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Investment Fundamentals Worksheet

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the fundamental purpose of investing as described in the notes?

a)

To avoid any risk

b)

To use funds to earn income or capital appreciation

c)

To spend cash immediately

d)

To avoid future benefits

2.

In finance, an investment primarily refers to the purchase of:

a)

A) A consumption good

b)

B) A financial product or other valuable item with expectation of future returns

c)

C) A non-liquid asset only

d)

D) A liability to be paid later

3.

Which two factors are identified as fundamental aspects of investment?

a)

Dividend yield and liquidity

b)

Time and risk

c)

Price and volume

d)

Cost and tax

4.

The primary distinction between Investment and Speculation is mainly based on:

a)

The color of the stock

b)

Time horizon and level of risk

c)

The country of origin

d)

The number of shareholders

5.

Which feature is NOT listed as essential for an investment decision?

a)

Safety

b)

Liquidity

c)

Marketability

d)

Instant gain

6.

Liquidity in an investment means:

a)

High risk

b)

Ability to quickly sell for cash with minimal loss

7.

What type of investment can be traded in markets and is described as variable income security?

a)

Government deposits

b)

Equity shares

c)

Bank fixed deposits

d)

Real estate

8.

Which of the following is NOT an example of Fixed Income Securities listed in the notes?

a)

A) Preference shares

b)

B) Debentures

c)

C) Bonds

d)

D) Equity shares

9.

Government securities are considered:

a)

Highly risky

b)

Risk-free

c)

Not tradable

d)

Only for foreign investors

10.

Money market securities are primarily designed to:

a)

Provide long-term capital growth

b)

Increase liquidity with short-term instruments

c)

Offer guaranteed returns at 20% annually

d)

Fund escrow services

11.

Which instrument is issued by banks offering interest in exchange for keeping a lump-sum deposit?

a)

Treasury bill

b)

Certificate of Deposit (CD)

c)

Debenture

12.

Non-Negotiable Securities cannot be traded in financial markets. Which of the following is an example of such a non-negotiable instrument?

a)

Bank deposits

b)

Treasury bills

c)

Corporate bonds

d)

Mutual funds units

13.

Mutual funds are described as pools of money invested in:

a)

Only cash

b)

Stocks, bonds, and short-term debt

c)

Real estate only

d)

Commodities exclusively

14.

An Open-Ended mutual fund is characterized by:

a)

A) A fixed number of shares and a lock-in

b)

B) No fixed period or constraint on units traded

c)

C) Being non-transparent to investors

d)

D) Only investing in money market instruments

15.

A Closed-Ended mutual fund:

a)

Can issue new shares freely

b)

Has a fixed number of shares and trades on a stock exchange

c)

Is always liquid at NAV

d)

Never trades on an exchange

16.

In investment environments, higher returns are associated with:

a)

Lower risk

b)

Higher risk

c)

No risk

d)

Guaranteed returns

17.

Which source is NOT listed as a source of financial information for security analysis?

a)

World affairs

b)

Domestic cultural trends

c)

Company information

d)

Security price quotations

18.

CAPM stands for:

a)

Capital Asset Pricing Model

b)

Corporate Asset Profit Metric

c)

Cash Asset Pricing Method

d)

Cost Allocation Pricing Measurement

19.

CAPM uses which three inputs to estimate expected return?

a)

Dividend yield, book value, and market cap

b)

Risk-free rate, beta, and market risk premium

c)

Inflation, tax rate, and unemployment

d)

Liquidity, safety, and marketability

20.

In CAPM, beta measures:

a)

Systematic risk of the asset

b)

Unsystematic risk of the asset

c)

The asset's tax rate

d)

The asset's liquidity

21.

Systematic risk is also known as:

a)

Diversifiable risk

b)

Unsystematic risk

c)

Market risk

d)

Company-specific risk

22.

Which type of risk can be mitigated by diversification?

a)

Systematic risk

b)

Market risk

23.

Standard deviation in the notes is used as a measure of:

a)

Expected return

b)

Risk/dispersion of returns

c)

Tax efficiency

d)

Liquidity

24.

The beta of a stock with beta 1.0 compared to the market indicates:

a)

Zero risk

b)

Higher volatility than the market

c)

The same systematic risk as the market

d)

No correlation with market

25.

If a bond’s price moves inversely with interest rates, when rates rise:

a)

A) Bond prices rise

b)

B) Bond prices fall

c)

C) Bond prices stay the same

d)

D) Only convertible bonds are affected

26.

Which of the following is NOT a type of bond risk listed?

a)

Credit risk

b)

Inflation risk

c)

Interest rate risk

d)

Liquidity risk

27.

Yield to Maturity (YTM) is the discount rate that:

a)

Equates the present value of a bond’s cash flows to its current price

b)

Is always equal to the coupon rate

c)

Is never used in practice

d)

Applies only to zero-coupon bonds

28.

Yield to Call (YTC) refers to the return if a bond is held until:

a)

Maturity

b)

Call date

c)

Settlement date

d)

The next coupon date

29.

A perpetuity bond pays:

a)

Only at maturity

b)

Fixed periodic interest forever with no maturity

c)

Increasing payments every year

d)

A lump sum at year 10

30.

In semi-annual bond valuation, the coupon and discount rates are adjusted by:

a)

Doubling the rates

b)

Halving the rates

c)

Keeping the rates the same

d)

Using square roots

31.

The present value formula PV = Sum of discounted cash flows applies to:

a)

Equities only

b)

Bonds/Debentures

c)

Real estate only

d)

None of the above

32.

Which of the following is a type of mutual fund objective?

a)

Microcap only

b)

Growth, Income, Balanced, Money Market

c)

Real estate only

d)

Derivative-only

33.

A fund that aims to provide capital appreciation and invests primarily in equities is called:

a)

Growth scheme

b)

Income scheme

34.

The term “intrinsic value” in security analysis is best described as:

a)

The market price

b)

The present value of all future cash flows

c)

The par value of a stock

d)

The accountant’s book value

35.

The formula for Return on Investment (ROI) is generally a ratio of:

a)

Net profit to total equity

b)

Gain from investment to cost of investment

c)

Dividend yield to share price

d)

Cash flow to debt

36.

What does “risk premium” in CAPM refer to?

a)

Excess return of the market over the risk-free rate

b)

The coupon rate of bonds

c)

The dividend yield

d)

The inflation rate

37.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a source of information for security analysis?

a)

World affairs

b)

Industry information

c)

Celebrity endorsements

d)

Company information

38.

In the context of bonds, what is “yield” primarily a measure of?

a)

Tax impact

b)

Return on capital invested

c)

Market volatility

d)

Liquidity risk

39.

The concept of "inflation risk" for bonds refers to:

a)

Risk that prices rise but coupons stay fixed

b)

Purchasing power risk as inflation rises

c)

Risk of currency depreciation

d)

Risk of early redemption

40.

In a balanced mutual fund, investments are spread across:

a)

Only cash

b)

Equities and debt instruments

c)

Only derivatives

d)

Commodities only

41.

A "tax-saving scheme" mutual fund typically offers:

a)

Higher leakage of fees

b)

Tax rebates or exemptions

c)

No diversification

d)

Guaranteed returns

42.

What is the primary objective of setting an investment policy in the investment management process?

a)

To pick individual stocks randomly

b)

To define objectives, risk tolerance, and constraints

c)

To maximize tax payments

d)

To minimize monitoring

43.

Which type of risk is described as the risk inherent to the entire market or a market segment?

a)

Unsystematic risk

b)

Systematic risk

c)

Company-specific risk

d)

Liquidity risk

44.

48. The term "call risk" is associated with:

a)

Callable bonds

b)

Equity shares

c)

Fixed deposits

d)

Mutual funds

45.

Which of the following describes the possibility that a bond will be called before maturity?

a)

Possibility that a bond will be called before maturity

b)

Risk of call center failures

c)

Risks of callable options in equities

d)

Risk from currency calls

46.

The “holding period return” (HPR) is the return earned over:

a)

The entire life of the investment

b)

The holding period only

c)

Only the capital gain portion

d)

Only the dividend portion

47.

For semi-annual bond payments, the half-yearly discount rate used is:

a)

Half of the annual discount rate

b)

Twice the annual discount rate

c)

The same as the annual rate

d)

The square root of the annual rate

48.

What is the primary goal of fundamental analysis?

a)

To identify short-term price movements

b)

To determine a security’s intrinsic value through financial data

c)

To speculate based on rumors

d)

To time the market perfectly

49.

Which financial statement provides a snapshot of a company's assets, liabilities, and shareholders’ equity at a point in time?

a)

Income statement

b)

Balance sheet

c)

Cash flow statement

d)

Statement of changes in equity

50.

The formula for calculating Net Profit Margin is:

a)

Net Income / Revenue

b)

Revenue / Net Income

c)

Gross Profit / Revenue

d)

Operating Income / Revenue

51.

A high current ratio suggests:

(a)  

52.

Which of the following is a sign of a financially healthy company?

a)

Strong liquidity

b)

High profitability

c)

Low debt

53.

Price-to-Earnings (P/E) ratio is most directly used to assess:

a)

Liquidity

b)

Valuation relative to earnings

c)

Debt levels

d)

Growth rate

54.

Which of the following is a measure of a company's operating efficiency?

a)

Return on Equity (ROE)

b)

Debt-to-Equity Ratio

c)

Interest Coverage Ratio

d)

Gross Margin

55.

In a Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) model, the present value of future cash flows is discounted at:

a)

The inflation rate

b)

The cost of capital (discount rate)

c)

The tax rate

d)

The growth rate

56.

Which factor is NOT typically considered in industry analysis?

a)

Competitive structure

b)

Regulatory environment

c)

Personal preferences of the analyst

d)

Growth potential

57.

A stock with high growth potential but low current profitability is often referred to as:

a)

Value stock

b)

Growth stock

c)

Defensive stock

d)

Income stock

58.

In technical analysis, a bullish breakout occurs when price moves:

a)

Below a support level

b)

Above a resistance level

c)

Within a trading range

d)

On high volume only

59.

Moving Averages help traders identify:

a)

Fundamental value

b)

Trend direction and potential support/resistance

60.

Which of the following is a measure of a company's size in the stock market?

a)

Earnings per share

b)

Market capitalization

c)

Dividend policy

d)

Market capitalization

61.

Volume confirmation in chart patterns usually suggests:

a)

Weaker conviction

b)

Stronger conviction behind a move

c)

Irrelevant to price action

d)

Only for options trading

62.

In the context of risk, diversification primarily reduces:

a)

Systematic risk

b)

Unsystematic risk

c)

Market risk

d)

Inflation risk

63.

The debt-to-equity ratio measures:

a)

Liquidity

b)

Leverage

c)

Profitability

d)

Asset turnover

64.

Which valuation method is most sensitive to changes in growth assumptions?

a)

P/E multiple

b)

DCF (Discounted Cash Flow)

c)

Asset-based valuation

d)

Dividend discount model

65.

A stock with a high dividend yield is typically classified as:

a)

Growth stock

b)

Income stock

c)

Cyclical stock

d)

Momentum stock

66.

The term “fair value” in valuation means:

a)

Market price

b)

Intrinsic value aligned with fundamentals

c)

Historical cost

d)

Par value

67.

When analyzing an income statement, which line item directly affects net income the most?

a)

Revenue

b)

Interest expense

c)

Depreciation

68.

The formula for Return on Equity (ROE) is:

a)

Net Income / Total Assets

b)

Net Income / Shareholders' Equity

c)

Revenue / Equity

d)

Net Income / Liabilities

69.

In a balance sheet, which side do assets appear on?

a)

Left side

b)

Right side

c)

Top only

d)

They are not shown in a standard layout

70.

In fundamental analysis, which ratio helps assess a company’s profitability relative to sales?

a)

Net Profit Margin

b)

Debt-to-Equity

c)

Current Ratio

d)

Asset Turnover

71.

Which of the following best describes a "fair value" estimate by fundamental analysis?

a)

The current market price

b)

An intrinsic value derived from discounted cash flows or comparable multiples

c)

The price at which the stock last traded

d)

The par value of the stock

72.

Which technical concept describes the tendency of prices to move in the same direction for a period?

a)

Random walk

b)

Trend

c)

Mean reversion

d)

Range trading

73.

In ratio analysis, what does the Quick Ratio measure?

a)

Long-term solvency

b)

Short-term liquidity excluding inventory

c)

Asset efficiency

d)

Profitability

74.

In fundamental analysis, which factor is least influenced by market sentiment?

a)

Cash flow stability

b)

Short-term price movements

c)

Earnings quality

d)

Asset base

75.

What is the primary purpose of a cash flow statement?

a)

To show net income

b)

To show sources and uses of cash over a period

c)

To show asset depreciation

d)

To show shareholder equity changes

76.

In risk management, which type of risk cannot be eliminated by diversification?

a)

Unsystematic risk

b)

Systematic risk

c)

Credit risk

d)

Liquidity risk