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Worksheets

MBI

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In RNA, nucleotides are attached with which bonds?

a)

H-bonds

b)

Phosphodiester bonds

c)

Ionic bonds

d)

Salt linkages

2.

RNA contains which of the following base in place of Thymine of DNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Cytosine

3.

Identify the following structure:

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Uracil

d)

Thymine

4.

Substance common in DNA and RNA is:

a)

Hexose sugar

b)

Histamine

c)

Thymine

d)

Phosphate group

5.

Which of the following sugar is present in nucleic acids?

a)

Pentose

b)

Trioses

c)

Tetroses

d)

Hexoses

6.

Which type of charge is present on DNA?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Depends on the types of DNA

7.

Wilkins X-ray diffraction showed the diameter of the DNA helix is:

a)

10 Å

b)

20 Å

c)

30 Å

d)

40 Å

8.

How many bonds are present between Adenine and Thymine in double-stranded DNA of humans?

a)

Two hydrogen bonds

b)

Three hydrogen bonds

c)

Five hydrogen bonds

d)

Four hydrogen bonds

9.

DNA is acidic due to:

a)

Sugar

b)

Purine

c)

Phosphoric acid

d)

Pyrimidine

10.

Which one of the following nitrogen bases is not found in DNA?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Uracil

d)

Adenine

11.

Angle present between two steps of DNA is:

a)

94°

b)

34°

c)

84°

d)

36°

12.

The diameter of DNA double helix is:

a)

3.4 Å

b)

34 Å

c)

20 Å

d)

16 Å

13.

A single stranded DNA is present in:

a)

TMV

b)

Salmonella

c)

Φ x 174

d)

Bacteria

14.

What is the nature of the two strands of a DNA duplex?

a)

Identical & Complimentary

b)

Antiparallel & complimentary

c)

Dissimilar & non-complimentary

d)

Antiparallel & non-complimentary

15.

Pyrimidine base that has conferred additional stability to DNA over RNA is:

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Thymine

16.

Prokaryotic DNA is:

a)

Double stranded circular

b)

Single stranded circular

c)

Double stranded linear

d)

Double stranded RNA as nucleic acid

17.

Choose the correct statement:

a)

B DNA shows clockwise twisting

b)

Z DNA shows clockwise twisting

c)

B DNA helix length is 3.4Å

d)

B DNA shows anti-clockwise twisting

18.

Chargaff's rule represents:

a)

Purines ≠ Pyrimidines

b)

A + G = T + C

c)

A + U = G + C

d)

A + T / G + C = Constant

19.

In the DNA of an animal, percentage of Adenine is 30 then percentage of Guanine will be:

a)

40

b)

30

c)

20

d)

70

20.

In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are:

a)

G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%

b)

G 17%, A 33%, T 33%

c)

G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%

d)

G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

21.

A typical nucleosome contains:

a)

100 bp of DNA helix

b)

200 bp of DNA helix

c)

300 bp of DNA helix

d)

480 bp of DNA helix

22.

Total number of base pairs present in *Escherichia coli* is:

a)

4.6 x 10⁶

b)

4.6 x 10⁵

c)

4.5 x 10⁶

d)

4.4 x 10⁵

23.

Distance between two nucleotide pairs of DNA is:

a)

0.34 nm

b)

34 Å

c)

3.4 m

d)

34 nm

24.

The thread-like stained structure present in the nucleus is known as:

a)

Mesosome

b)

Chromatin

c)

Chromatid

d)

Chromosome

25.

Histone proteins are rich in:

a)

Histidine and arginine

b)

Histidine and lysine

c)

Histidine, arginine, and lysine

d)

Arginine and lysine

26.

What would be the sequence of mRNA from 3’ AGCT 5’ DNA strand?

a)

5’ TACA 3’

b)

5’ UCGA 3’

c)

5’ TCGA 3’

d)

5’ AGUC 3’

27.

Which of the following rRNA in bacteria acts as a ribozyme as well as structural RNA?

a)

23S rRNA

b)

18S rRNA

c)

5.8S rRNA

d)

5S rRNA

28.

Which of the following RNA is the most abundant in an animal cell?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

miRNA

d)

rRNA

29.

Anticodon is present in

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

mRNA

30.

Choose the correct statement:

a)

mRNA form structure of ribosome

b)

mRNA has message for protein synthesis

c)

tRNA form structure of ribosome

d)

tRNA is double stranded

31.

Reverse transcription is discovered by:

a)

Garrod

b)

Temin and Baltimore

c)

Hugo de Vries

d)

Crick

32.

DNA is synthesized from RNA with the help of which enzyme?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

DNA polymerase-1

c)

DNA polymerase-2

d)

Reverse transcriptase

33.

Wobble hypothesis is given by:

a)

Crick

b)

Temin

c)

Baltimore

d)

Hugo de Vries

34.

Wobbling normally occurs for:

a)

Third nucleotide of codon

b)

Second nucleotide of codon

c)

First nucleotide of codon

d)

Position not fixed

35.

Polycistronic mRNA is present in:

a)

Prokaryotes

b)

Eukaryotes

c)

Both (1) and (2)

d)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

36.

In Griffith experiment which of the following cells of pneumococci were isolated from dead mice?

a)

Live rough cells

b)

Dead rough cells

c)

Live smooth cells

d)

Dead smooth cells

37.

Choose the correct statement:

a)

Capsulated bacteria are virulent and cause pneumonia

b)

Capsulated bacteria are non-virulent and not cause pneumonia

c)

Capsulated bacteria are non-virulent and cause pneumonia

d)

Non-capsulated bacteria are virulent and cause pneumonia

38.

Which of the following strain is non-virulent?

a)

Capsulated – S-III

b)

Non-capsulated – R-II

c)

Both are virulent

d)

None

39.

Which of the following strains were used by Griffith?

a)

S-III and R-II

b)

S-IV and R-IV

c)

S-II and R-III

d)

S-III and R-I

40.

Biochemical nature of genetic material was not defined from:

a)

Transforming principle

b)

Hershey and Chase experiment

c)

Avery, Macleod and McCarty

d)

None of the above

41.

The final proof as DNA is genetic material came from the experiment of -

a)

Griffith

b)

Hershey and Chase

c)

Avery and Macleod

d)

McCarty

42.

In the Hershey and Chase experiment, protein tagging was done by -

a)

Radioactive sulphur

b)

Radioactive phosphorus

c)

Radioactive potassium chloride

d)

Radioactive sodium chloride

43.

Hershey and Chase experiment was based on the principle of -

a)

Transformation

b)

Translation

c)

Transduction

d)

Transcription

44.

Choose the correct option -

a)

DNA of the phage enters in the bacterium.

b)

Protein of the phage enters in the bacterium.

c)

Complete phage enters in the bacterium.

d)

Phage never infected bacterium.

45.

Bacteria phages are -

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Prions

d)

Viroids

46.

Which of the following statement is correct regarding Genetic material?

a)

DNA is highly reactive

b)

RNA is not catalytic

c)

RNA cannot be easily degraded

d)

DNA is a better genetic material than RNA

47.

RNA mutates as compared to DNA:

a)

Faster rate

b)

Slower rate

c)

Moderate rate

d)

Depending on the medium

48.

Which of the following is best for storage of genetic information?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipid

49.

RNA is less stable genetic material as compared to DNA. The reason for this is:

a)

In RNA, 2' position has -OH group while DNA does not

b)

RNA is also known to be catalytic

c)

RNA has uracil while DNA has thymine

d)

All of the above

50.

Which of the following criterion cannot be fulfilled by protein?

a)

Formation of polypeptide chains

b)

Generation of its replica

c)

Acts as an enzyme

d)

Non-covalent bonds are present between amino acids

51.

Select an incorrect statement regarding RNA molecule:

a)

It has highly reactive 2'-OH group

b)

It shows higher rate of mutation than DNA

c)

It is genetic material in some viruses

d)

It follows Chargaff’s rule

52.

Which of the following is less stable genetic material?

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Protein

d)

Carbohydrate

53.

RNA world hypothesis suggests that life on earth:

a)

Begin with a simple RNA molecule

b)

Begin with a simple DNA molecule

c)

Begin with a simple protein molecule

d)

Begin with a simple carbohydrate molecule

54.

Which of the following is correct statement?

a)

RNA is better material for transmission of genetic information

b)

Protein is better material for transmission of genetic information

c)

DNA is better material for transmission of genetic information

d)

Enzymes is better material for transmission of genetic information

55.

Which of the following enzyme is non-proteinaceous in nature?

a)

Deoxy ribose nuclease

b)

Ligases

c)

Ribozymes

d)

Lysozyme

56.

Which of the following is true regarding RNA world?

a)

Protein was first genetic materials

b)

RNA was first genetic material

c)

DNA was first genetic material

d)

Carbohydrate was first genetic material

57.

Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Neurospora

c)

Drosophila

d)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

58.

In Eukaryotes, DNA replication takes place in:

a)

S-phase

b)

A-phase

c)

G₁-phase

d)

G₂-phase

59.

Which one of the following radio tracer was used by Taylor?

a)

H³

b)

N¹⁵

c)

Cu¹⁵

d)

CsCl

60.

Newly synthesized DNA molecules contain:

a)

Both new strands

b)

Both old strands

c)

One new and one old strand

d)

Only one strand

61.

Process used by Meselson and Stahl for studying semiconservative replication of DNA was:

a)

Chromatography

b)

Density gradient centrifugation

c)

Normal centrifugation

d)

Southern blotting

62.

The strand of DNA, which does not code for anything is referred to as:

a)

Template strand

b)

Antisense strand

c)

Coding strand

d)

Noncoding strand

63.

During DNA replication, discontinuously synthesized fragments are later joined by the enzyme:

a)

Ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA primer

d)

Primase

64.

Replication fork is:

a)

Large opening of the DNA helix

b)

Small opening of the DNA helix

c)

Tightly coiled part of DNA helix

d)

Loosely coiled part of DNA helix

65.

The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization in:

a)

3' → 5' direction

b)

5' → 3' direction

c)

Depend on the nature of template strand

d)

Both (1) & (2)

66.

Main enzyme of DNA replication is:

a)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

b)

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

c)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

d)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

67.

In the process of replication, deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate:

a)

Acts as substrate

b)

Provides energy for polymerization reaction

c)

Acts as an enzyme

d)

Both (1) & (2)

68.

The process by which DNA of the nucleus passes genetic information to mRNA is called:

a)

Transcription

b)

Translocation

c)

Translation

d)

Transportation

69.

The enzyme responsible for transcription is:

a)

DNA polymerase-I

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Reverse transcriptase

d)

DNA polymerase-III

70.

Choose the odd one:

a)

RNA polymerase I – 28s rRNA, 18s rRNA, 5.8s rRNA

b)

RNA polymerase II – hnRNA

c)

RNA polymerase I – 28s rRNA, 5s rRNA, 18s rRNA, 5.8s rRNA

d)

RNA polymerase III – tRNA, 5s rRNA

71.

Which of the following subunits of RNA polymerase is required for initiation of transcription?

a)

α (alpha)

b)

σ (sigma)

c)

ω (omega)

d)

β (beta)

72.

Sigma factor is a component of:

a)

DNA ligase holoenzyme

b)

DNA polymerase holoenzyme

c)

Endonuclease holoenzyme

d)

RNA polymerase holoenzyme

73.

The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into Y is termed as Z. What is Y and Z?

a)

Transcription, RNA

b)

RNA, Transcription

c)

DNA, Translation

d)

Replication, RNA

74.

During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called:

a)

Promoter

b)

Regulator

c)

Receptor

d)

Enhancer

75.

Which factor helps RNA polymerase enzyme to recognize the terminator site?

a)

Rho factor

b)

Beta factor

c)

Sigma factor

d)

Both (1) and (3)

76.

Hogness box is present in:

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

E. coli

d)

Bacteria

77.

What is the sequence of the Pribnow box?

a)

TATAAT

b)

TATATAT

c)

TATAAAA

d)

TTTTATA

78.

Non-functional part of DNA is known as:

a)

Intron

b)

Exon

c)

hnRNA

d)

Cistron

79.

Functional part of DNA is known as:

a)

Intron

b)

Exon

c)

hnRNA

d)

Cistron

80.

Which of the following is added in poly A tail at 3' end during post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

7 Methyl guanosine

b)

5 Methyl uracil

c)

Guanine

d)

Adenylic acid

81.

Mostly prokaryotic genes are an example of:

a)

Non-split genes

b)

Split genes

c)

Non-functional genes

d)

Functional genes

82.

Mostly eukaryotic genes are an example of:

a)

Non-split genes

b)

Split genes

c)

Non-functional genes

d)

Functional genes

83.

Which one of the following triplet codes is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as 'start' or 'stop' codon?

a)

UCG – Start

b)

UUU – Stop

c)

UGU – Leusine

d)

UAC – Tyrosine

84.

Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the:

a)

First member of a codon

b)

Second member of a codon

c)

Entire codon

d)

Third member of a codon

85.

A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

One

d)

Two

86.

The first codon discovered by Nirenberg and Matthaei was:

a)

CCC

b)

GGG

c)

UUU

d)

AAA

87.

Out of 64 codons, only 61 code for the 20 different amino acids. This character of genetic code is called:

a)

Degeneracy

b)

Unambiguous nature

c)

Commaless

d)

Overlapping

88.

One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by:

a)

Beadle and Tatum

b)

Jacob and Monod

c)

Lederberg

d)

Watson and Crick

89.

The "cri-du-chat" syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving:

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

90.

A class of mutation induced by addition or deletion of a nucleotide is called:

a)

Missense

b)

Non-sense

c)

Substitution

d)

Frame shift

91.

Chromosome with genes abcdefg becoming abedcfg, this type of mutation is known as:

a)

Duplication

b)

Deletion

c)

Translocation

d)

Inversion

92.

Gene mutation is:

a)

Mutation in the number of chromosomes

b)

Mutation in the ploidy of chromosomes

c)

Mutation in the chromosomes structure

d)

Change in the sequence of nitrogenous bases

93.

Chromosome number 2n-1 is an example of:

a)

Trisomy

b)

Euploidy

c)

Polyploidy

d)

Monosomy

94.

Which of the following can be called a mutation?

a)

The halving of the chromosome number at meiosis

b)

The doubling of the chromosome after syngamy

c)

The possession of an additional chromosome

d)

All the above

95.

The function of non-sense codons is:

a)

To release polypeptide chain from tRNA

b)

To form an unspecified amino acid

c)

To terminate the message of a gene-controlled protein synthesis

d)

To convert a sense DNA into non-sense DNA

96.

Which one of the following organelles is attached with mRNA during protein synthesis?

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Lysosome

97.

Translation refers to the process of:

a)

Polymerisation of nitrogen bases

b)

Polymerisation of nucleotides

c)

Polymerisation of nucleosides

d)

Polymerisation of amino acids

98.

Which one of the following statements is true for protein synthesis (translation)?

a)

Amino acids are directly recognized by mRNA

b)

The third base of the codon is less specific

c)

Only one codon codes for an amino acid

d)

Every tRNA molecule has more than one amino acid attachment site

99.

Which codon gives signal for the start of polypeptide (protein) chain synthesis?

a)

AUG

b)

UGA

c)

GUA

d)

UAG

100.

In protein synthesis, amino acid sequence is decided by the sequence of:

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

cDNA

d)

rRNA

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