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Specialty testing. : Vision, Hearing, Allergy, and Pulmonary Fun

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which purpose of screening tests is emphasized for ambulatory care?

a)

Detect health issues early and inform treatment choices

b)

Replace specialist evaluations entirely

c)

Eliminate the need for any follow-up testing

d)

Focus only on emergency care situations

2.

According to the overview, distance vision testing evaluates for myopia (nearsightedness). What condition is being screened?

a)

Astigmatism

b)

Myopia

c)

Cataracts

d)

Glaucoma

3.

Which primary tool is used for distance vision testing as stated in the overview?

a)

Jaeger eye chart

b)

Ishihara color plates

c)

Snellen chart

d)

Amsler grid

4.

For the Snellen chart testing procedure, how far should adults stand from the chart?

a)

10 feet

b)

15 feet

c)

20 feet

d)

25 feet

5.

In Snellen chart testing, how far should children stand from the chart at eye level?

a)

5 feet

b)

8 feet

c)

10 feet

d)

12 feet

6.

During Snellen chart testing, in what order are eyes tested?

a)

Both eyes together only

b)

Right eye only

c)

Each eye individually, then both together

d)

Left eye first, then right eye only

7.

What is noted about corrective lenses during Snellen chart testing?

a)

They are prohibited during testing

b)

Patients may wear them during testing and this should be documented

c)

They must be removed after the first line

d)

Only contact lenses are allowed

8.

What happens to the letters on each successive row of the Snellen chart?

a)

They become larger

b)

They alternate sizes

c)

They remain the same size

d)

They get progressively smaller

9.

How are Snellen chart results recorded?

a)

As a percentage

b)

As a decimal

c)

As a fraction such as 20/2020/20

d)

As a whole number score

10.

In the Snellen notation, what does the numerator represent?

a)

Distance at which typical vision can read the line

b)

Number of letters missed

c)

Distance from the chart (20 feet)

d)

The size of the letters

11.

In the Snellen notation, what does the denominator represent?

a)

Distance from the chart

b)

Age of the patient

c)

Distance at which typical vision can read that line

d)

Number of lines read

12.

What does 20/2020/20 vision represent according to the recording guidelines?

a)

Poor vision

b)

Typical, normal vision

c)

Exceptional, better-than-normal vision

d)

Near vision only

13.

According to the recording rules, how many items can a patient miss on a line and still pass that line?

a)

None

b)

One item per line

c)

Two items per line

d)

Three items per line

14.

Near vision testing screens for which conditions?

a)

Myopia and astigmatism

b)

Presbyopia and hyperopia (farsightedness)

c)

Glaucoma and cataracts

d)

Color blindness and macular degeneration

15.

Which tool is used for near vision testing?

a)

Snellen chart

b)

Ishihara test book

c)

Jaeger eye chart

d)

Amsler grid

16.

During near vision testing, how should the cards be positioned relative to the eyes?

a)

Held 6–8 inches away with corrective lenses

b)

Held 14–16 inches away without corrective lenses

c)

Held 20 inches away with corrective lenses

d)

Placed against the forehead

17.

In near vision testing, what is the order of eye testing?

a)

Both eyes together only

b)

Each eye is tested individually, then both together

c)

Right eye only

d)

Left eye only

18.

How many color plates are used in the Ishihara test book described?

a)

7 plates

b)

9 plates

c)

11 plates

d)

15 plates

19.

In the Ishihara protocol , missing how many plates suggests a color deficiency?

a)

2 or more plates

b)

3 or more plates

c)

4 or more plates

d)

6 or more plates

20.

In hearing screenings for ambulatory care, which device is used to detect hearing loss?

a)

Audiometer

b)

Stethoscope

c)

Otoscope

d)

Sphygmomanometer

21.

Sound amplitude in hearing tests is measured in which unit?

a)

Decibels (dB)

b)

Hertz (Hz)

c)

Lumens

d)

Pascals

22.

Sound frequency in hearing tests is measured in which unit?

a)

Hertz (Hz)

b)

Decibels (dB)

c)

Watts

d)

Candela

23.

Hearing screening tests measure hearing acuity at different what?

a)

Frequencies

b)

Blood pressures

c)

Temperatures

d)

Wavelengths of visible light

24.

Why do both amplitude and frequency matter in hearing?

a)

Amplitude corresponds to loudness and frequency corresponds to pitch

b)

Only amplitude determines what we hear; frequency is irrelevant

c)

Frequency determines loudness while amplitude determines pitch

d)

Neither amplitude nor frequency affects hearing perception

25.

Tympanometry testing primarily records which aspect of ear function?

a)

Movement of the tympanic membrane (eardrum)

b)

Electrical activity of the cochlea

c)

Bone conduction through the mastoid

d)

Cerumen (earwax) accumulation

26.

Tympanometry is used to detect which condition in the middle ear?

a)

Increased pressure

b)

Decreased blood flow

c)

Damage to taste receptors

d)

Sinus congestion

27.

During tympanometry, which device component changes air pressure to measure eardrum movement?

a)

A small earbud

b)

Over-the-ear headphones

c)

A tuning fork

d)

An external microphone

28.

Tympanometry is valuable for detecting which problems in the middle ear?

a)

Fluid and infections

b)

Nasal polyps

c)

Tooth decay

d)

Visual acuity issues

29.

On a tympanometry graph, what does a normal result typically show?

a)

A peak

b)

A flat line

c)

Random noise

d)

Multiple troughs only

30.

On a tympanometry graph, what does an abnormal result often show?

a)

A flat line

b)

A sharp peak

c)

A sinusoidal pattern at multiple frequencies

d)

A rising staircase

31.

In an audiometry testing procedure, the patient does what while tones are presented?

a)

Wears headphones and listens to various tones

b)

Reads a passage silently

c)

Performs balance exercises

d)

Chews to equalize pressure

32.

In audiometry, how does the patient indicate when tones are heard? Select all that apply.

a)

Pushes a button

b)

Raises a hand

c)

Writes a sentence

d)

Remains silent until prompted

33.

Audiometry results are documented in which units? Select all that apply.

a)

Decibels

b)

Hertz

c)

Lumens

d)

Meters per second

34.

According to the procedure, what threshold defines normal adult hearing?

a)

Below 25 decibels

b)

Below 15 decibels

c)

Above 40 decibels

d)

Exactly 30 decibels

35.

According to the procedure, what threshold defines normal child hearing?

a)

Below 15 decibels

b)

Below 25 decibels

c)

Above 40 decibels

d)

Exactly 30 decibels

36.

How long before testing should patients discontinue antihistamines?

a)

1 day

b)

3 days

c)

5 days

d)

Immediately before the test

37.

What potential testing outcome can antihistamines cause by blocking the histamine response?

a)

False-positive results

b)

False-negative results

c)

Exaggerated wheal formation

d)

Immediate anaphylaxis

38.

In the scratch test procedure, where is this test usually performed?

a)

Lower leg

b)

Forearm or upper back

c)

Abdomen

d)

Scalp

39.

During a scratch test, what should be observed within the first 15 minutes?

a)

Bruising

b)

Wheal formation

c)

Bleeding

d)

Rash resolving

40.

In a scratch test, what does a larger wheal indicate?

a)

Less significant allergy

b)

More significant allergy

c)

Skin infection

d)

Medication side effect

41.

According to the scratch test procedure, what may be the next step after notable wheal reactions?

a)

Patch testing

b)

Further intradermal testing

c)

Serum IgG testing only

d)

No further testing

42.

In intradermal allergy testing, how is the diluted allergen administered?

a)

Applied topically with a patch

b)

Injected intradermally into the skin

c)

Given orally

d)

Inhaled through a nebulizer

43.

During intradermal testing, what finding confirms the allergen?

a)

Erythema alone without firmness

b)

Inflammation with induration (raised, hard area)

c)

Dryness of the skin

d)

Pruritus without swelling

44.

Identify the procedure depicted by the sequence labeled "Drop of allergen," "Small skin prick," and "Skin reaction."

a)

Scratch (prick) test

b)

Intradermal injection test

c)

Patch test

d)

Spirometry

45.

The image of a syringe creating a raised bleb on the skin most closely represents which testing method?

a)

Oral challenge test

b)

Intradermal allergy test

c)

Scratch (prick) test

d)

Patch test

46.

On the forearm image with a grid and numbered sites, what is the clinical significance of larger wheals compared with smaller wheals?

a)

They indicate less significant allergies

b)

They indicate more significant allergies

c)

They always represent infection

d)

They show medication absorption

47.

What does Spirometry assess?

a)

An invasive test requiring surgical access

b)

test measuring lung function capability

c)

A laboratory blood test for oxygen saturation

d)

A radiographic imaging test of the thorax

48.

What is measured about airflow during testing?

a)

Only the chemical composition of exhaled air

b)

How fast and how much air moves in and out of the lungs

c)

Only the temperature change during exhalation

d)

The blood pH change during breathing

49.

Before spirometry, which preparation guideline is correct regarding meals?

a)

Eat a large meal immediately before the test

b)

No large meals 2 hours before the test

c)

Fast for 24 hours before the test

d)

Only liquid diet on the test day

50.

Which statement about smoking prior to spirometry is correct?

a)

Smoking is allowed without restriction

b)

No smoking 1 hour before the test

c)

Stop smoking 24 hours before the test

d)

Only reduce smoking frequency

51.

What is the recommended timing for discontinuing bronchodilators or inhalers before spirometry?

a)

Discontinue 30 minutes before the test

b)

Continue them during the test

c)

Discontinue 6 hours before the test

d)

Discontinue 24 hours after the test

52.

Which clothing advice is given for spirometry preparation?

a)

Wear tight, restrictive clothing

b)

Wear loose, nonrestrictive clothing

c)

Wear heavy layered clothing

d)

Wear specialized athletic gear

53.

During spirometry testing, which patient positioning is recommended?

a)

Supine with head lowered

b)

Prone with arms raised

c)

Upright sitting or standing position

d)

Lateral decubitus with knees flexed

54.

During the spirometry maneuver, which action about breathing route is specified?

a)

Breathe through the nose with mouth closed

b)

Breathe through the mouth with lips pursed around the mouthpiece

c)

Alternate nose and mouth breathing

d)

Hold breath without exhaling

55.

What accessory is applied to prevent nose-breathing during spirometry?

a)

Face shield

b)

Nose clip

c)

Chin strap

d)

Ear plugs

56.

Which posture adjustment is recommended to reduce resistance during spirometry?

a)

Lower the chin and flex the neck

b)

Slightly lift the chin and extend the neck

c)

Rotate the head to the side

d)

Tuck the chin to the chest tightly

57.

Which instruction is given to the patient during spirometry effort?

a)

Take a shallow breath and exhale slowly

b)

Take deepest breath possible, seal lips, blow as hard and fast as you can

c)

Cough briefly before exhaling

d)

Hum while exhaling to steady airflow

58.

How many acceptable attempts should be completed during spirometry testing?

a)

One attempt

b)

Two acceptable attempts

c)

Three acceptable attempts

d)

Five acceptable attempts

59.

Peak flow rate testing is described as most helpful for which patient groups?

a)

Patients with anemia and hypothyroidism

b)

Asthma and COPD patients

c)

Patients with peptic ulcer disease

d)

Patients with renal calculi

60.

What does peak flow rate testing measure to indicate airflow effectiveness?

a)

Forced inspiratory volume

b)

Forced expiratory volume

c)

Total lung capacity

d)

Arterial oxygen saturation

61.

In peak flow rate testing, a rating of 80%80\% or better indicates what status?

a)

Severely uncontrolled condition

b)

Well-controlled condition

c)

Device malfunction

d)

Need for immediate hospitalization

62.

Where should the marker be positioned at the start of a peak flow measurement?

a)

At the middle of the scale

b)

At the top of the scale

c)

At the bottom of the scale

d)

Aligned with the previous reading

63.

Which posture and breath preparation are advised before blowing into a peak flow meter?

a)

Lie down and hold breath briefly

b)

Stand or sit upright and take a deep breath

c)

Lean forward and breathe shallowly

d)

Squat and exhale first

64.

How should air be exhaled into the peak flow meter mouthpiece?

a)

Gently, with minimal force

b)

Forcefully into the mouthpiece with a secure seal

c)

Slowly over several minutes

d)

Through the nose with lips relaxed

65.

After a peak flow attempt, what should be recorded and how many times should the process be repeated?

a)

Record the time taken; do not repeat

b)

Record the number where the marker stops; repeat 2–3 times

c)

Record ambient temperature; repeat once

d)

Record body position; repeat until fatigue