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Chapter 19 Liver Function MEDL 214

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best captures the liver’s overall importance as introduced here?

a)

It provides minor support to digestion but is not essential for survival.

b)

It plays an extremely vital role in metabolism, digestion, and elimination of substances, making liver function critical for survival.

c)

It primarily regulates body temperature with limited metabolic involvement.

d)

It mainly produces red blood cells with minimal roles in digestion.

2.

Select all roles attributed to the liver in this introduction.

a)

Metabolism of substances

b)

Digestion processes

c)

Elimination of substances from the body

d)

Primary production of insulin

3.

Match each liver-related concept with its description.

a)

Glycogen

1.

Polymer stored in the liver

b)

Carbohydrate storage

2.

Function that stores carbohydrates in the liver

c)

Regeneration

3.

Unique ability of the mammalian liver

d)

Energy between meals

4.

Purpose served by stored glycogen

4.

Which statement about liver regeneration is accurate according to this introduction?

a)

The liver, along with the kidneys, can regenerate fully in mammals.

b)

The liver is the only organ in mammals that has the ability to regenerate.

c)

Only fetal mammalian livers can regenerate, not adult livers.

d)

Regeneration refers to temporary swelling rather than tissue restoration.

5.

According to the provided description, where is the liver located in relation to the diaphragm and abdominal quadrants?

a)

Upper right quadrant beneath the diaphragm

b)

Upper left quadrant above the diaphragm

c)

Lower right quadrant beneath the diaphragm

d)

Lower left quadrant above the diaphragm

6.

Which statement best characterizes the relative sizes of the liver lobes described?

a)

The right lobe is six times larger than the left and there are two smaller lobes.

b)

The left lobe is twice as large as the right and there are no other lobes.

c)

The right and left lobes are equal in size with one accessory lobe.

d)

The liver has three equal main lobes with no size difference.

7.

Which features are included in the general structural description of the liver in this material? Select all that apply.

a)

Location beneath the diaphragm in the upper right quadrant

b)

Division into two main lobes

c)

Right lobe six times larger than the left

d)

Absence of any smaller lobes

8.

The liver has a dual blood supply. Which vessels provide this supply, and what are their relative contributions to total blood volume?

a)

Portal vein

1.

Originates in the gastrointestinal area; provides ~70% of total blood volume

b)

Hepatic artery

2.

Arises from the aorta; contributes ~30% of total blood volume

c)

Dual supply characteristic

3.

Feature unique to the liver described in this text

9.

Which statement correctly identifies the source and contribution of the portal vein to hepatic blood flow?

a)

From the aorta, contributing 30% of total blood volume

b)

From the gastrointestinal area, providing 70% of total blood volume

c)

From the inferior vena cava, providing 50% of total blood volume

d)

From the pulmonary circulation, providing 20% of total blood volume

10.

Which combination accurately describes the hepatic artery in the liver’s dual blood supply?

a)

Originates in the gastrointestinal tract; supplies 70% of total blood volume

b)

Arises from the aorta; contributes 30% of total blood volume

c)

Arises from the portal system; contributes 50% of total blood volume

d)

Arises from the pulmonary artery; contributes 20% of total blood volume

11.

Based on the text description, which set of statements correctly summarizes the liver’s location and blood supply?

a)

Located beneath the diaphragm in the upper right quadrant

b)

Divided into two main lobes with a markedly larger right lobe

c)

Receives blood solely from the hepatic artery

d)

Receives blood from both the portal vein and hepatic artery

12.

Which vessels together provide the dual blood supply that enters the liver lobule before passing through sinusoids?

a)

Portal vein and hepatic artery

b)

Hepatic vein and inferior vena cava

c)

Bile duct and portal vein

d)

Splenic artery and hepatic vein

13.

Within the liver lobule, what are sinusoids?

a)

Elastic arteries that deliver oxygenated blood to hepatocytes

b)

Lymphatic channels draining interstitial fluid to the portal triad

c)

Capillary channels between rows of hepatic parenchymal cells called hepatocytes

d)

Venous valves regulating flow from the central vein

14.

Select all features that correctly characterize hepatocytes in the lobule context described.

a)

They form rows flanking the sinusoidal capillaries

b)

They are the primary phagocytes that engulf bacteria and debris

c)

They are hepatic parenchymal cells central to liver function

d)

They line the sinusoids as the third, less functionally important hepatic cell

15.

Kupffer cells in liver sinusoids are best described as which of the following?

a)

Endothelial cells that line bile canaliculi

b)

Active phagocytes that engulf bacteria, old RBCs, toxins, and cellular debris from blood

c)

Parenchymal hepatocytes responsible for bile production

d)

Smooth muscle cells regulating sinusoidal constriction

16.

Which statement integrates the pathway and cellular roles within a liver lobule?

a)

Blood from the hepatic vein flows through lymphatic sinusoids to the portal triad, where hepatocytes phagocytose debris

b)

Blood from the portal vein and hepatic artery moves through sinusoidal capillaries between hepatocyte rows to the central vein; Kupffer cells perform phagocytosis

c)

Bile from hepatocytes enters sinusoids en route to the central vein, aided by endothelial cells

d)

Sinusoids are muscular arterioles that pump blood from the central vein to the portal triad

17.

Match each liver function category to the most fitting brief description.

a)

Metabolism

1.

Processing and transforming nutrients

b)

Excretion

2.

Removal of waste products via bile/urine pathways

c)

Detoxification

3.

Chemical modification to neutralize toxins and drugs

d)

Storage

4.

Retention of vitamins, glycogen, and iron for later use

e)

Immunologic

5.

Defense roles including immune surveillance

18.

Which statement best conveys the criticality of the liver’s overall functions as described? Choose one.

a)

The liver performs fewer than 50 nonessential activities.

b)

The liver is responsible for more than 500 separate and critical activities.

c)

The liver mainly aids digestion but has limited systemic roles.

d)

The liver’s activities are redundant and easily replaced by other organs.

19.

A patient with a completely nonfunctional liver would die within approximately how long, based on the description? Choose one.

a)

10 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

7 days

d)

1 month

20.

What is the stated limit of the liver’s regenerative capacity within normal limits? Choose one.

a)

Up to 25% hepatocyte destruction

b)

Up to 50% hepatocyte destruction

c)

Until 75% of hepatocytes have been destroyed

d)

Regeneration stops once any hepatocyte is lost

21.

Which role identifies the liver as the major processor of a specific macronutrient source described? Choose one.

a)

Dietary and endogenous carbohydrates

b)

Dietary proteins only

c)

Exogenous lipids only

d)

Micronutrients exclusively

22.

Which statement about lipoproteins reflects the liver’s role as described? Choose one.

a)

The liver breaks down lipoproteins to release fatty acids.

b)

The liver synthesizes lipoproteins, making insoluble lipids more soluble.

c)

The liver blocks lipoprotein formation to prevent lipid transport.

d)

Lipoproteins are synthesized only in adipose tissue.

23.

Match each liver metabolic output with its primary purpose.

a)

Lipoproteins

1.

Transport and solubilization of lipids

b)

Endogenous cholesterol

2.

Component for cell membranes

c)

Plasma proteins

3.

Maintenance of blood oncotic pressure and carrier functions

24.

Which combination of functions most directly supports the liver’s role in maintaining metabolic homeostasis as described? Select all that apply.

a)

Processing dietary and endogenous carbohydrates

b)

Synthesis of most plasma proteins

c)

Production of endogenous cholesterol

d)

Exclusive excretion of nitrogenous wastes without any synthesis

25.

Which substances are primarily excreted by the liver as part of bile formation and waste removal?

a)

Bile acids, cholesterol, and bilirubin

b)

Glucose, urea, and ketone bodies

c)

Ammonia, lactate, and creatinine

d)

Water, sodium, and potassium

26.

Select all processes that the liver contributes to detoxifying under normal physiology.

a)

Bilirubin generated from heme breakdown

b)

Alcohol consumed in beverages

c)

Most therapeutic drugs, including those that may be hepatotoxic

d)

Inhaled oxygen during respiration

27.

Physicians monitor certain medications with periodic liver function tests primarily because some drugs are:

a)

Particularly hepatotoxic

b)

Ineffective without bile acids

c)

Stored only in skeletal muscle

d)

Excreted solely by the kidneys

28.

Which choice best describes the liver’s role in bilirubin handling?

a)

Detoxifies and excretes bilirubin into bile

b)

Stores bilirubin for future erythropoiesis

c)

Converts bilirubin into hemoglobin directly

d)

Secretes bilirubin as an immunoglobulin

29.

Iron stored in the liver serves which downstream purpose according to the material?

a)

Production of hemoglobin

b)

Generation of bile acids

c)

Neutralization of alcohol

d)

Synthesis of immunoglobulin A

30.

Which list includes only items the liver stores?

a)

Glycogen, iron, copper, and vitamins A, D, E, K

b)

Bilirubin, cholesterol, and alcohol

c)

Urea, creatinine, and ketone bodies

d)

Immunoglobulin A, bile salts, and hemoglobin

31.

Match each stored compound to its classification or example.

a)

Glycogen

1.

Carbohydrate reserve

b)

Fat-soluble vitamins

2.

Includes vitamins A, D, E, and K

c)

Copper

3.

Trace metal stored by the liver

32.

Which liver-resident cells provide immunologic defense by phagocytosis of pathogens and debris?

a)

Kupffer cells

b)

Hepatocytes

c)

Stellate (Ito) cells

d)

Endothelial cells

33.

Which immunologic secretion associated with the liver contributes to mucosal immunity in the biliary tract?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

34.

Approximately what proportion of daily bilirubin production arises from hemoglobin released from aged red blood cells?

a)

About 20%

b)

About 50%

c)

About 80%

d)

About 100%

35.

Where does degradation of red blood cells primarily occur in the context of bilirubin formation?

a)

Reticuloendothelial system

b)

Pancreatic ducts

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Alveolar macrophages

36.

Which step converts the porphyrin ring into biliverdin during initial bilirubin processing?

a)

Action of biliverdin reductase

b)

Oxidation by heme oxygenase

c)

Conjugation by UDP-glucuronyl transferase

d)

Binding to albumin

37.

Identify the enzyme that reduces biliverdin to indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin.

a)

Heme oxygenase

b)

Biliverdin reductase

c)

Uridyl diphosphate (UDP)-glucuronyl transferase

d)

Ligandin

38.

Which statement best describes the circulation of indirect/unconjugated bilirubin in blood?

a)

It circulates freely without protein binding.

b)

It circulates bound predominantly to albumin (~90%).

c)

It circulates bound to hemoglobin within RBCs.

d)

It is immediately conjugated and water soluble in plasma.

39.

Match each enzyme to its immediate product as described in the instructional text.

a)

Heme oxygenase

1.

Biliverdin

b)

Biliverdin reductase

2.

Indirect/unconjugated bilirubin

c)

UDP-glucuronyl transferase

3.

Bilirubin diglucuronide (conjugated bilirubin)

40.

What is the specific biochemical modification performed by UDP-glucuronyl transferase on bilirubin?

a)

Adds one glucuronic acid

b)

Adds two glucuronic acid molecules

c)

Removes porphyrin ring

d)

Binds bilirubin to albumin

41.

Which term correctly names the water-soluble form of bilirubin produced in the liver after conjugation?

a)

Indirect bilirubin

b)

Unconjugated bilirubin

c)

Bilirubin diglucuronide (conjugated or direct bilirubin)

d)

Biliverdin

42.

Select all accurate properties of conjugated (direct) bilirubin stated in the instructional text.

a)

It is water soluble.

b)

It can cross lipid cell membranes.

c)

It remains bound tightly to albumin in plasma.

d)

It is formed by addition of glucuronic acid via UDP-glucuronyl transferase.

43.

Sequence the early steps of bilirubin formation by selecting the correct ordered pathway.

a)

Heme → Biliverdin (heme oxygenase) → Indirect bilirubin (biliverdin reductase)

b)

Heme → Indirect bilirubin (UDP-glucuronyl transferase) → Biliverdin

c)

Biliverdin → Heme (biliverdin reductase) → Conjugated bilirubin

d)

Indirect bilirubin → Biliverdin (heme oxygenase) → Heme

44.

According to the text, what is the immediate pathway for conjugated bilirubin once formed in the liver?

a)

It is secreted into bile canaliculi for excretion

b)

It circulates freely in the bloodstream

c)

It is reduced to urobilinogen in the stomach

d)

It is stored directly in the pancreas

45.

Which statement best describes gallbladder involvement in bilirubin handling?

a)

It continuously releases bile regardless of digestive signals

b)

It stores bile containing conjugated bilirubin until signals from the digestive tract trigger constriction and expulsion

c)

It converts unconjugated bilirubin to conjugated bilirubin

d)

It filters urobilin from the blood into bile

46.

Which outcome occurs in the duodenum as part of bilirubin metabolism?

a)

Oxidation of bilirubin to urobilin

b)

Reduction of bilirubin to urobilinogen by bacterial action

c)

Conjugation of bilirubin by hepatocytes

d)

Storage of bilirubin within bile canaliculi

47.

Identify the correct sequence for the fate of bilirubin in the intestine, based on the text.

a)

Conjugation → storage in gallbladder → oxidation to urobilinogen → excretion in urine

b)

Reduction to urobilinogen → oxidation to urobilin → excretion in stool

c)

Oxidation to urobilin → reduction to urobilinogen → reabsorption into blood

d)

Storage in pancreas → reduction to urobilinogen → excretion in stool

48.

Which product is responsible for the red-brown color associated with stool excretion in bilirubin metabolism?

a)

Urobilinogen

b)

Conjugated bilirubin

c)

Urobilin

d)

Hemoglobin

49.

Which of the following changes are driven by intestinal bacteria in bilirubin metabolism?

a)

Converting bilirubin to urobilinogen in the duodenum

b)

Oxidizing urobilinogen to urobilin

c)

Triggering gallbladder constriction

d)

Breaking down conjugated bilirubin before excretion into bile canaliculi

50.

According to the Jendrassik–Grof method, what reacts with the diazo reagent to form the colored complex measured in bilirubin assays?

a)

Bile salts

b)

Bilirubin pigments

c)

Gamma-glutamyl transferase

d)

Prothrombin

51.

In the Jendrassik–Grof method, which compound is specifically identified as the diazotized sulfanilic acid component of the diazo reagent?

a)

Sulfanilic acid and sodium nitrite

b)

Sodium benzoate and caffeine

c)

Albumin and sodium chloride

d)

Urea and ammonium sulfate

52.

What is the primary role of caffeine in the Jendrassik–Grof bilirubin assay?

a)

It buffers the solution to maintain pH.

b)

It acts as an accelerator and dissociating reagent to displace bilirubin from albumin.

c)

It precipitates proteins to remove interference.

d)

It serves as the diazo coupling agent.

53.

Which reagent buffers the solution in the Jendrassik–Grof method for bilirubin measurement?

a)

Sodium benzoate

b)

Sodium nitrite

c)

Caffeine

d)

Sulfanilic acid

54.

Match each component of the Jendrassik–Grof bilirubin method with its function.

a)

Diazotized sulfanilic acid (sulfanilic acid + sodium nitrite)

1.

Forms the diazo reagent that couples with bilirubin pigments

b)

Caffeine

2.

Accelerates and dissociates bilirubin from albumin to increase reaction rate

c)

Sodium benzoate

3.

Buffers the solution

55.

Which statement best explains why caffeine is included in the Jendrassik–Grof procedure?

a)

To form the diazo reagent by diazotizing sulfanilic acid

b)

To displace bilirubin from albumin and increase reaction rate

c)

To stabilize the colored azobilirubin product

d)

To reduce sodium nitrite to nitric oxide

56.

Which combination correctly describes the composition of the diazo reagent used in the Jendrassik–Grof bilirubin assay?

a)

Sulfanilic acid with sodium nitrite

b)

Caffeine with sodium benzoate

c)

Albumin with sodium chloride

d)

Urobilinogen with bile salts

57.

In the context of liver function tests, select all parameters that are emphasized in this section as serum markers or analytes related to hepatic assessment.

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Serum enzymes

c)

Serum albumin

d)

Urobilinogen

58.

Which of the following is NOT described as a role of sodium benzoate in the Jendrassik–Grof bilirubin method?

a)

Buffering the solution

b)

Acting as a dissociating reagent for bilirubin–albumin complex

c)

Maintaining reaction conditions

d)

Being distinct from the diazotized sulfanilic acid reagent

59.

Which test parameter related to coagulation is included among key liver function markers in this section?

a)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

b)

Prothrombin time

c)

Activated partial thromboplastin time

d)

Bleeding time

60.

Which description best characterizes the interaction between bilirubin pigments and the diazo reagent in the Jendrassik–Grof method?

a)

Bilirubin is precipitated by sodium benzoate to form a pellet.

b)

Bilirubin pigments couple with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form a measurable colored complex.

c)

Caffeine reduces bilirubin to urobilinogen which is then measured.

d)

Serum albumin binds the diazo reagent to amplify signal.