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PNS and CNS Drugs

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Used topically to produce miosis in ophthalmology to treat narrow-angle glaucoma. Not widely used today because of its severe side effects

a)

Carbachol

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Methacholine

2.

Used primarily to increase bladder contractility in small animals. Do not use in patients with urinary outflow obstruction, GI obstruction, asthma, and hypotension.

a)

Bethanechol

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Phenylpropanolamine

d)

Ephedrine

3.

Rarely used as an ophthalmic solution to induce miosis and decrease the intraocular pressure seen in glaucoma. Still used orally as the primary treatment of neurogenic keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) in dogs.

a)

Pilocarpine

b)

Ephedrine

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Terbutaline

4.

Primarily known for its use in Methacholine Challenge Tests to diagnose asthma and bronchial hyperreactivity. Limited therapeutic uses in veterinary medicine.

a)

Methacholine

b)

Terbutaline

c)

Albuterol

d)

Clenbuterol

5.

Used topically to treat simple and secondary glaucoma. Used for the adjunctive treatment of ivermectin toxicity in dogs.

a)

Physostigmine

b)

Albuterol

c)

Clenbuterol

d)

Ractopamine

6.

A provocative agent for the diagnosis of narcolepsy in dogs and horses. Used as treatment for anticholinergic toxicity.

a)

Physostigmine,

b)

Albuterol

c)

Clenbuterol

d)

Ractopamine

7.

Used for rumen atony, GI peristalsis, bladder emptying, and skeletal muscle stimulation in livestock. Used in treating non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents overdoses in dogs and ivermectin overdoses in cats.

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Clenbuterol

c)

Ractopamine

d)

Isoxsuprine

8.

Used in the diagnosis and treatment of myasthenia gravis.

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Clenbuterol

c)

Ractopamine

d)

Isoxsuprine

9.

Similar to neostigmine and has the longest duration of action (4–6 hours). Used orally for the long-term treatment of myasthenia gravis in dogs and rarely in cats.

a)

Pyridostigmine

b)

Ractopamine

c)

Isoxsuprine

d)

Phenoxybenzamine

10.

Used in Tensilon Test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis and for antagonizing tubocurarine-like drugs. Used to reverse supraventricular arrhythmias. It is only given parenterally.

a)

Edrophonium

b)

Isoxsuprine

c)

Phenoxybenzamine

d)

Prazosin

11.

A quaternary organophosphate with long duration of action (>12 hrs). Used topically to treat open angle glaucoma.

a)
  • Echothiophate

b)
  • Phenoxybenzamine

c)
  • Prazosin

d)
  • Phentolamine

12.

Used as a preanesthetic agent to reduce salivary and respiratory secretions. Used in ophthalmology to produce cycloplegia and mydriasis. Used to treat renal and biliary colic when combined with opioids.

a)
  • Atropine

b)
  • Prazosin

c)
  • Phentolamine

d)
  • Tolazoline

13.

Used to counter anti-ChE overdose or toxicity. Useful in treating mushroom toxicity if muscarine is the toxic agent. Use with caution in ruminants. Not used in rabbits and horses.

a)
  • Atropine

b)
  • Prazosin

c)
  • Phentolamine

d)
  • Tolazoline

14.

Used in horses for treating colic associated with spasmodic colic, flatulent colic, & simple impactions. Shorter acting than atropine; only labeled for a single dose IV.

a)

N-butylscopolammonium

b)

Phentolamine

c)

Tolazoline

d)

Yohimbine

15.

Used for its antispasmodic/antisecretory effects in the treatment of diarrhea, hyperreflexic detrusor or urge urinary incontinence, and bradycardia in small animals. Used intravenously to reduce colonic peristalsis and for relaxing the rectum to allow easier rectal examination and surgery in horses.

a)
  • Propantheline

b)
  • Tolazoline

c)
  • Yohimbine

d)
  • Atipamezole

16.

Used as a preanesthetic agent for the same effects as atropine and is more suitable for C-sections. Can be used in patients with CNS trauma or disease but it cannot induce mydriasis. Used to treat sinus bradycardia, S-A arrest, and incomplete A-V block.

a)

Glycopyrrolate

b)

Yohimbine

c)

Atipamezole

d)

Propranolol

17.

Used in the treatment of acute abdominal visceral spasm, pylorospasm or hypertrophic gastritis and associated nausea, vomiting and/or diarrhea in dogs and cats.

a)

Aminopentamide

b)

Atipamezole

c)

Propranolol

d)

Atenolol

18.

Used for short-term muscle relaxation during procedures, to aid endotracheal intubation, and to lessen convulsions. May cause uncoordinated muscle contraction that leads to muscle soreness, malignant hyperthermia, and myoglobinuria.

a)

Succinylcholine

b)

Propranolol

c)

Atenolol

d)

Metoprolol

19.

A prototype non-depolarizing NMB, but rarely used now due to strong histamine release and ganglionic blockade.

a)

Tubocurarine

b)

Atenolol

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Esmolol

20.

A long-acting blocker with vagolytic effect, often causing tachycardia.

a)

Pancuronium

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Esmolol

d)

Sotalol

21.

It is 1/4 to 1/3 as potent as pancuronium but has faster onset and it undergoes Hofmann elimination.

a)

Atracurium

b)

Esmolol

c)

Sotalol

d)

Phenobarbital

22.

It is intermediate-acting, up to 3x more potent than pancuronium with minimal cardiovascular effects.

a)

Vecuronium

b)

Sotalol

c)

Phenobarbital

d)

Pentobarbital

23.

It has rapid onset, making it a common alternative to succinylcholine for rapid sequence intubation.

a)

Rocuronium

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Pentobarbital

d)

Diazepam

24.

Used in emergency cases systemically for treating anaphylaxis & cardiac resuscitation. Used to prolong local anesthesia through vasoconstriction, to control localized hemorrhage and to treat open-angle glaucoma.

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Pentobarbital

c)

Diazepam

d)

Midazolam

25.

At similar doses, it increases BP more than Epi. At lower doses, it causes vasodilation and low BP. Used in cases of severe hypotension usually administered IV as a continuous infusion with careful monitoring.

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Diazepam

c)

Midazolam

d)

Lorazepam

26.

Used rarely for acute bronchial constriction and Complete Atrioventricular (A-V) Block or Sick Sinus Syndrome. Used occasionally as adjunctive therapy in shock or heart failure.

a)

Isoprenaline

b)

Midazolam

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Flumazenil

27.

Used to treat cardiogenic/septic shock and acute heart failure. Should only be used in critical care settings (ICU) where adequate monitoring can be provided. Not administered orally.

a)

Dopamine

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Flumazenil

d)

Levetiracetam

28.

Used as a topical nasal decongestant and oral in humans. Used in ophthalmology as a mydriatic agent. Preferred over Epi as a vasopressor during gas anesthesia.

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Levetiracetam

d)

Zonisamide

29.

May elicit a reflex bradycardia when administered IV. Do not give to geriatric, hyperthyroid, or hypertensive patients. Nasal irritation and rebound congestion may occur following long-term nasal use.

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Levetiracetam

d)

Zonisamide

30.

Used primarily for urethral sphincter hypotonus in small animals. It has little CNS stimulatory activity.

a)

Phenylpropanolamine

b)

Levetiracetam

c)

Zonisamide

d)

Gabapentin

31.

A Schedule V drug used to treat asthma-like conditions, as a mydriatic, and to treat urinary bladder sphincter incompetence.

a)

Ephedrine

b)

Zonisamide

c)

Gabapentin

d)

Felbamate

32.

Used mainly for short-term treatment of heart failure in horses and other large animals. Useful in shock patients when fluid therapy alone has not restored acceptable arterial blood pressure, cardiac output, or tissue perfusion. It may induce cardiac arrhythmias and increase myocardial oxygen demand

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Gabapentin

c)

Felbamate

d)

Potassium Bromide

33.

Bronchodilator of choice for animals with heart disease, hyperthyroidism, or hypertension. Not used orally in horses. Banned for use in livestock.

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Felbamate

c)

Potassium Bromide

d)

Morphine

34.

Used principally in dogs and cats as aerosol or tablets for its effects on bronchial smooth muscle to alleviate bronchospasm or cough. Used in horses as a bronchodilator.

a)

Albuterol

b)

Potassium Bromide

c)

Morphine

d)

Hydromorphone

35.

Used orally in horses as a bronchodilator for airway obstruction. Do not use in horses with suspected cardiovascular impairment.

a)

Clenbuterol

b)

Morphine

c)

Hydromorphone

d)

Oxymorphone

36.

Used to treat navicular disease/syndrome in horses. At high doses, it can decrease blood viscosity and reduce platelet aggregation.

a)

Isoxsuprine

b)

Oxymorphone

c)

Methadone

d)

Meperidine

37.

Used as a feed additive mainly in swine and cattle to improve rate of weight gain, feed efficiency, and increase carcass leanness. No pre-slaughter withdrawal time needed.

a)

Ractopamine

b)

Hydromorphone

c)

Oxymorphone

d)

Methadone

38.

Used in small animals primarily for its effect in reducing internal urethral sphincter tone relieving urinary retention. Used to treat laminitis and secretory diarrhea in horses. Do not use in hypotensive animals and in horses with colic.

a)

Phenoxybenzamine

b)

Methadone

c)

Meperidine

d)

Fentanyl

39.

Used in the treatment of congestive heart failure and hypertension. Used to relax the urinary sphincters and reduce recurrence of urinary blockage in cats. Use in caution on patients with chronic renal failure or pre-existing hypotensive conditions.

a)

Prazosin

b)

Meperidine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Remifentanil

40.

Used to treat hypertension resulting from sympathomimetic drug overdose.

a)

Phentolamine

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Remifentanil

d)

Alfentanil

41.

Used to reverse the effects of alpha-2 agonist in ruminants. Do not use in animals exhibiting signs of stress, debilitation, cardiac disease, sympathetic blockage, hypovolemia, or shock.

a)

Tolazoline

b)

Remifentanil

c)

Alfentanil

d)

Sufentanil

42.

Used to reverse the effects of alpha-2 agonist and amitraz in monogastric animals. Adverse effects are primarily CNS stimulation, tachycardia, hypertension, (by increasing NE release from adrenergic nerve endings), increase in GI motility (by increasing parasympathetic tone) and increase plasma insulin levels

a)

Yohimbine

b)

Alfentanil

c)

Sufentanil

d)

Carfentanil

43.

An α₂-antagonist, which is labeled for use as a reversal agent for medetomidine (veterinary use) and dexmedetomidine (humans and animals). Not recommended in pregnant or lactating animals.

a)

Atipamezole

b)

Sufentanil

c)

Carfentanil

d)

Butorphanol

44.

Used to treat cardiac arrhythmia and hypertension associated with thyrotoxicosis and pheochromocytoma, respectively. Up-regulation occurs with long-term therapy. Do not use in animals with asthma, heart failure or sinus bradycardia, or hepatic disease.

a)
  • Propranolol

b)
  • Carfentanil

c)
  • Butorphanol

d)
  • Buprenorphine

45.

Used primarily for hypertension and tachyarrhythmias in small animals. Relatively safe in asthmatic patients. Used with caution in patients with congestive heart failure, or renal failure, or sinus node dysfunction.

a)
  • Atenolol

b)
  • Butorphanol

c)
  • Buprenorphine

d)
  • Nalbuphine

46.

Combines the therapeutic use of propranolol and atenolol. Relatively safe in asthmatic patients.

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Buprenorphine

c)

Nalbuphine

d)

Tramadol

47.

Used occasionally for acute management of dynamic left ventricular outflow obstruction in cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Undergoes rapid enzymatic hydrolysis by red blood cell esterases.

a)

Esmolol

b)

Nalbuphine

c)

Tramadol

d)

Tapentadol

48.

A Class III antiarrhythmic drug used orally to treat ventricular tachycardias in dogs. Does not have any appreciable first-pass effect

a)

Sotalol

b)

Tramadol

c)

Tapentadol

d)

Naloxone

49.

Elevates seizure threshold & produces effect at lower doses and with no sedation. DOC for long-term seizures. It should be used first in all cases but not for ongoing seizures. DOFC for treating epilepsy in cats. Occasionally used as an oral sedative agent in small animals.

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Tapentadol

c)

Naloxone

d)

Naltrexone

50.

Used to stop seizures but causes anesthesia at therapeutic doses. Used to treat seizures caused by strychnine poisoning (ingestion of strychnine plants causing muscle spasms) and tetanus (rigid muscle contractions; lock jaw)

a)

Pentobarbital

b)

Naloxone

c)

Naltrexone

d)

Acepromazine

51.

Major active ingredient in euthanasia solutions. Adverse effects include respiratory depression and hypothermia.

a)

Pentobarbital

b)

Naloxone

c)

Naltrexone

d)

Acepromazine

52.

Most widely used anticonvulsant, also has sedative, hypnotic, and tranquilizing effects. Used for tx/mgt of seizures of any origin, behavioral problems, and restlessness. Used as maintenance anticonvulsant, appetite stimulant, urine marking control, and anxiolytic for cats, but not in dogs.

a)

Diazepam

b)

Naltrexone

c)

Acepromazine

d)

Chlorpromazine

53.

More potent than diazepam, has faster onset of action but shorter DOA. Used the same way as diazepam and also as premedication for general anesthesia. May cause respiratory depression in animals and produce agitation and ataxia in horses.

a)

Midazolam

b)

Acepromazine

c)

Chlorpromazine

d)

Fluphenazine

54.

Very long acting with slow onset of action. Safely used in individuals with compromised liver function as it does not produce active metabolites.

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Chlorpromazine

c)

Fluphenazine

d)

Zolazepam

55.

4x more potent than diazepam and is not painful during injection. Safely used in individuals with compromised liver function as it does not produce active metabolites.

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Chlorpromazine

c)

Fluphenazine

d)

Zolazepam

56.

Reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose.

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Fluphenazine

c)

Zolazepam

d)

Azaperone

57.

Used orally as an adjunctive therapy for canine refractory epilepsy. Minimal side effects and always taper dose to prevent withdrawal symptoms. It is not metabolized in the liver.

a)

Levetiracetam

b)

Zolazepam

c)

Azaperone

d)

Droperidol

58.

Sulfonamide-based anticonvulsant used solely or adjunctively to control refractory epilepsy in dogs with high safety margin.

a)

Zonisamide

b)

Azaperone

c)

Droperidol

d)

Xylazine

59.

A synthetic GABA analog that can cross the BBB. Used as adjunctive therapy for refractory or complex partial seizures. Used for chronic pain in small animals and as an anxiolytic for cats. Caution in animals with liver/kidney disease.

a)

Gabapentin

b)

Droperidol

c)

Xylazine

d)

Dexmedetomidine

60.

A dicarbamate drug used orally in dogs to treat refractory epilepsy and in patients with focal and generalized seizures. Used to control obtunded mental status (moderate reduction in alertness and responsiveness) in patients with brain tumors or cerebral infarcts. The most noticeable side effect is liver dysfunction; should not be given to dogs with liver disease

a)

Felbamate

b)

Xylazine

c)

Dexmedetomidine

d)

Medetomidine

61.

Used orally to treat refractory seizures in dogs but not in cats. It has a very long half-life and is eliminated by the kidneys exclusively. Can be administered rectally. Adverse effects include sedation (+ with phenobarbital), polyphagia with weight gain, PU/PD, electrolyte imbalance, and vomiting

a)

Potassium Bromide

b)

Dexmedetomidine

c)

Medetomidine

d)

Detomidine

62.

Used for the treatment of acute pain in dogs, cats (low doses), and horses (in combination with xylazine/diazepam). Induces vomiting in dogs via D₂-mediated stimulation of the CRTZ.

a)

Morphine

b)

Medetomidine

c)

Detomidine

d)

Romifidine

63.

Induces transient defecation before reducing GI motility. Induces miosis in dogs and primates, and mydriasis in cats

a)

Morphine

b)

Medetomidine

c)

Detomidine

d)

Romifidine

64.

Used preoperatively because it produces more sedation and less vomiting than morphine. Constipation can occur in long-term therapy in all species and may cause hyperthermia in cats.

a)

Hydromorphone

b)

Detomidine

c)

Romifidine

d)

Amitriptyline

65.

Used as an analgesic in dogs and cats. Used as preanesthetic in dogs to induce neuroleptanalgesia. Used for IV anesthesia in swine.

a)

Oxymorphone

b)

Romifidine

c)

Amitriptyline

d)

Clomipramine

66.

Used for treatment of colic in horses and perioperatively (entire period of surgery) to control pain in dogs and cats. In cats, it can be administered orally via the transmucosal route by placing it in the buccal pouch.

a)

Methadone

b)

Amitriptyline

c)

Clomipramine

d)

Imipramine

67.

Suitable for treating moderate to severe pain. Only administered IM or SC.

a)

Meperidine

b)

Clomipramine

c)

Imipramine

d)

Doxepin

68.

Used in dogs and cats as part of an anesthetic induction regimen or a potent analgesic to control postoperative and chronic pain. Available in transdermal patches, used to control chronic pain.

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Imipramine

c)

Doxepin

d)

Fluoxetine

69.

Can be used in patients with hepatic and renal diseases. Administered as CRI.

a)

Remifentanil

b)

Doxepin

c)

Fluoxetine

d)

Fluvoxamine

70.

A μ-opioid agonist fentanyl derivative that is 4x less potent than fentanyl but is 30–40x more potent than morphine. Used as an analgesic and sedative, and is used for adjunctive anesthesia, particularly in cats.

a)

Alfentanil

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Fluvoxamine

d)

Paroxetine

71.

Useful for adjunctive anesthesia, epidural anesthesia, or postoperative analgesic. Dose-related CNS and respiratory depression is the principal adverse effect.

a)

Sufentanil

b)

Fluvoxamine

c)

Paroxetine

d)

Sertraline

72.

Used only in veterinary medicine for immobilizing very large wild animals. Used (with xylazine) to immobilize wild horses but not domestic horses. It can disrupt temperature regulation, which can be fatal in the field.

a)

Carfentanil

b)

Paroxetine

c)

Sertraline

d)

Selegiline

73.

Can be used as an opioid reversal agent. Has an analgesic potency 4–7x more than morphine with rapid onset and shorter DOA. Has an antitussive and antiemetic effect in dogs.

a)

Butorphanol

b)

Sertraline

c)

Selegiline

d)

Buspirone

74.

Can be used as a pre-anesthetic in dogs and cats. In birds and horses, provides equal or better analgesia than full μ-agonists.

a)

Butorphanol

b)

Sertraline

c)

Selegiline

d)

Buspirone

75.

A partial agonist for μ-receptors, and an antagonist for κ-receptors. 30x more potent as an analgesic than morphine with longer DOA than most opioids.

a)

Buprenorphine

b)

Selegiline

c)

Buspirone

d)

Imepitoin

76.

Used as an analgesic in small animals and horses. It is highly protein bound but undergoes significant first-pass effect and is resistant to antagonism by naloxone.

a)

Buprenorphine

b)

Selegiline

c)

Buspirone

d)

Imepitoin

77.

Used to control mild to moderate pain only and topically to control pain associated with corneal ulcers in dogs and cats. Not commercially available for ophthalmic use but may be prepared through compounding.

a)

Nalbuphine

b)

Buspirone

c)

Imepitoin

d)

Trazodone

78.

A prodrug which is metabolized by the liver into O-desmethyltramadol (6x more potent as an analgesic). Can be used as an analgesic or antitussive in dogs and cats and to control chronic cancer pain or osteoarthritis pain.

a)

Tramadol

b)

Imepitoin

c)

Trazodone

d)

Carbachol

79.

More effective as an analgesic for dogs and patients with liver impairments.

a)

Tapentadol

b)

Trazodone

c)

Carbachol

d)

Bethanechol

80.

Short-acting opioid used to reverse the respiratory depression caused by μ-receptor opioids after surgery and in neonates after cesarean delivery. Beneficial in the treatment of septic, hypovolemic, and cardiogenic shock. Not effective for reversing buprenorphine.

a)

Naloxone

b)

Carbachol

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Pilocarpine

81.

Used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression (in wild life and large animals) and to reverse ultrapotent opioids like carfentanil. Used to treat behavioral problems in dogs and cats (e.g., constant licking, tail chasing).

a)

Naltrexone

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Methacholine

82.

FDA approved for use in dogs, cats, and horses. Extralabel use in ruminants, swine, and rabbits. Avoid in cases of tetanus or strychnine poisoning.

a)

Acepromazine

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Methacholine

d)

Physostigmine

83.

Giant breeds, greyhounds, and dogs with MDR-1 gene mutation (Collies) are extremely sensitive. Not recommended for stallions due to risk of paraphimosis and hyperexcitability

a)

Acepromazine

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Methacholine

d)

Physostigmine

84.

May cause extrapyramidal symptoms in cats when used at high dosages. Avoid IM chlorpromazine in rabbits (only IV) due to severe muscle irritation. Generally contraindicated in horses.

a)

Chlorpromazine

b)

Methacholine

c)

Physostigmine

d)

Neostigmine

85.

A highly potent phenothiazine neuroleptic used in human medicine for the treatment of schizophrenia. Used as a performance-enhancing drug in racehorses (but is banned).

a)

Fluphenazine

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Pyridostigmine

86.

Available in combination with a dissociative drug Tiletamine. Most widely used anesthetic in small animal practice in combination with xylazine.

a)

Zolazepam

b)

Neostigmine

c)

Pyridostigmine

d)

Edrophonium

87.

Labeled for control of aggressiveness when mixing or regrouping pigs. Prevent the development of halothane-induced malignant hyperthermia.

a)

Azaperone

b)

Pyridostigmine

c)

Edrophonium

d)

Echothiophate

88.

Used in combination with Fentanyl (an opioid analgesic) to produce a state called neuroleptanalgesia. Same MOA with PTZs that is 400x more potent in dogs than chlorpromazine as sedative and 1000x more potent as anti-emetic.

a)

Droperidol

b)

Edrophonium

c)

Echothiophate

d)

Atropine

89.

Non-selective adrenergic agonist FDA approved for use in cats, dogs, horses, and wildlife. Also used in cattle (extra-label). Used in cats as potent emetic agent and as analgesic sedative in horses.

a)
  • Xylazine

b)
  • Echothiophate

c)
  • Atropine

d)
  • N-butylscopolammonium

90.

Can severely lower heart rate and impair thermoregulation. Do not use in unfasted, hypotensive, epileptic, diabetic, pregnant, dehydrated, urinary obstructed, renal or hepatic-impaired patients.

a)
  • Xylazine

b)
  • Echothiophate

c)
  • Atropine

d)
  • N-butylscopolammonium

91.

Labeled for use as a preanesthetic for sedation, analgesic for minor surgical and dental procedures, and as an aid in examinations in dogs (>6mo old) and cats (>5mo old). The most potent a2-agonist available for human and veterinary use.

a)

Dexmedetomidine

b)

Atropine

c)

N-butylscopolammonium

d)

Propantheline

92.

Equally potent with dexmedetomidine if given IV but has faster onset of action and greater sedative and analgesic effect if given IM. Longer duration of action and recovery compared with dexmedetomidine. Not approved for human use.

a)
  • Medetomidine

b)
  • Tramadol

c)
  • Propantheline

d)
  • Glycopyrrolate

93.

A selective a₂-adrenergic agonist mainly used in horses (FDA approved) for sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation.

a)
  • Detomidine

b)
  • Propantheline

c)
  • Glycopyrrolate

d)
  • Aminopentamide

94.

Used for pain from equine colic and sedation during foot abscess trimming or skin laceration suturing. At usual doses, it causes piloerection, sweating, partial penis prolapse, salivation, and occasional mild tremors.

a)
  • Detomidine

b)
  • Propantheline

c)
  • Glycopyrrolate

d)
  • Aminopentamide

95.

A selective a-adrenergic agonist mainly for IV use in horses (FDA approved) for sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation. Preferred for taking radiographs and lameness examinations. Effective for pain management when combined with butorphanol.

a)

Romifidine

b)

Glycopyrrolate

c)

Aminopentamide

d)

Succinylcholine

96.

Used for aggression, self-induced mutilation, and separation anxiety in dogs. Used for psychogenic alopecia, excessive vocalization, and severe recurring idiopathic interstitial cystitis in cats. Not recommended for pregnant and lactating animals.

a)

Amitriptyline

b)

Aminopentamide

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Tubocurarine

97.

FDA-approved for separation anxiety and also used for compulsive disorders and dominance aggression in dogs. Useful for treating urine spraying behavior and psychogenic alopecia in cats.

a)

Clomipramine

b)

Succinylcholine

c)

Tubocurarine

d)

Pancuronium

98.

Used in dogs for inappropriate urination, certain cases of withdrawn or depressed behavior, and in dogs and cats for cataplexy and urinary incontinence.

a)

Imipramine

b)

Tubocurarine

c)

Pancuronium

d)

Atracurium

99.

Used in stallions for ejaculatory dysfunction. May cause weakness, ataxia, hemolysis, and discolored urine in horses and cattle.

a)

Imipramine

b)

Tubocurarine

c)

Pancuronium

d)

Atracurium

100.

Used as an adjunctive therapy for psychogenic dermatitis due to anxiety in small animals. Banned for use in racehorses. Do not use in patients with history of urinary retention & glaucoma.

a)

Doxepin

b)

Pancuronium

c)

Atracurium

d)

Vecuronium

101.

Used for the treatment of dominance-related aggression, intraspecies aggression, acral lick dermatitis and other compulsive disorders in dogs. Used for the treatment of inappropriate urination, urine spraying behavior, psychogenic alopecia, and aggression in cats. Causes hypoglycemia by increasing sensitivity of insulin receptors.

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Atracurium

c)

Vecuronium

d)

Rocuronium

102.

Used for the treatment of aggression and compulsive disorders in both cats and dogs. In particular, maternal aggression. Decreases clearance of BZDs when given concomitantly.

a)

Fluvoxamine

b)

Vecuronium

c)

Rocuronium

d)

Epinephrine

103.

Used in the management of canine aggression and stereotypic behavior. Used for the treatment of inappropriate urination and aggression in cats. Causes transient anorexia in dogs and constipation in cats.

a)

Paroxetine

b)

Rocuronium

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Norepinephrine

104.

Used in the treatment of aggression, OCD and anxiety-related disorders in cats and dogs. Should be used with caution in animals with compromised liver function.

a)

Sertraline

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Isoprenaline

105.

Used to treat Canine Cognitive Dysfunction (CCD) in aging dogs and in treating "Rage Syndrome" in Cocker Spaniels. Used to treat cognitive dysfunction in geriatric cats and it may suppress cataplexy in canine narcolepsy. Beneficial for learning in both young and geriatric patients.

a)

Selegiline

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Isoprenaline

d)

Dopamine

106.

Used for managing emotional behavioral disorders In cats. Used for treating progressive irreversible neurodegeneration. Three major metabolites include L-methamphetamine, L-amphetamine, N-desmethylselegiline.

a)

Selegiline

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Isoprenaline

d)

Dopamine

107.

The first non-sedating anxiolytic drug to be developed and marketed. Used for the management of generalized anxiety and in combination with fluoxetine to treat complex behavioral problems in dogs. Used for modulating urine spraying behavior and inappropriate urination in cats.

a)

Buspirone

b)

Isoprenaline

c)

Dopamine

d)

Phenylephrine

108.

FDA-approved for treating noise aversion in dogs. Has lower GABA receptor affinity than diazepam leads to fewer side effects.

a)

Imepitoin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Phenylpropanolamine

109.

Used as an adjunctive treatment with TCAs and SSRIS to manage anxiety-related disorders and for anxiety during postsurgical confinement in dogs and anxiety prior to veterinary visits in cats. Very effective and well tolerated in dogs than in cats.

a)

Trazodone

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Phenylpropanolamine

d)

Ephedrine