Which organs and systems are considered blood-forming tissues?

Where does hematopoiesis PRIMARILY occur?

Bone marrow produces which of the following?

How many types of blood cells develop from nondifferentiated immature blood cells (stem cells)?

What is the soft material that fills the central core of bones called?

What is the function of yellow bone marrow?

Red bone marrow is _______.

SATA: In adults, red marrow is found in flat and irregular bones, such as?

Blood is what percentage of total body weight?

Whole blood is made up of 55% ______ and 45% formed elements.

PLASMA contains 7% proteins, 91% water, and other solutes. Which of the following is NOT a protein found in PLASMA?

What is the normal range of platelets in blood?

What is the normal range of erythrocytes (RBCs) in blood?

What is the normal range of leukocytes (WBCs) in blood?

Which type of leukocyte makes up 50-70% of WBCs?

Which type of leukocyte makes up 20-40% of WBCs?

Which type of leukocyte makes up 4-8% of WBCs?

Which type of leukocyte makes up 2-4% of WBCs?

Which type of leukocyte makes up 0-2% of WBCs?

What percentage of blood is plasma?

What percentage of blood is made up of true blood cells?

Which blood cells are responsible for oxygen transport?

Which blood cells are responsible for protection from infection?

Which blood cells promote coagulation?

What is hemoglobin composed of?

Oxyhemoglobin is formed from which two components?

Erythropoiesis is PRIMARILY stimulated by which bodily condition?

Erythropoiesis is controlled by erythropoietin, which is created by the _______?

Reticulocytes mature into ______ and are a good indication of production rates.

Hemolysis removes abnormal, defective, damaged, and old ______ from circulation.

What is the most common form of leukocyte, making up 50-70% of all leukocytes?

The primary function of neutrophils is ______.

Mature neutrophil is segmented, called 'segs', with multiple segments in its ______.

Immature neutrophils are called ______ due to their non-segmented appearance.

An increase in percentage of bands is called a 'shift to the LEFT', meaning the bone marrow is releasing less-mature cells into circulation in response to a site of injury. SHIFTS TO THE LEFT OCCUR WITH:

Eosinophils make up what percentage of all leukocytes?

Granules in eosinophils contain ______.

These cells engulf antigen-antibody complexes formed during an ALLERGIC response.

Which type of cell defends against parasites?

Where are eosinophils found in large numbers?

Basophils make up less than what percentage of all leukocytes?

Basophils have cytoplasmic granules that contain which substances?

What happens when basophils are stimulated by an antigen?

Lymphocytes make up what percentage of all leukocytes?

Which type of leukocyte forms the basis of cellular and humoral immune responses?

What are the two subtypes of lymphocytes?

Monocytes account for what percentage of all leukocytes?

Which type of cell is the second to arrive at a site of injury or infection?

When monocytes migrate into tissue, what do they become?

Where are resident macrophages stored?

SATA: What are some functions of thrombocytes in the clotting process?

What product of stem cells fragments into platelets?

Hemostasis is defined as the ________ of bleeding.

What is the immediate hemostatic response of injured blood vessels called?

Vasoconstriction reduces leakage of blood from the injured vessel by ________ the size of the vessel.

Platelet plug formation is activated by exposure to ________ from the injured blood vessel.

Platelet 'stickiness' is called ________.

Formation of clumps is called ________ OR agglutination.

Clotting factors form a ________ fibrin clot on the platelet plug.

Clotting factors are labeled with both ________ and ________.

Which enzyme is the most powerful in the coagulation process and converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

Anticoagulation occurs by two means: one of them is ________, which interferes with thrombin.

Fibrinolytic System: Plasminogen, with the help of plasminogen activators, becomes _______.

Fibrinolytic System: Plasmin, with the help of RBCs and platelets, forms the fibrin clot via _______.

Fibrinolytic System: Once the fibrin clot is formed, excess fibrin degradation products are released from the site of injury and back into the _______.

Spleen: The spleen is located in the _______ (next to kidney).

Spleen Function: The spleen is able to produce _______ during fetal development.

Spleen Function: Filtration in the spleen removes old and damaged _______ from circulation.

Spleen Function: The spleen removes hemoglobin from RBCs and returns iron component to the _______ for reuse.

Spleen Function: Filters out bacteria, especially _______ organisms.

Spleen Function: Contains a rich supply of lymphocytes, monocytes, and stored _______.

Spleen Function: Storage: stores RBCs and approximately _______ of total mass of platelets.

For the body to acquire iron, it must first be:

Iron Metabolism: _______ and hemosiderin assist in iron storage.

SATA: The lymphatic system consists of:

The lymph system ensures protein and fat from the GI tract and certain hormones are returned to the _______ system.

Fill in the blank: The lymph system returns excess interstitial fluid to the blood to prevent or reduce _______.

Which of the following describes lymph fluid?

Lymph fluid circulates through special vasculature.

Fill in the blank: Too much interstitial fluid or reduced absorption leads to _______.

Fill in the blank: Lymphatic capillaries unite to form lymphatic vessels that carry all lymph fluid to the RIGHT lymphatic duct or the _______ duct.

Fill in the blank: Lymphatic capillaries drain into _______ veins in the neck.

Where is the largest concentration of lymph nodes found?

Fill in the blank: The primary function of lymph nodes is filtration of _______ and foreign particles carried by lymph fluid.

The liver functions as a filter.

Fill in the blank: The liver produces all _______ essential to hemostasis and blood coagulation.

Fill in the blank: The liver stores excess _______.

What are the components involved in normal hemostasis?

Fill in the blank: Disruption of ANY of these components (vascular endothelium, platelets, and coagulation factors) may result in ______ or thrombotic disorders.

Which of the following is a result of thrombocytopenia?

Thrombocytopenia results in abnormal hemostasis: prolonged or spontaneous ______.

Which of the following is primarily an acquired disorder commonly from ingestion of certain herbs or drugs (i.e. St. John's Wort)?

During hemostasis, ______ gives time for a platelet response TO BEGIN and for the triggering of plasma clotting factors.

Clotting factors are ______ present in circulation in inactive forms until stimulated to initiate clotting through one of two pathways, which are the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.

How is the intrinsic clotting pathway activated?

How is the extrinsic clotting pathway initiated?

Anticoagulation occurs by two means: one of which is ________, which results in the direct dissolution of the fibrin clot.

SATA: Geriatric patients have a diminished ability to recover from acute illnesses, as well as compensate for chronic diseases due to what factors of normal aging?

Thrombocytopenia can either be ______ or ______.

Which of the following is the MOST COMMON form of thrombocytopenia?

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) is primarily a ______ disease and is defined as a syndrome of abnormal ______ of circulating platelets.

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) is a rare disorder that is associated with _______ aggregation of platelets that form into ________.

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) is caused by a deficiency of _______ enzymes.

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) is considered a MEDICAL EMERGENCY, AS BLEEDING AND CLOTTING CAN OCCUR SIMULTANEOUSLY (SIMILAR TO DIC).

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia is associated with increased use of heparin. This type of thrombocytopenia creates a ____ feedback loop which can result in _____.

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia is considered:

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia develops _______ days after heparin therapy is started.

One hallmark indicator of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia is a platelet ______ of _____ from baseline.

SATA: What are some major complications of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia?

Patients with thrombocytopenia always exhibit signs and symptoms of the disorder.

What is the MOST COMMON symptom of thrombocytopenia?

Ecchymoses is:

What is THE hallmark diagnostic indicator of thrombocytopenia?

A patient with thrombocytopenia suffering from prolonged bleeding will typically have a platelet count less than:

A patient with thrombocytopenia suffering from massive hemorrhage will typically have a platelet count less than:

Which medication should the RN AVOID giving to a patient with thrombocytopenia?

When treating Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP), ________ are given to suppress phagocytic response of splenic macrophages, which results in an increased life span of platelets.

An enlarged spleen sequesters and ______ platelets, resulting in _____ available clotting ability in the circulation.

Platelet transfusions are used to increase platelet counts in life-threatening hemorrhages.

Platelet transfusions are _____ used prophylactically, due to antibody formation.

Platelet transfusions are indicated for a platelet count less than ______/uL.

Untreated Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura (TTP) usually results in IRREVERSIBLE _____ FAILURE AND DEATH.

_________ can be used to aggressively reverse platelet consumption.

A patient is diagnosed with Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT). How long should the RN and other providers stop the heparin therapy for?

Patients recovering from Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) can be started on Coumadin once their platelet count reaches 150,000/uL. What type of medication should the patient be switched to in the meantime for anticoagulation therapy?

Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause thrombocytopenia and bone marrow suppression.

In regards to a patient with thrombocytopenia, the RN should AVOID:

Blood component therapy is frequently used to manage hematologic diseases. This type of therapy is considered a _______ measure.

Blood component therapy can be done frequently for patients with hematologic diseases, as they are very safe and have negligible adverse effects.