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Introduction to Vital Signs

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the introduction, vital signs are fundamental physical measurements used by health professionals to assess how well the body is functioning. Which list correctly identifies the four main vital signs?

a)

Body temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure

b)

Body temperature, oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, blood glucose

c)

Pulse rate, pain score, respiratory rate, capillary refill

d)

Blood pressure, pain score, oxygen saturation, body temperature

2.

Fill in the blank with the exact term: Vital signs are the body's essential-function indicators, and pain is often referred to as the (a)   vital sign because of its clinical importance.

3.

Which statement best explains why pain is monitored alongside the four objective vital signs?

a)

Pain precisely quantifies cardiac output without instruments.

b)

Pain can significantly affect a patient's mobility, sleep, emotional state, and overall health.

c)

Pain directly measures respiratory efficiency in milliliters per breath.

d)

Pain replaces the need to record blood pressure in stable patients.

4.

In clinical documentation, the four main vital signs are considered objective signs. In contrast, pain is categorized as which type of sign, and why does this distinction matter?

a)

Objective, because it is measured with a sphygmomanometer, ensuring reproducibility.

b)

Subjective, because it is reported by the patient and reflects personal experience that influences care decisions.

c)

Objective, because it is always rated on a standardized numeric scale by clinicians.

d)

Subjective, because it is unrelated to health outcomes and therefore not measured directly.

5.

According to the instructional text, which is a primary purpose of measuring vital signs?

a)

To assess the general health condition of a person/patient

b)

To replace physical examination entirely

c)

To predict long‑term genetic risks

d)

To document insurance eligibility only

6.

Fill in the blank with the exact term from the lesson: Measuring vital signs helps determine a patient's (a)   health data.

7.

Which scenario best illustrates using vital signs to assess the effect of medical treatment?

a)

Recording blood pressure before and after starting an antihypertensive medication

b)

Screening family members for inherited disorders

c)

Scheduling a yearly dental cleaning

d)

Completing insurance forms at admission

8.

In which situation should vital signs be measured based on the listed conditions/times?

a)

Only when a patient requests them

b)

Before and after some diagnostic procedures

c)

Only at the first clinic visit and never again

d)

After discharge paperwork is completed but before admission

9.

Which change in a patient's condition triggers immediate vital sign assessment according to the guidance?

a)

Mild hair loss over several months

b)

Change of conscious level, pain, shortness of breathing, or not feeling well

c)

A stable appetite and regular sleep

d)

Completion of a physical therapy session without symptoms

10.

According to the instructional text, body temperature is best defined as which of the following?

a)

The heat stored in muscles during exercise

b)

How well the human body produces and gets rid of heat, i.e., the balance between heat production and heat loss

c)

The highest temperature measured on the skin during the day

d)

The average temperature of the external environment

11.

Fill in the blank: Body temperature reflects the (a)   between heat production and heat loss.

12.

Which statement correctly contrasts core temperature with body surface temperature?

a)

Core temperature refers to the skin and fluctuates widely; body surface temperature is the stable temperature of internal organs at about 37 °C.

b)

Core temperature is the temperature of internal organs like the liver, heart, or lungs and remains constant at about 37 °C; body surface temperature is the temperature of the skin and may change over time.

c)

Core temperature is measured only in the mouth; body surface temperature is measured only in the rectum.

d)

Core temperature applies only to the brain; body surface temperature applies only to the hands and feet.

13.

A patient’s deep internal temperature is stable at approximately 37 °C, but their skin temperature varies with room conditions. Which type of temperature is the skin reading?

a)

Core temperature

b)

Body surface temperature

c)

Basal metabolic temperature

d)

Environmental temperature

14.

Refer to the diagram titled “Factors Affecting Body Temperature.” Which listed factor relates to a daily biological cycle that influences temperature variation over 24 hours?

a)

Age

b)

Circadian rhythm

c)

Exercise

d)

Stress

15.

According to the visual overview, which of the following is explicitly identified as a factor that can affect body temperature?

a)

Hydration status

b)

Hormonal level

c)

Dietary fiber

d)

Sleep posture

16.

Complete the statement based on the diagram: A person’s stage of life, labeled as (a)   , is one of the factors that can influence body temperature.

17.

Which pair both appears in the diagram as factors influencing body temperature?

a)

Exercise and environment

b)

Hydration and altitude

c)

Diet and sleep posture

d)

Caffeine and medication

18.

From the factors presented, which one most directly refers to internal chemical messengers that fluctuate and can alter temperature?

a)

Stress

b)

Hormonal level

c)

Environment

d)

Age

19.

Using the diagram, select the factor that best represents external surroundings that may raise or lower a person’s heat load.

a)

Circadian rhythm

b)

Environment

c)

Age

d)

Stress

20.

Which term describes a decrease in body temperature to less than 35°C?

a)

Afebrile

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Pyrexia

d)

Febrile

21.

In clinical documentation, which term indicates no fever is present?

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Afebrile

c)

Febrile

d)

Pyrexia

22.

Fever is also referred to by which of the following terms according to the material?

a)

Hypothermia and afebrile

b)

Pyrexia, hyperthermia, and febrile

c)

Tachypnea and bradycardia

d)

Hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia

23.

Identify the temperature range that defines a low-grade fever.

a)

36.0°C to 37.0°C

b)

37.5°C to 38.5°C

c)

38.5°C to 40.5°C

d)

Above 40.5°C

24.

A high-grade fever is characterized by a body temperature within which range?

a)

Below 35.0°C

b)

37.0°C to 37.5°C

c)

38.5°C to 40.5°C

d)

Higher than 40.5°C

25.

Refer to the diagram showing thermometer use at the armpit. Which sequence correctly describes the armpit method?

a)

Place the tip in the center of the armpit, tuck the arm against the body for about a minute, then remove and read the temperature.

b)

Place the tip on the outer shoulder, wave the arm to create airflow, then read after ten seconds.

c)

Place the tip at the wrist crease, keep the arm extended for two minutes, then read the value.

d)

Place the tip on the upper chest, press for five seconds, then read immediately.

26.

According to the mouth method in the diagram, where should the thermometer tip be positioned?

a)

Between the lips while lightly biting the stem

b)

Under the tongue before closing the mouth

c)

Against the inner cheek with mouth open

d)

On the tongue surface while breathing through the mouth

27.

BLANK: For armpit temperature measurement, keep your arm tucked against your body for about (a)   before checking the reading.

28.

Which step is specifically recommended to ensure correct ear temperature measurement according to the diagram?

a)

Insert the thermometer shallowly without touching the canal walls

b)

Gently tug on the ear to straighten the ear canal before inserting

c)

Keep the mouth closed during measurement

d)

Leave the probe in for one minute without pressing any buttons

29.

The ear thermometer instructions note a potential accuracy issue. Which statement matches the warning provided?

a)

Readings may be inaccurate if the probe is not fully covered by a disposable sheath.

b)

Readings may be inaccurate if the thermometer is not correctly placed in the ear canal.

c)

Readings may be inaccurate if the patient has recently eaten hot or cold foods.

d)

Readings may be inaccurate if the arm is not tucked firmly against the body.

30.

In the illustration of rectal temperature measurement, which anatomical route is demonstrated for assessing body temperature?

a)

Oral route using sublingual placement

b)

Axillary route using the armpit center

c)

Rectal route with insertion into the anus

d)

Tympanic route using the external ear canal

31.

Which patient scenario is a contraindication to measuring temperature via the oral route?

a)

An alert adult who last drank water 2 hours ago

b)

A cooperative adolescent with mild earache

c)

An unconscious, confused, or irritable patient

d)

An adult needing routine pre-op vitals with no complaints

32.

For how long should a patient avoid hot or cold food, drinks, or gum before an oral temperature measurement?

a)

At least 5–10 minutes

b)

At least 10–15 minutes

c)

At least 20–30 minutes

d)

At least 45–60 minutes

33.

Where should the tip of a digital thermometer be placed when taking an oral temperature, and what should the patient do next?

a)

Under the tongue; close the mouth tightly

b)

Between the lips; breathe through the mouth

c)

Against the cheek; keep the mouth slightly open

d)

On the tongue surface; talk to relax

34.

Select the patient for whom the oral route should be avoided due to age.

a)

Newborn or infant under 6 years old

b)

Child aged 9 years

c)

Adult aged 25 years

d)

Older adult aged 70 years without cognitive issues

35.

Identify the condition that makes oral temperature measurement unsuitable due to airway or tube interference.

a)

Patient receiving oxygen or connected with a nasogastric tube

b)

Patient with a peripheral IV cannula

c)

Patient wearing eyeglasses

d)

Patient with a healed ankle sprain

36.

Fill in the blank: Avoid the oral route in a patient with recent (a)   or inflammation in the oral cavity, nose, or mouth.

37.

Which respiratory pattern is specifically listed as a reason to avoid the oral temperature route?

a)

Nasal breathing with mild congestion

b)

Mouth breathing or a problem in respiration

c)

Periodic sighs after exercise

d)

Shallow breathing during sleep

38.

Which patient history requires avoiding oral temperature measurement due to risk considerations?

a)

History of seasonal allergies

b)

History of convulsion

c)

History of kidney stones

d)

History of appendectomy in childhood

39.

Which statement best explains why the rectal route is selected for measuring temperature in certain patients?

a)

It is the most reliable and accurate route to measure temperature.

b)

It is the least invasive and most comfortable route for all patients.

c)

It is the fastest route and requires no preparation.

d)

It provides lower readings than oral temperature by default.

40.

For which patient groups is the rectal temperature route specifically indicated according to the instructions?

a)

Children, mouth breathers, and unconscious patients

b)

Adults who are febrile but cooperative

c)

Patients with recent oral intake of cold fluids only

d)

Athletes after exercise for rapid screening

41.

When preparing to measure a rectal temperature, how should the patient be positioned?

a)

Side-lying position

b)

Supine with knees extended

c)

Prone with hips elevated

d)

High Fowler's position

42.

What is the correct preparation of the thermometer before insertion for a rectal temperature?

a)

Lubricate the thermometer before inserting into the rectum

b)

Warm the thermometer by hand without lubrication

c)

Rinse the thermometer in cold water to prevent discomfort

d)

Insert the thermometer without any preparation

43.

What insertion depth and time are recommended for a rectal temperature using a standard clinical thermometer?

a)

Insert about 1 inch (2.5 cm) into the anal canal and leave in place for 3 minutes

b)

Insert 0.5 inch (1.25 cm) into the anal canal and remove immediately

c)

Insert 2 inches (5 cm) into the rectum and leave for 30 seconds

d)

Insert until resistance is met and leave for 10 minutes

44.

After obtaining a rectal temperature reading, what adjustment should be applied to the value?

(a)  

45.

Which situation represents a contraindication to rectal temperature measurement due to cardiac risk?

a)

Patients with heart conditions because rectal stimulation can activate the vagus nerve and slow heart rate

b)

Patients with mild dehydration because readings may be elevated

c)

Patients with seasonal allergies because nasal congestion affects breathing

d)

Patients with controlled hypertension because blood pressure may rise

46.

Which of the following patient conditions contraindicates the rectal route because of local anorectal issues?

a)

Recent rectal surgery, piles/fissures, or diarrhea

b)

Mild constipation relieved by fluids

c)

History of hemorrhoids resolved years ago without symptoms

d)

Minor abdominal discomfort after eating

47.

You are about to take a rectal temperature on an unconscious child. Which single step is essential before insertion to reduce trauma and ensure accuracy?

a)

Apply lubricant to the thermometer tip

b)

Ask the child to take a deep breath

c)

Place the child in high Fowler's position

d)

Warm the thermometer to body temperature

48.

Which statement best describes the safety of axillary temperature measurement for different age groups?

a)

It is unsafe for infants but safe for adults

b)

It is safe for infants, young children, and older people

c)

It is only recommended for athletic adults

d)

It is contraindicated in all pediatric patients

49.

According to the instructions, what is a key limitation of axillary temperature measurement accuracy?

a)

It provides 100% accurate readings due to proximity to major blood vessels

b)

It may be less accurate because there are no major blood vessels nearby the axilla

c)

It is more accurate than rectal measurements

d)

Accuracy is unaffected by positioning or duration

50.

For which group is axillary temperature measurement described as not preferable?

a)

Very thin people

b)

Adults with hypertension

c)

Infants with fever

d)

Athletes after exercise

51.

What is the recommended duration for placing the thermometer under the axilla during measurement?

(a)  

52.

After obtaining an axillary temperature reading, what adjustment should be made to the measured value?

a)

Subtract 0.5 °C from the reading

b)

Add 0.5 °C to the reading

c)

Multiply the reading by 1.05

d)

No adjustment is required

53.

Which statement best defines pulse rate in the context of vital signs?

a)

The number of breaths taken per minute by the lungs

b)

The pressure exerted by blood against arterial walls during diastole

c)

The palpable wave of blood produced by contraction of the left ventricle

d)

The electrical activity recorded from the sinoatrial node each second

54.

According to standard adult values, the normal range for resting pulse rate is (a)   beats per minute, with an average of 70 b/min.

55.

Pulse rate is clinically useful because it provides overview data about which body system?

a)

Respiratory status of the lungs

b)

Cardiovascular status of the human body

c)

Neurological status of the central nervous system

d)

Endocrine status of the thyroid gland

56.

A patient’s pulse is described as the wave of blood created by which specific cardiac event?

a)

Relaxation of the right atrium

b)

Contraction of the left ventricle

c)

Closure of the semilunar valves

d)

Filling of the left atrium

57.

Refer to the diagram of the human figure with labeled yellow dots. Which artery is located at the temple and is a site for measuring pulse?

a)

Temporal artery

b)

Carotid artery

c)

Brachial artery

d)

Radial artery

58.

According to the body diagram of pulse points, which artery is most commonly palpated at the wrist on the thumb side?

a)

Radial artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Ulnar artery

d)

Carotid artery

59.

In the illustrated list of pulse sites on the lower limb, which artery is found behind the knee?

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Popliteal artery

c)

Posterior tibial artery

d)

Dorsalis pedis artery

60.

On the labeled human figure, the pulse felt on the top of the foot corresponds to the (a)   artery.

61.

Which labeled site on the body diagram indicates the artery typically used for checking circulation to the lower leg and foot at the ankle?

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Posterior tibial artery

c)

Popliteal artery

d)

Temporal artery

62.

Based on the main sites of counting pulse, where is the apical pulse specifically located?

a)

2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line

b)

5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line

c)

At the sternal notch

d)

Along the angle of Louis

63.

In the chest landmarking image, which structure is identified as the palpable ridge where the manubrium meets the body of the sternum, helping count intercostal spaces?

a)

Sternal notch

b)

Angle of Louis

c)

Xiphoid process

d)

Clavicular head

64.

According to the wrist illustration, the radial pulse is palpated by placing the pads of two or three fingers on which side of the forearm?

a)

Ulnar side near the little finger

b)

Thumb side over the radial artery

c)

Directly over the carpal tunnel

d)

Posterior surface of the wrist

65.

From the labeled arterial sites on the full-body diagram, which artery is located in the groin region and can be used in emergencies when peripheral pulses are weak?

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Carotid artery

d)

Popliteal artery

66.

Using the chest landmark diagram, complete the statement: The 2nd intercostal space lies at the level identified after locating the (a)   , then moving laterally to the midclavicular line.

67.

Which statement best defines the apical pulse?

a)

A pulse felt at the wrist using the radial artery

b)

A pulse point on the chest at the heart’s apex that provides the most accurate heart rate

c)

A pulse measured at the neck beside the trachea

d)

A pulse detected by squeezing the upper arm with a cuff

68.

According to the procedure described, which fingers should be used to palpate the radial pulse at the wrist?

a)

Thumb and index fingers

b)

Index and third fingers

c)

Middle and ring fingers

d)

Thumb only

69.

Fill in the blank: The apical pulse gives the most (a)   reading of the heart rate.

70.

When measuring a radial pulse at the wrist, how much pressure should be applied?

a)

Firm pressure to occlude the artery for a clearer beat

b)

Just enough pressure to feel each beat

c)

Very light pressure that barely touches the skin

d)

Alternating heavy and light pressure to locate the artery

71.

Define pulse rhythm in your own words based on the description: it refers to the pattern of beats—the interval between each beat—and whether it is regular or irregular.

(a)  

72.

Which statement best describes pulse rate?

a)

The strength of each heartbeat felt at an artery

b)

The pattern of intervals between beats

c)

The number of heart beats

d)

The pressure exerted on arterial walls

73.

In the ECG-style strips shown (normal, fast, slow, irregular), which label corresponds to evenly spaced beats at a typical interval?

a)

Normal Heartbeat

b)

Fast Heartbeat

c)

Slow Heartbeat

d)

Irregular Heartbeat

74.

A patient’s pulse shows shorter-than-usual intervals between beats but consistent spacing. Which classification fits best?

a)

Fast heartbeat with regular rhythm

b)

Irregular heartbeat with variable rhythm

c)

Slow heartbeat with regular rhythm

d)

Absent pulse

75.

A pulse with variable intervals between beats is best described as (a)   rhythm.

76.

Which description matches the 0 grade on the pulse grading (0–4) scale?

a)

Absent, not palpable

b)

Weak/diminished, barely palpable

c)

Easily palpable, normal pulse

d)

Full, increased strength

e)

Bounding, very strong

77.

Match each pulse grade to its description: 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+.

a)

1+ = easily palpable, normal; 2+ = weak/diminished; 3+ = bounding very strong; 4+ = full, increased strength

b)

1+ = weak/diminished; 2+ = easily palpable, normal; 3+ = full, increased strength; 4+ = bounding very strong

c)

1+ = full, increased strength; 2+ = easily palpable, normal; 3+ = weak/diminished; 4+ = bounding very strong

d)

1+ = bounding very strong; 2+ = full, increased strength; 3+ = easily palpable, normal; 4+ = weak/diminished

78.

Which grade corresponds to a pulse described as full with increased strength?

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

79.

Fill in the blank with the exact grade label: A pulse that is easily palpable and considered normal is graded (a)   on the 0–4 scale.

80.

Define pulse deficit using exact terminology. Choose the best option.

a)

The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure in one cardiac cycle

b)

The gap between respiratory rate and heart rate measured over a minute

c)

The difference between the number of apical heartbeats and the number of palpable radial pulses

d)

The time delay between apical and radial pulse waves as recorded on ECG

81.

Which statement best explains the clinical meaning of a detected pulse deficit?

a)

The heart is beating strongly enough to create extra peripheral pulses

b)

The heart is beating but not effectively enough to send sufficient blood to peripheral parts to create a detectable pulse

c)

Peripheral vasodilation creates more palpable pulses than apical beats

d)

A respiratory problem is preventing detection of the apical beat

82.

Complete the procedure: To identify if there is a pulse deficit, simultaneously count the apical and radial pulses for (a)   , then subtract the radial count from the apical count.

83.

A nurse counts an apical pulse of 96 and a radial pulse of 84 over one minute. What is the pulse deficit and is it significant according to the stated threshold?

a)

PD = 12; significant and requires further medical investigation

b)

PD = 12; not significant and requires no follow-up

c)

PD = 84; significant and requires further medical investigation

d)

PD = 180; not significant and requires no follow-up

84.

Which threshold indicates a significant pulse deficit that requires further medical investigation?

a)

Greater than 5 beats per minute

b)

Greater than 10 beats per minute

c)

Greater than 15 beats per minute

d)

Greater than 20 beats per minute

85.

Using the rule PD = apical count − radial count, calculate the pulse deficit when the apical rate is 100 and the radial rate is 70. Then determine the need for action.

a)

PD = 30; significant and warrants investigation

b)

PD = 30; not significant and no action needed

c)

PD = 170; significant and warrants investigation

d)

PD = 70; not significant and no action needed

86.

According to the definition provided, respiration rate is best described as which of the following?

a)

The volume of air inhaled with each breath

b)

The number of breaths a person takes per minute at rest

c)

The percentage of oxygen in arterial blood

d)

The force of airflow during exhalation

87.

When measuring an adult’s respiration rate using the described procedure, what should you do?

a)

Count chest rises for 15 seconds and multiply by four while the person talks

b)

Count the number of breaths for one full minute while the person is at rest

c)

Use a pulse oximeter to estimate breaths over 30 seconds

d)

Ask the person to take deep breaths for accuracy and count for 20 seconds

88.

Fill in the blank: The normal respiratory rate range for adults is (a)   breaths per minute (bpm).

89.

Which finding meets the definition of bradypnoea in an adult, based on the table?

a)

8 bpm

b)

16 bpm

c)

22 bpm

d)

28 bpm

90.

According to the table, an increasing respiratory rate serves as what clinical signal?

a)

A normal response to rest

b)

A marker of illness and a warning of possible sudden deterioration

c)

A sign of improved oxygenation

d)

An indicator that counting should stop before one minute

91.

Which adult respiratory rate fits the definition of tachypnoea given?

a)

10 bpm

b)

18 bpm

c)

20 bpm

d)

24 bpm

92.

According to the diagram, which statement best describes what happens to the chest during inhalation?

a)

The chest expands as the diaphragm contracts downward.

b)

The chest contracts as the diaphragm relaxes upward.

c)

The chest remains unchanged while the diaphragm contracts.

d)

The chest collapses while the ribs rotate inward and the diaphragm relaxes.

93.

Which term refers to the process by which gases or air enter the lungs and is vital for sustaining life?

a)

Expiration

b)

Inspiration (Inhalation)

c)

Ventilation-perfusion

d)

Hyperventilation

94.

Fill in the blank: Inhalation occurs (a)   and doesn't require any control.

95.

During exhalation, what is the primary movement of air as defined in the material?

a)

Air moves from the external environment into the airways and lungs.

b)

Air moves from the lungs out of the airways to the external environment.

c)

Air circulates only within the alveoli without leaving the lungs.

d)

Air is trapped in the lungs as the diaphragm contracts.

96.

Based on the figure, which combination correctly matches the phase with diaphragm action?

a)

Inhalation—diaphragm relaxes; Exhalation—diaphragm contracts

b)

Inhalation—diaphragm contracts; Exhalation—diaphragm relaxes

c)

Both phases—diaphragm relaxes

d)

Both phases—diaphragm contracts

97.

Which description aligns with chest wall and rib behavior during exhalation as shown in the diagram?

a)

Ribs elevate and chest expands outward.

b)

Ribs depress and chest contracts inward.

c)

Ribs remain fixed while chest volume is constant.

d)

Ribs flare laterally while diaphragm descends.

98.

Which statement distinguishes inhalation from exhalation using the provided definitions?

a)

Inhalation moves air out of the lungs, whereas exhalation brings air in.

b)

Inhalation is the entry of gases into the lungs, whereas exhalation is the flow of breath out to the external environment.

c)

Both inhalation and exhalation are voluntary and require conscious control.

d)

Inhalation and exhalation both describe air movement strictly within the airways without exchange with the environment.

99.

Fill in the blank using exact terminology: Exhalation is also called (a)   .

100.

Which statement best defines blood pressure for clinical practice?

a)

The volume of blood ejected by the heart each minute

b)

The force of circulating blood pushing against arterial walls as the heart pumps blood

c)

The speed at which blood travels through veins during rest

d)

The amount of oxygen carried by blood to tissues

101.

Complete the sentence: Blood pressure is measured by two numbers, systolic and (a)   pressure.

102.

Which event corresponds to systolic blood pressure (SBP)?

a)

Pressure in arteries when the ventricles relax between beats

b)

Highest pressure exerted on artery walls when the heart beats and pumps blood out

c)

Average pressure over a full cardiac cycle regardless of contraction

d)

Pressure only within the veins during inspiration

103.

Which description accurately characterizes diastolic blood pressure (DBP)?

a)

The peak arterial pressure during ventricular contraction

b)

The lowest pressure against arterial walls during relaxation of the ventricular contraction

c)

The pressure created by venous return during exercise

d)

The mean pressure produced by capillary exchange at rest

104.

According to the instructional text, what is the normal range of blood pressure in adults?

a)

90/60 ± 10/10 mmHg

b)

120/80 ± 20/15 mmHg

c)

140/90 ± 20/10 mmHg

d)

110/70 ± 30/20 mmHg

105.

In the notation 120/80 mmHg for normal blood pressure, identify which number represents SBP and which represents DBP.

a)

120 is SBP and 80 is DBP

b)

120 is DBP and 80 is SBP

c)

Both numbers indicate SBP measured twice

d)

Both numbers indicate DBP measured at rest and during exercise

106.

According to the instructional text, pain is recognized as the (a)   vital sign.

107.

Which statement best reflects the provided definition of pain?

a)

A pleasant bodily sensation that promotes relaxation and homeostasis

b)

A localized or generalized unpleasant sensation causing physical discomfort and emotional distress, often resulting from body disorder

c)

A purely psychological experience unrelated to bodily conditions or warnings

d)

A temporary itching sensation that does not affect well-being or require assessment

108.

Which feature is included in the description of pain in the material?

a)

It never indicates an underlying body disorder

b)

It is considered a warning from the body

c)

It can only be assessed through verbal reports

d)

It is always generalized and never localized

109.

A patient with limited speech uses facial grimacing and guarding to indicate pain. Based on the text, which assessment approach is appropriate?

a)

Rely solely on laboratory tests because pain is not assessable

b)

Use non-verbal communication to assess pain when verbal reports are limited

c)

Ignore the signs because pain requires explicit verbal confirmation

d)

Assume the patient is anxious rather than in pain and withhold assessment