

2.

Which statement best characterizes the arachnoid mater based on the description provided?

a)

Outermost tough membrane in contact with cranial bones

b)

Middle membrane that contains the subarachnoid space

c)

Innermost membrane tightly adherent to brain gyri and sulci

d)

Highly vascular membrane forming the venous sinuses

3.

Identify the correct pairing of meningeal layer and position relative to the skull.

a)

Dura mater – innermost next to brain

b)

Arachnoid mater – outermost under the scalp

c)

Pia mater – middle between dura and brain

d)

Dura mater – outermost in contact with cranial bones

4.

According to the labeled cross-sectional diagram of the cranial wall and meninges, which space lies between the arachnoid mater and pia mater?

a)

Subdural space

b)

Epidural space

c)

Subarachnoid space

d)

Superior sagittal sinus

5.

Which structure is the site where cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) diffuses into venous blood?

a)

Subarachnoid space

b)

Arachnoid granulations

c)

Superior sagittal sinus

d)

Falx cerebri

6.

Which statement about the subarachnoid space is accurate?

a)

It contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

b)

It houses venous blood returning to the heart

c)

It is a potential space between skull and dura mater

d)

It is formed by the periosteal layer of the dura

7.

The superior sagittal sinus primarily functions to:

a)

Produce CSF from choroid plexuses

b)

Receive venous blood from the brain

c)

Provide arterial supply to meninges

d)

Anchor the pia mater to the cortex

8.

Which sequence correctly orders the layers encountered moving from the scalp toward the brain, as indicated in the diagrams?

a)

Scalp → bone of skull → dura mater → arachnoid mater → pia mater → brain

b)

Scalp → dura mater → bone of skull → arachnoid mater → pia mater → brain

c)

Scalp → arachnoid mater → bone of skull → dura mater → pia mater → brain

d)

Scalp → bone of skull → pia mater → arachnoid mater → dura mater → brain

9.

In the detailed view of Figure 15.1, which labeled structure corresponds to the meningeal layer directly contacting brain tissue?

a)

Dura mater

b)

Arachnoid mater

c)

Pia mater

d)

White matter

10.

Which pairing correctly matches a component with its role within the meninges?

a)

Arachnoid granulations – produce CSF

b)

Superior sagittal sinus – receives venous blood

c)

Subdural space – contains CSF

d)

Pia mater – outermost protective layer

11.

Which description best distinguishes dura mater from the other meningeal layers?

a)

It is vascular and loosely attached to the brain

b)

It is the tough outermost layer in contact with cranial bones

c)

It forms the subarachnoid space

d)

It is a delicate membrane tightly bound to brain tissue

12.

A blockage of arachnoid granulations would most directly impair which process?

a)

CSF production within ventricles

b)

Venous blood flow from scalp veins

c)

CSF diffusion into venous blood

d)

Arterial perfusion of dura mater

13.

If the subarachnoid space were reduced in volume, which immediate consequence would be most expected?

a)

Decreased CSF surrounding the brain and spinal cord

b)

Accumulation of arterial blood within the dura mater

c)

Separation of the periosteal dura from the skull

d)

Increased production of CSF by arachnoid granulations

14.

Based on Figure 15.1, which labeled region contains CSF and lies deep to the arachnoid mater?

a)

Subdural space

b)

Subarachnoid space

c)

Superior sagittal sinus

d)

Gray matter

15.

Which structure is correctly identified as part of the venous drainage pathway associated with the meninges?

a)

Pia mater

b)

Subarachnoid space

c)

Superior sagittal sinus

d)

Periosteum

16.

Which structure produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricles of the brain?

a)

Arachnoid villi

b)

Choroid plexus

c)

Cerebral aqueduct

d)

Dura mater

17.

Identify the location of the third ventricle based on the instructional text: it lies primarily within which brain region?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Pons

d)

Medulla oblongata

18.

According to the lateral brain diagram, which channel connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle for CSF passage?

a)

Interventricular foramen

b)

Cerebral aqueduct

c)

Median aperture

d)

Lateral aperture

19.

How many lateral ventricles are present in the brain, and where are they located?

a)

One, in the midline

b)

Two, one in each cerebral hemisphere

c)

Three, surrounding the diencephalon

d)

Four, distributed across brainstem regions

20.

Which statement best describes the anatomical surroundings of the fourth ventricle?

a)

Embedded within the cerebral hemispheres

b)

Situated in the diencephalon

c)

Surrounded by the pons, medulla, and cerebellum

d)

Located within the central canal of the spinal cord

21.

Place the initial steps of CSF circulation in order, starting from secretion. Which option lists the correct first three steps?

a)

Secretion by arachnoid villi → flow through cerebral aqueduct → addition by choroid plexus in fourth ventricle

b)

Secretion by choroid plexus in lateral ventricles → flow through interventricular foramina → third ventricle adds more CSF

c)

Secretion by choroid plexus in third ventricle → flow through median aperture → entry to lateral ventricles

d)

Secretion by dura mater → flow through lateral apertures → entry to subarachnoid space

22.

Which openings allow CSF to exit the fourth ventricle into the subarachnoid space?

a)

Interventricular foramina

b)

Cerebral aqueduct only

c)

Two lateral apertures and one median aperture

d)

Sagittal sinus and central canal

23.

Where is CSF ultimately resorbed into the venous circulation according to the flow diagram?

a)

Choroid plexus

b)

Arachnoid villi into dural venous sinuses

c)

Central canal of the spinal cord

d)

Cerebral aqueduct

24.

Which structure directly precedes the fourth ventricle in the CSF pathway?

a)

Interventricular foramen

b)

Median aperture

c)

Cerebral aqueduct

d)

Arachnoid granulations

25.

According to Figure 15.2, which labeled feature is the space into which CSF circulates around the brain and spinal cord?

a)

Dura mater

b)

Subarachnoid space

c)

Sagittal sinus

d)

Interventricular foramen

26.

In Figure 15.2, which labeled structure is responsible for CSF production within the third ventricle?

a)

Arachnoid granulations

b)

Choroid plexus of third ventricle

c)

Median aperture

d)

Cerebral aqueduct

27.

Which route correctly describes how CSF can reach the spinal cord according to the diagrams?

a)

Lateral ventricles → sagittal sinus → central canal of spinal cord

b)

Third ventricle → lateral apertures → cerebral aqueduct → central canal

c)

Fourth ventricle → median aperture → subarachnoid space → central canal of spinal cord

d)

Interventricular foramen → dura mater → arachnoid villi → spinal canal

28.

Which major brain region primarily integrates and interprets incoming sensory impulses as sensations and initiates conscious motor responses?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Brainstem

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Diencephalon

29.

In the cerebrum, what structure separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres?

a)

Central sulcus

b)

Longitudinal fissure

c)

Lateral fissure

d)

Corpus callosum

30.

Which pairing correctly matches a sulcus or fissure with the lobes it separates?

a)

Central sulcus separates temporal from frontal lobes

b)

Lateral fissure separates frontal from parietal lobes

c)

Central sulcus separates frontal and parietal lobes

d)

Longitudinal fissure separates frontal and temporal lobes

31.

What is the function of the cerebellum as introduced in the section?

a)

Primary relay for sensory information and autonomic control

b)

Enables muscular coordination, balance, and posture

c)

Relays information between the body and the cerebrum

d)

Initiates conscious thought processes and memory

32.

Which statement about gyri and sulci in the cerebrum is accurate?

a)

Gyri are grooves between sulci; sulci are folds that increase surface area

b)

Gyri are folds that increase surface area; sulci are grooves between gyri

c)

Gyri and sulci both refer to lobes of the cerebral cortex

d)

Sulci form the primary motor cortex; gyri form the sensory cortex

33.

The central sulcus lies between which two cortical gyri?

a)

Precentral gyrus and postcentral gyrus

b)

Superior temporal gyrus and inferior frontal gyrus

c)

Cingulate gyrus and parahippocampal gyrus

d)

Angular gyrus and supramarginal gyrus

34.

What is the relationship between cerebral hemispheres and control of body sides?

a)

Each hemisphere controls the same side of the body

b)

Right hemisphere controls the right side; left controls the left side

c)

Right hemisphere controls the left side; left controls the right side

d)

Control alternates depending on task complexity

35.

Which brain region is described as having numerous functions and relaying information between the body and the cerebrum and cerebellum?

a)

Diencephalon

b)

Brainstem

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Cerebellum

36.

Refer to the left lateral brain diagram highlighting green regions labeled “Gyri.” Which statement best defines gyri as shown?

a)

Raised folds of the cerebral cortex

b)

Deep grooves separating lobes

c)

Membranous coverings of the brain

d)

Bundles of white matter tracts

37.

Using the right lateral brain diagram highlighting green lines labeled “Sulci,” what are sulci?

a)

Raised ridges on the cortical surface

b)

Shallow and deep grooves between gyri

c)

Openings leading into ventricles

d)

Thick bands of myelinated fibers

38.

Which feature is indicated by the midline separation in the superior view image where the two cerebral hemispheres are divided?

a)

Lateral fissure

b)

Central sulcus

c)

Longitudinal fissure

d)

Transverse sinus

39.

In the labeled cerebrum diagram, which lobe lies inferior to the lateral fissure and anterior to the occipital lobe?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Insular cortex

40.

Which pairing correctly matches surface feature to its morphology based on the diagrams?

a)

Gyrus — groove; Sulcus — fold

b)

Gyrus — fold; Sulcus — groove

c)

Gyrus — fissure; Sulcus — ridge

d)

Gyrus — ventricle; Sulcus — gyrus

41.

According to the lobe boundaries in the cerebrum diagram, which structure demarcates the frontal and parietal lobes on the lateral surface?

a)

Central sulcus

b)

Longitudinal fissure

c)

Lateral fissure

d)

Transverse fissure

42.

A lesion confined along a deep midline cleft visible in the superior view would most directly affect communication between hemispheres. Which cleft is involved?

a)

Lateral fissure

b)

Longitudinal fissure

c)

Calcarine sulcus

d)

Precentral sulcus

43.

In the labeled cerebrum, which lobe is most posterior and inferior on the lateral surface?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

44.

Consider cortical folding shown in the gyri/sulci images. Which functional inference best explains the presence of many gyri and sulci on the cerebrum’s surface?

a)

They reduce blood flow to minimize heat production

b)

They increase surface area allowing more cortical neurons

c)

They prevent hemispheric communication by forming barriers

d)

They serve primarily to anchor meninges to skull bones

45.

In the lateral view diagram of the human brain, which landmark separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?

a)

Lateral sulcus

b)

Central sulcus

c)

Longitudinal fissure

d)

Parieto-occipital sulcus

46.

In the insula illustration where the lateral fissure is retracted, which buried cortical region becomes visible?

a)

Cingulate gyrus

b)

Insula

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Calcarine cortex

47.

Which groove marks the boundary between the frontal and temporal lobes in the labeled brain diagram?

a)

Central sulcus

b)

Lateral sulcus

c)

Parieto-occipital sulcus

d)

Precentral sulcus

48.

According to the labeled figure, which gyrus lies immediately anterior to the central sulcus?

a)

Postcentral gyrus

b)

Precentral gyrus

c)

Superior temporal gyrus

d)

Cingulate gyrus

49.

In the skull-brain overlay images highlighting orange cortical ridges, the ridge posterior to the central sulcus corresponds to which structure?

a)

Precentral gyrus

b)

Postcentral gyrus

c)

Superior frontal gyrus

d)

Angular gyrus

50.

From the labeled lateral brain figure, which lobe occupies the most posterior portion of the cerebrum?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

51.

When identifying the insula, which surrounding sulcus must be opened or retracted to expose it in the illustration?

a)

Central sulcus

b)

Lateral sulcus

c)

Calcarine sulcus

d)

Parieto-occipital sulcus

52.

Which statement best matches the spatial relationship shown between the precentral and postcentral gyri across the central sulcus?

a)

They are continuous ridges within the frontal lobe.

b)

They lie on opposite sides of the central sulcus, with the precentral anterior and postcentral posterior.

c)

Both are posterior to the lateral sulcus within the temporal lobe.

d)

They are hidden within the insula and only visible when the lateral sulcus is opened.

53.

In the labeled cerebrum figure, which feature is indicated deep within the lateral sulcus rather than on the outer surface?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Insula

c)

Pons

d)

Medulla oblongata

54.

Using the labeled diagram, which groove runs roughly horizontally on the lateral surface and separates the frontal and parietal regions from the temporal lobe?

a)

Central sulcus

b)

Lateral sulcus

c)

Interhemispheric fissure

d)

Transverse fissure

55.

According to the labeled brain diagram, which lobe primarily contains the primary motor cortex responsible for initiating voluntary skeletal muscle movement?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

56.

Which cortex receives sensory information from skin, musculoskeletal system, viscera, and taste buds and lies in the parietal lobe?

a)

Primary somatic sensory cortex

b)

Primary motor cortex

c)

Visual cortex

d)

Auditory cortex

57.

Which statement best characterizes the occipital lobe based on the figure?

a)

It houses the visual cortex and visual association area for processing vision.

b)

It coordinates reasoning skills and behavior through the prefrontal association area.

c)

It integrates auditory information in the primary auditory cortex.

d)

It controls gustation and smell via the gustatory and olfactory cortices.

58.

In the diagram, the prefrontal association area is noted to coordinate information from other association areas and control some behaviors. Which lobe is this area located in?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

59.

Which pairing correctly matches a lobe with a primary sensory cortex shown in the figure?

a)

Temporal lobe — primary auditory cortex

b)

Parietal lobe — primary visual cortex

c)

Occipital lobe — primary gustatory cortex

d)

Frontal lobe — primary somatic sensory cortex

60.

The motor association area (premotor and supplementary motor cortex) is shown adjacent to the primary motor cortex. What is its principal role?

a)

Planning and coordinating complex voluntary movements

b)

Detecting touch and proprioception from the body

c)

Interpreting visual stimuli from the retina

d)

Processing auditory signals from the cochlea

61.

Which cortical area is linked with taste (gustation) in the provided illustration?

a)

Primary gustatory cortex

b)

Primary visual cortex

c)

Primary motor cortex

d)

Primary somatic sensory cortex

62.

Identify the area that handles smell (olfaction) as indicated in the figure.

a)

Olfactory cortex

b)

Auditory association area

c)

Somatosensory association area

d)

Visual association area

63.

Which region directly processes auditory input and is located in the temporal lobe?

a)

Primary auditory cortex

b)

Motor speech area

c)

Somatosensory association area

d)

Common integrative area

64.

Which numbered label in Figure 15.7 corresponds to the primary visual cortex?

a)

Label 12

b)

Label 10

c)

Label 8

d)

Label 5

65.

In Figure 15.7, which area is identified as the somatosensory association area involved in interpreting touch and proprioceptive information?

a)

Label 13

b)

Label 11

c)

Label 7

d)

Label 3

66.

Based on the functional map, which sequence best traces the flow for visual information within the occipital lobe?

a)

Primary visual cortex to visual association area

b)

Visual association area to primary motor cortex

c)

Primary somatic sensory cortex to visual association area

d)

Auditory cortex to primary visual cortex

67.

Refer to the brain images showing the cerebellum shaded in orange. Which statement best identifies the cerebellum’s anatomical position in relation to the cerebrum in these views?

a)

Anterior and superior to the cerebrum

b)

Posterior and inferior to the cerebrum

c)

Deep within the lateral ventricles of the cerebrum

d)

Directly continuous with the corpus callosum

68.

In the diagrams where the cerebellum is highlighted in orange, which brain region is shown superior to the cerebellum and comprises the wrinkled outer tissue?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Spinal cord

d)

Olfactory bulbs

69.

A lesion is depicted that affects the orange-highlighted structure in the images. Based on its location, which functional deficit is most consistent with damage to this region?

a)

Loss of conscious sensation across the body

b)

Impaired coordination and balance during movement

c)

Complete loss of language comprehension

d)

Failure of autonomic breathing control

70.

According to the labeled medial view diagram of internal brain anatomy, which structure is explicitly identified as part of the diencephalon?

a)

Pons

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Medulla oblongata

71.

Which statement best defines the diencephalon as presented: it is a region of the brain that derives from the prosencephalon and is located near which area?

a)

The lateral surface of the brain

b)

The midline of the brain

c)

The posterior-most spinal cord

d)

The ventral horn of the cerebrum

72.

Which list correctly identifies components contained within the diencephalon as enumerated in the material?

a)

Fornix, Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Third ventricle

b)

Corpus callosum, Midbrain, Pons, Optic nerve

c)

Cerebellar cortex, Medulla, Basal nuclei, Pituitary stalk

d)

Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Occipital lobe, Temporal lobe

73.

In the internal brain anatomy diagram, which label marks the large commissural fiber bundle superior to the diencephalon?

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Fornix

d)

Posterior commissure

74.

Which structure shown adjacent to the hypothalamus in the schematic is involved in crossing of visual pathways?

a)

Anterior commissure

b)

Optic chiasm

c)

Interventricular foramen

d)

Tuber cinereum

75.

Which functional role is most accurately associated with the thalamus as a component of the diencephalon?

a)

Primary center for motor reflex arcs of the spinal cord

b)

Relay and integration hub for sensory information en route to the cerebrum

c)

Main regulator of cerebrospinal fluid formation in the fourth ventricle

d)

Principal site of voluntary motor neuron cell bodies

76.

Which description aligns with the hypothalamus within the diencephalon based on its anatomical context and typical functions?

a)

Cortical region responsible for high-level language processing

b)

Autonomic and endocrine regulation center including homeostatic control

c)

Segment of the cerebellar peduncles coordinating fine motor output

d)

Primary tract carrying olfactory signals to the limbic system

77.

Identify the ventricular space specifically listed as part of the diencephalon.

a)

Lateral ventricle

b)

Fourth ventricle

c)

Third ventricle

d)

Cerebral aqueduct

78.

Which structure in the schematic arches near the thalamus and is part of limbic circuitry, and is enumerated among diencephalic contents?

a)

Fornix

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Cerebral aqueduct

79.

Considering spatial orientation in the medial view diagram, which pairing correctly matches region and orientation?

a)

Cerebrum — anterior only

b)

Cerebellum — anterior to the cerebrum

c)

Brainstem — inferior to the cerebrum

d)

Corpus callosum — inferior to the cerebellum

80.

Which cerebral lobe is this?

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

81.

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for processing visual information from the eyes and is also responsible for processing auditory information?

a)

Occipital Lobe

b)

Frontal Lobe

c)

Parietal Lobe

d)

Temporal Lobe

82.

What information does the temporal lobe process?

a)

motor

b)

touch

c)

visual

d)

auditory

83.

What part of the brain is shown in Purple?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Temporal Lobe

c)

Parietal Lobe

d)

Occipital Lobe

84.

What information does the occipital lobe process?

a)

motor

b)

touch

c)

visual

d)

auditory

85.

What is the green part of the brain called

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Occipital

d)

Pariental

86.

What is the pink part of the brain called

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Occipital

d)

Pariental

87.

What is the yellow part of the brain called

a)

Temporal

b)

Frontal

c)

Occipital

d)

Parietal

88.

What is the blue part of the brain called

a)

Parietal

b)

Occipital

c)

Frontal

d)

Temporal

89.
Trochlear Nerve
a)
II
b)
IV
c)
V
d)
VIII
90.
Allows you to swallow your food
a)
Trigeminal
b)
Facial
c)
Glossopharyngeal
d)
Hypoglossal
91.
Sense of smell
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
VII
92.
Shrugs the shoulders
a)
Accessory
b)
Vestibulocochlear
c)
Abducens
d)
Trigeminal
93.
Balance
a)
Optic
b)
Trigeminal
c)
Vestibulocochlear
d)
Vagus
94.
Moves eyes laterally away from the nose
a)
abducens
b)
facial
c)
trigeminal
d)
accessory
95.
Taste sensation on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
a)

Facial

b)

Trigeminal

c)

Glossopharngeal

d)

Hypoglossal

96.
A loss of hearing could be associated with which cranial nerve?
a)
Olfactory
b)
Trigeminal
c)
Vestibulocochlear
d)
Accessory
97.

Bell's Palsy causing weakness or paralysis of facial muscles would be associated with which cranial nerve?

a)
Trigeminal
b)
Facial
c)
Olfactory
d)
Vagus
98.
Moves the tongue
a)
Trigeminal
b)
Facial
c)
Hypoglossal
d)
Accessory
99.
Sight
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
IV
100.

Which of the following cranial nerve controls the movement of the eyeball, the opening of the eyelid, pupillary dilation, and lens accommodation?

a)

Optic

b)

Oculomotor

c)

Vagus

d)

Trigeminal

101.

Which of the following does not effect the eyes

a)

Optic

b)

Trochlear

c)

Vagus

d)

Abducens

102.

a)

optic nerve

b)

oculomotor nerve

c)

trochlear nerve

103.

a)

accessory nerve

b)

vestibulocochlear nerve

c)

vagus nerve

104.
a)

Oculomotor

b)

Optic

c)

Olfactory

d)

Trochlear

105.
a)

Abducens

b)

Accessory

c)

Facial

d)

Trochlear

106.
a)

Vestibulocochlear

b)

Vagus

c)

Abducens

d)

Glossopharyngeal

107.
a)

Hypoglossal

b)

Abducens

c)

Trochlear

d)

Trigeminal

108.
a)

Abducens

b)

Vagus

c)

Accessory

d)

Facial

109.
a)

Oculomotor

b)

Optic

c)

Olfactory

d)

Trochlear

110.
a)

Olfactory

b)

Oculomotor

c)

Trigeminal

d)

Optic

111.
a)

Oculomotor

b)

Optic

c)

Trochlear

d)

Trigeminal

112.
a)

Trochlear

b)

Abducens

c)

Trigeminal

d)

Facial

113.
a)

Hypoglossal

b)

Abducens

c)

Trochlear

d)

Trigeminal

114.
a)

Abducens

b)

Accessory

c)

Facial

d)

Trochlear

115.
a)

Abducens

b)

Vagus

c)

Accessory

d)

Facial

116.
a)

Vestibulocochlear

b)

Vagus

c)

Abducens

d)

Glossopharyngeal

117.
a)

Hypoglossal

b)

Glossopharyngeal

c)

Vagus

d)

Facial

118.
a)

Accessory

b)

Abducens

c)

Vestibulocochlear

d)

Vagus

119.
a)

Hypoglossal

b)

Accessory

c)

Abducens

d)

Vagus

120.
a)

Accessory

b)

Hypoglossal

c)

Vagus

d)

Facial

121.

Hearing and balance

a)

Oculomotor

b)

Accessory

c)

Vestibuolocochlear

d)

Hypoglossal

122.

Smell

a)

Optic

b)

Glossopharyngeal

c)

Hypoglossal

d)

Olfactory

123.

Vision

a)

Oculomotor

b)

Optic

c)

Trochlear

d)

Trigeminal

124.

Eye movement

Eyelid opening

Pupillary Constriction

Visual focus

a)

Optic

b)

Trochlear

c)

Oculomotor

d)

Abducens

125.

Eye movement

a)

Facial

b)

Trochlear

c)

Accessory

d)

Optic

126.

Facial sensation

Tongue sensation

Open/close jaw

a)

Trochlear

b)

Facial

c)

Vagus

d)

Trigeminal

127.

Eye movement

a)

Abducens

b)

Trigeminal

c)

Hypoglossal

d)

Vestibulocochlear

128.

Facial Expression

Crying

Taste

Salivation

a)

Facial

b)

Trigeminal

c)

Abducens

d)

Accessory

129.

Tongue sensation

Taste

Swallowing

a)

Trigeminal

b)

Glossopharyngeal

c)

Vagus

d)

Hypoglossal

130.

Taste

Swallowing

Talking

Coughing

a)

Glossopharyngeal

b)

Facial

c)

Vagus

d)

Trigeminal

131.

Shoulder shrugging

Head turning

a)

Accessory

b)

Hypoglossal

c)

Vagus

d)

Abducens

132.

Tongue movement

a)

Facial

b)

Vagus

c)

Glossopharyngeal

d)

Hypoglossal

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