wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Unit 6 Blueprint

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which body fluid is not known to transmit HIV infection?

a)

Blood

b)

Vaginal secretions

c)

Sweat

d)

Breast milk

2.

Which statement about HIV transmission during pregnancy is correct?

a)

All infants of HIV-positive mothers are infected

b)

Zidovudine during pregnancy decreases transmission risk to < 1%

c)

Transmission is impossible with breastfeeding

d)

Delivery method does not affect risk

3.

The client’s CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Indicates normal immune function

b)

Indicates HIV infection without symptoms

c)

Indicates AIDS

d)

Indicates early HIV infection

4.

Which is the most common opportunistic infection in clients with AIDS?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cytomegalovirus

c)

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)

d)

Toxoplasmosis

5.

Which teaching is most appropriate for a patient taking Truvada (PrEP)?

a)

You can stop taking it if you feel fine.

b)

You’re protected immediately after one dose.

c)

Use condoms and take the medication daily.

d)

You only need HIV testing once a year.

6.

What indicates effective antiretroviral therapy (ART)?

a)

Decreased CD4 count

b)

Increased viral load

c)

Decreased viral load

d)

Elevated liver enzymes

7.

Which laboratory finding supports the diagnosis of SLE?

a)

Elevated serum complement

b)

Positive ANA test

c)

Decreased ESR

d)

Increased platelet count

8.

Which medication is used for fatigue and joint pain in SLE?

a)

Hydroxychloroquine

b)

Methotrexate

9.

A patient with SLE reports increased fatigue after a weekend at the lake. The nurse should:

a)

Encourage continued outdoor activity

b)

Review sun-exposure and reinforce UV protection

c)

Advise daily tanning for vitamin D

d)

Discontinue hydroxychloroquine

10.

Which statement about hydroxychloroquine is correct?

a)

It is nephrotoxic

b)

It requires routine vision exams

c)

It causes insomnia

d)

It increases WBC count

11.

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are associated with:

a)

Contact dermatitis

b)

Immune complexes lodging in tissues

c)

IgE-mediated asthma

d)

T-cell destruction

12.

What is the main goal in teaching for patients with SLE?

a)

Limit all medications

b)

Increase UV exposure for vitamin D

c)

Prevent exacerbations and maintain remission

d)

Reduce fluid intake

13.

The TNM classification system evaluates:

a)

Tumor type, node involvement, and metastasis

b)

Tumor size only

c)

Tumor grading

d)

Genetic mutations

14.

Which finding is one of the seven warning signs of cancer?

a)

Persistent cough or hoarseness

b)

Skin itching

c)

Abdominal distension

d)

Constipation

15.

Which is a primary prevention strategy for cancer?

a)

Regular mammograms after age 45

b)

Avoiding known carcinogens

c)

Annual colonoscopy

d)

PSA screening

16.

Which diagnostic test identifies prostate cancer?

a)

CA-125

b)

PSA

c)

CEA

d)

CBC

17.

Which type of tumor spreads from its original site to another organ?

a)

Benign

b)

Secondary

c)

Primary

d)

In situ

18.

Which factor increases a patient's risk for developing cancer?

a)

Low BMI

b)

Smoking

c)

Daily exercise

d)

Balanced diet

19.

The most common cause of therapy-related pancytopenia is:

a)

Radiation

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Immunotherapy

d)

Hormonal therapy

20.

What is the nurse’s priority before administering chemotherapy?

a)

Checking for blood return

b)

Applying cold compress

c)

Pre-hydrating the patient

d)

Measuring height and weight only

21.

What PPE is required when administering IV chemotherapy?

a)

Gloves only

b)

Double gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection

c)

Apron only

d)

None

22.

Which nursing intervention reduces nausea during chemotherapy?

a)

Administer antiemetics before treatment

b)

Encourage spicy foods

c)

Withhold fluids

d)

Avoid bland meals

23.

Which lab result requires immediate intervention during chemotherapy?

a)

WBC 6,000/mm³

b)

Platelets 40,000/mm³

24.

What is a priority safety teaching for external radiation?

a)

You are radioactive after treatment.

b)

Do not remove skin markings.

c)

You should cover the area with ice packs.

d)

Use alcohol-based lotion.

25.

Which is true about brachytherapy (internal radiation)?

a)

The patient emits radiation while the implant is in place

b)

The nurse may stay in the room unlimited time

c)

Visitors can hold the implant container

d)

Patient is always radioactive after removal

26.

What is the primary precaution for a nurse caring for a patient with an implanted radiation source?

a)

Limit time and wear lead apron

b)

Avoid wearing gloves

c)

Use the same room for all patients

d)

Keep the door open

27.

The nurse recognizes which symptom as radiation dermatitis?

a)

Hair loss

b)

Dry, red, itchy skin

c)

Yellow sclera

d)

Petechiae

28.

Which lab value indicates bone marrow suppression after chemotherapy?

a)

RBC 4.8 million

b)

WBC 2,000/mm³

c)

Platelets 250,000

d)

Hct 40%

29.

Polycythemia vera is characterized by:

a)

Decreased RBCs

b)

Excessive RBC, WBC, and platelet production

c)

Low hematocrit

d)

Anemia

30.

Which is a priority complication of polycythemia vera?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Thrombosis

c)

Anemia

d)

Leukopenia

31.

The treatment goal for polycythemia vera is to:

a)

Keep hematocrit below 45%

b)

Increase platelet count

c)

Reduce hemoglobin to 20

d)

Restrict fluids

32.

Which patient statement about polycythemia vera requires intervention?

a)

I’ll drink at least 3 liters of fluid daily.

b)

I will wear tight socks to prevent swelling.

c)

I’ll take my low-dose aspirin.

d)

I’ll report signs of infection.

33.

What lab value confirms thrombocytopenia?

a)

Platelets 180,000

b)

Platelets 120,000

c)

WBC 8,000

d)

Hgb 15 g/dL

34.

Which symptom is most associated with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?

a)

Petechiae and mucosal bleeding

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Weight gain

d)

Hypertension

35.

Which nursing intervention is appropriate for thrombocytopenia?

a)

Avoid IM injections

b)

Encourage flossing

c)

Use razor blades

d)

Encourage contact sports

36.

Which medication stimulates WBC production after chemotherapy?

a)

Epoetin alfa

b)

Filgrastim (Neupogen)

c)

Tamoxifen

d)

Rituximab

37.

Which gene mutation increases risk for breast and ovarian cancer?

a)

HER-2

b)

BRCA1 and BRCA2

c)

APC

d)

BAP1

38.

What is the most common metastasis site for breast cancer?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver, bone, lung, brain

39.

Which is the classic symptom of uterine cancer?

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Abnormal uterine bleeding

c)

Vaginal discharge

d)

Weight loss

40.

Which factor increases cervical cancer risk?

a)

HPV infection

b)

Low BMI

c)

Early menopause

d)

Late pregnancy

41.

Which teaching should be given after lymph node removal for breast cancer?

a)

You can take blood pressure on the affected arm.

b)

Avoid BP and blood draws on that arm.

c)

Do not elevate the affected arm.

d)

Apply heating pads daily.

42.

Which lab test is associated with ovarian cancer?

a)

PSA

b)

CA-125

c)

CEA

d)

CA-19

43.

Which type of leukemia is most common in adults?

a)

CLL

b)

ALL

c)

AML

d)

CML

44.

Which finding is expected in leukemia?

a)

High hemoglobin

b)

Low platelets

c)

Increased clotting

d)

Elevated RBC

45.

Which is the definitive diagnostic test for leukemia?

a)

CBC

b)

Bone marrow biopsy

c)

MRI

d)

CT scan

46.

The nurse identifies which complication of leukemia treatment as priority?

a)

Infection

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Fluid overload

47.

During bone marrow transplant, which finding requires immediate action?

a)

Fever and hypertension

b)

Nausea

c)

Itching

d)

Low-grade fever

48.

The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells indicates:

a)

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

Leukemia

49.

What treatment option can lead to permanent sterility in male lymphoma patients?

a)

Immunotherapy

b)

Radiation to lower abdomen

c)

Antiemetics

d)

Corticosteroids

50.

What therapy enhances a patient’s immune system to attack cancer cells in NHL?

a)

CAR T-cell therapy

b)

Bone marrow transplant

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antivirals