wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Adrenergic Pharmacology

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with COPD uses an albuterol inhaler and a fluticasone inhaler “both due now.” Which should be taken first?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Fluticasone

c)

Either order is fine

d)

Use only the steroid now

2.

Which effect signals beta1 receptor stimulation during a dobutamine infusion?

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Increased heart rate and AV conduction

c)

Peripheral vasoconstriction with mydriasis

d)

Intestinal hypermotility

3.

Which response best matches beta2 activation?

a)

Uterine contraction

b)

Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

c)

Pupillary constriction

d)

Bladder sphincter contraction

4.

You’re titrating norepinephrine for septic shock. Which observation most directly reflects its primary receptor profile?

a)

Bronchodilation and tachycardia

b)

Marked vasoconstriction with beta1 cardiac stimulation, minimal beta2 effect

c)

Predominant beta2 effect with uterine relaxation

d)

Pure alpha2 autoreceptor activation

5.

Priority assessment during IV epinephrine for anaphylaxis:

a)

Daily weights

b)

Cardiac rhythm and hemodynamics continuously

c)

Oral mucosa for ulcerations

d)

Ankle edema each shift

6.

You suspect IV infiltration during a vasopressor infusion. First nursing action?

a)

Increase the rate to maintain MAP

b)

Continue infusion and elevate limb

c)

Stop infusion and check/secure site

d)

Bolus with normal saline at the site

7.

Teaching a patient with chronic lung disease starting a β2 agonist inhaler. Which instruction aligns with slide guidance?

a)

Restrict fluids to avoid edema

b)

Encourage fluids up to ~3000 mL/day if permitted

c)

Double doses with persistent wheeze

d)

Rinse mouth to prevent thrush only for bronchodilators

8.

A patient self-treats with topical nasal decongestant multiple times daily for 3 weeks. Which issue do you anticipate?

a)

Angioedema

b)

Rebound congestion/ulcerations

c)

Sedation

d)

Hyperkalemia

9.

Which outcomes indicate therapeutic effect of adrenergic cardiovascular support? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Increased urine output

b)

Improved skin color and temperature

c)

Worsening confusion

d)

Decreased edema

e)

Return to normal vital signs

10.

Which finding best signals bronchodilator therapy is working?

a)

More crackles

b)

Improved breath sounds and air exchange with less dyspnea

c)

Lower PaO2

d)

Increased coughing only

11.

Which statement about alpha-1 agonists is most accurate?

a)

Cause vasodilation and miosis

b)

Cause vasoconstriction and can dilate pupils

c)

Slow AV conduction

d)

Strictly presynaptic and inhibitory

12.

Which adverse clinical consequence is unique to nonselective β-blockers in diabetes?

a)

Hyperglycemia from glycogenolysis

b)

Masking of hypoglycemia signs (tremor, tachycardia, nervousness); sweating persists

c)

Severe diarrhea

d)

Rebound hyperkalemia

13.

A patient on propranolol reports dizziness climbing stairs. Teaching point?

a)

Increase intensity to build tolerance

b)

Skip doses before exercise

c)

Report reduced exercise tolerance (dizziness/fainting) to the provider

d)

Double the dose before workouts

14.

You’re reconciling meds for a post-MI patient. Which β-blocker effect is a main reason for use?

a)

Stimulates circulating catecholamine response

b)

Cardioprotective by inhibiting catecholamine stimulation

c)

Increases myocardial oxygen demand

d)

Promotes AV nodal reentry

15.

Which report requires follow-up in a patient newly on a β-blocker?

a)

Mild fatigue first week

b)

Weight gain >2 lb/day or >5 lb/week with ankle edema and SOB

c)

Resting HR 68

d)

Occasional headache

16.

A patient with BPH asks how an α-blocker helps. Best explanation?

a)

Shrinks prostate tissue

b)

Decreases resistance to urinary outflow at prostate/bladder neck

c)

Increases detrusor contraction directly

d)

Inhibits aldosterone

17.

Which statement about adrenergic antagonists is correct?

a)

They mimic SNS activity

b)

They bind adrenergic receptors to block SNS stimulation (sympatholytics)

c)

They only block α receptors

d)

They only block β receptors

18.

A patient on two adrenergic drugs (e.g., oral decongestant + IV vasopressor) shows SBP 198/110 and HR 128. Most likely cause?

a)

Drug tolerance

b)

Additive severe CV effects (tachycardia/hypertension)

c)

Fluid deficit

d)

Beta-blockade

19.

Which PNS receptor location/function pairing is accurate?

a)

Nicotinic—postsynaptic organs only

b)

Nicotinic—ganglia/adrenal medulla/skeletal muscle; Muscarinic—organs (smooth/cardiac/glands)

c)

Muscarinic—NMJ only

d)

Muscarinic—adrenal medulla only

20.

Which muscarinic effect do you anticipate from a cholinergic agonist?

a)

Increased HR and contractility

b)

Lower HR with increased smooth-muscle tone and glandular secretions

c)

Bronchodilation

d)

Pupil dilation

21.

Which clinical use aligns with bethanechol?

a)

Paralytic ileus prophylaxis

b)

Urinary retention—stimulates muscarinic receptors in the bladder

c)

Mydriasis for eye exam

d)

COPD bronchodilation

22.

Anesthesia requests reversal of a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Which class is appropriate?

a)

Direct muscarinic agonist only

b)

Indirect cholinergics (anticholinesterases; “-stigmine”)

c)

α-blocker

d)

β-blocker

23.

Pre-op orders include atropine. Which intended effect matches its class?

a)

Profuse secretions to protect airway

b)

Decreased oral/respiratory secretions

c)

Severe bradycardia

d)

Miosis

24.

A traveler asks for scopolamine. Best evidence-based indication from your slides?

a)

Migraine prophylaxis

b)

Chronic hypertension

c)

Prevention of motion sickness; some nausea/emesis types

d)

Smoking cessation

25.

Which patient group is most sensitive to anticholinergic adverse effects and needs careful dosing?

a)

Middle-aged athletes

b)

Infants/young children; older adults; people with Down’s syndrome

c)

Only older adult men

d)

Only patients with asthma

26.

Long-term use of anticholinergics has been associated with which risk that should inform deprescribing?

a)

Gastric ulcers

b)

Development of dementia in older adults

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Polycythemia

27.

Which indications align with anticholinergics according to the deck? Select all that apply.

a)

Anticholinesterase overdose/poisoning

b)

Certain bradycardias

c)

Overactive bladder/urinary antispasmodic therapy

d)

First-line hypertension in pregnancy

28.

A patient with overactive bladder asks about mechanism of oxybutynin.

a)

Directly stimulates nicotinic receptors

b)

Inhibits α1 receptors in prostate

c)

Blocks muscarinic receptors (urinary antispasmodic effect)

d)

Stimulates β2 receptors in detrusor

29.

Which teaching point best prevents medication–medication issues when starting an anticholinergic?

a)

Combine with other anticholinergics to enhance effect.

b)

Be cautious with drugs that have anticholinergic side effects—opposing and additive interactions exist.

c)

Nicotine patches block the drug.

d)

Alpha-blockers cancel anticholinergics.

30.

During a pharmacology review, a student says, “The PNS is basically the same as the SNS.” Best correction?

a)

True; they share receptors

b)

No; PNS (ACh at muscarinic) generally opposes SNS; receptor locations/effects differ

c)

They’re identical at the heart only

d)

They both use NE at effectors