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Nursing Process and Medication Administration Quiz

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the key point to remember before intervening in the nursing process?

a)

Always document properly

b)

Always assess before intervening

c)

Always administer medications safely

d)

Always set measurable goals

2.

What is the purpose of the evaluation step in the nursing process?

a)

Administer medications safely

b)

Determine if goals/outcomes were met

c)

Identify potential problems

d)

Set measurable and realistic goals

3.

Which of the following is the correct definition of "Pharmacokinetics"?

a)

Study of drugs

b)

How drug form affects absorption

c)

What the body does to the drug (ADME)

d)

Clinical use of drugs to treat/prevent disease

4.

What is the primary effect of enteral (PO) drug administration?

a)

Direct systemic absorption

b)

GI absorption

c)

Skin or mucosal absorption

d)

Local lung effects

5.

Which route of drug administration is associated with local lung effects?

a)

Enteral (PO)

b)

Parenteral (IV, IM, SC)

c)

Topical

d)

Inhalation

6.

What is the correct definition of "Pharmacodynamics"?

a)

What the drug does to the body

b)

What the body does to the drug (ADME)

c)

Study of drugs

d)

Study of the harmful effects of chemicals

7.

Which of the following is NOT a principle of safe medication administration?

a)

Use two patient identifiers.

b)

Clarify unclear orders.

c)

Exceed 3 mL per injection for IM medications.

d)

Never crush enteric-coated tablets.

8.

What term describes the time it takes for 50% of a drug to leave the body?

a)

Steady state

b)

Half-life

c)

First-pass effect

d)

Therapeutic index

9.

What does therapeutic monitoring ensure?

a)

The drug is metabolized before circulation

b)

The drug is effective but not toxic

c)

The drug binds to cell membranes

d)

The drug produces adverse effects

10.

Which trimester poses the greatest risk for organ development due to drug transfer across the placenta?

a)

First trimester

b)

Second trimester

c)

Third trimester

d)

Fourth trimester

11.

What is a common risk associated with older adults due to decreased liver and kidney function?

a)

Increased drug clearance

b)

Decreased toxicity risk

c)

Increased toxicity risk

d)

Faster metabolism

12.

Which ethical principle emphasizes the patient’s right to make decisions?

a)

Beneficence

b)

Autonomy

c)

Justice

d)

Veracity

13.

Which drug is an example of an α₁ adrenergic receptor agonist?

a)

Clonidine

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Epinephrine

14.

Which drug is an example of a β₂ receptor agonist used for bronchodilation and uterine relaxation?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Albuterol

c)

Mirabegron

d)

Low-dose dopamine

15.

What is the mechanism of action of ephedrine?

a)

Direct-acting

b)

Indirect-acting

c)

Mixed acting

d)

None of the above

16.

Which drug is used for treating overactive bladder and lipolysis by acting on β₃ receptors?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Mirabegron

c)

Albuterol

d)

Phenylephrine

17.

What is the primary response of β₃ receptors in the bladder and fat tissue?

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Bladder relaxation and lipolysis

d)

Increased heart rate

18.

What is the mechanism of action of indirect-acting cholinergic agonists (anticholinesterases)?

a)

Bind directly to cholinergic receptors, activating them

b)

Inhibit acetylcholinesterase, preventing ACh breakdown and prolonging action

c)

Stimulate skeletal muscle contraction

d)

Decrease intraocular pressure

19.

Which of the following is an example of an indirect-acting cholinergic agonist?

a)

Bethanechol

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Donepezil

d)

Atropine

20.

What is the effect of cholinergic drugs on the eye?

a)

Pupil dilation and increased intraocular pressure

b)

Pupil constriction (miosis) and decreased intraocular pressure

c)

Increased tear production and pupil dilation

d)

Decreased tear production and pupil constriction

21.

What is the primary nursing focus when administering pyridostigmine to a patient with myasthenia gravis?

a)

Monitor respiratory function

b)

Apply proper eye drop technique

c)

Schedule doses before meals to improve strength

d)

Monitor cognitive function and side effects

22.

Which condition is treated with donepezil to improve cognition by increasing acetylcholine in the brain?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Reversal of neuromuscular blockade

23.

What is the primary nursing focus when administering neostigmine for the reversal of neuromuscular blockade?

a)

Assess respirations and muscle tone

b)

Monitor cognitive function

c)

Apply proper eye drop technique

d)

Schedule doses before meals

24.

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for cholinergic drugs?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Peptic ulcer disease

25.

Which adverse effect is commonly associated with the cardiovascular system when using cholinergic drugs?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Blurred vision and miosis

c)

Bradycardia and hypotension

d)

Bronchospasm and increased secretions

26.

What does the SLUDGE mnemonic represent in pharmacology?

a)

Symptoms of anticholinergic toxicity

b)

Symptoms of muscarinic overstimulation

c)

Symptoms of opioid overdose

d)

Symptoms of serotonin syndrome

27.

What is the primary nursing intervention for patients at risk of orthostatic hypotension?

a)

Teach patients to rise slowly

b)

Administer atropine

c)

Monitor bowel sounds

d)

Record muscle strength

28.

Which drug is used for anticholinergic toxicity reversal?

a)

Physostigmine

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Pyridostigmine

29.

Which drug is used to reduce intraocular pressure?

a)

Bethanechol.

b)

Pilocarpine.

c)

Pyridostigmine.

d)

Donepezil.

30.

Which ethical principle requires healthcare professionals to act in the best interest of the patient?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Justice

c)

Nonmaleficence

d)

Beneficence

31.

Which drug is commonly prescribed to improve cognitive function in Alzheimer’s disease by increasing acetylcholine levels?

a)

Atropine

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Donepezil

32.

Which drug is commonly used to treat myasthenia gravis by enhancing neuromuscular transmission?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Atropine

d)

Neostigmine

33.

Which drug is most likely to cause muscarinic side effects such as increased salivation and diarrhea?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Atropine

34.

Which of the following drugs is used to treat urinary retention by stimulating bladder contraction?

a)

Donepezil

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Atropine

d)

Albuterol

35.

Which adverse effect should be monitored when administering cholinergic agonists to a patient with asthma?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Bronchospasm

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Constipation

36.

Pick the patient you would go see first considering priorities when administering medications.

a)

Patient with hypertension that had slightly high blood pressure at the last vital sign check.

b)

Patient who needed his proton pump inhibitor for GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease)

c)

Patient who is due for seizure medications and had a seizure on last shift.

d)

Patient due for her antibiotic in the next 30 minutes.

37.

Which of the following can reduce the risk of medication errors (select all that apply)?

a)

Caution when giving high alert medications

b)

Correct placement of zeros

c)

Tall man lettering

d)

Using abbreviations cautiously

38.

What is missing from this prescription? . . . Motrin 600mg PO every six hours as needed

a)

Frequency

b)

Indication

c)

Route

d)

Time

39.

What is missing from this prescription . . . Robitussin 20 every 6 hours PO as needed for cough

a)

Dose

b)

Frequency

c)

Strength

d)

Time

40.

The nurse is reviewing sympathetic nervous system agonists. Adrenergic drugs, such as albuterol (Proventil) inhalation, stimulate beta2-adrenergic receptors and cause:

a)

relaxation of the bronchi

b)

bronchoconstriction

c)

decreased heart rate

41.

Which is an effect of adrenergic drugs

a)

increased heart rate

b)

decreased heart rate

c)

constriction of bronchioles

d)

constricted pupils

42.

Alpha1 drugs cause ____________which results in _________

a)

vasoconstriction

b)

bronchospasms

c)

increased blood pressure

d)

an asthma attack

43.

Precautions of adrenergic blockers include

a)

change positions slowly

b)

avoid hot tubs or saunas

c)

avoid working outside in extreme heat

d)

avoid coffee

44.

Anticholinergic drugs block the effects of which nervous system?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

45.

adverse effect of anticholinergic drug?

a)

Excessive urination

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Dry mouth

d)

Pupillary constriction

46.

Cholinergic drugs stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system by mimicking

a)

acetylcholine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

epinephrine

d)

dopamine

47.

The antidote for cholinergic toxicity is

a)

epinephrine

b)

atropine

c)

benedryl

48.

What is a common adverse effect of anticholinergic drugs on the gastrointestinal system?

a)

Increased salivation

b)

Abdominal cramping

c)

Constipation

d)

Diarrhea

49.

Which route of drug administration bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and provides rapid systemic effects?

a)

Inhalation

b)

Topical

c)

Enteral (PO)

d)

Parenteral (IV, IM, SC)

50.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of cholinergic drugs?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Tachycardia

51.

What is the main action of anticholinergic drugs on the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Stimulate acid secretion

b)

Promote absorption

c)

Increase peristalsis

d)

Decrease gastric motility

52.

Which drug administration route is most affected by the first-pass effect?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Transdermal

c)

Oral

d)

Subcutaneous

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