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PSM Quiz

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In UNICEF’s GOBI campaign, the letter O stands for which of the following?

a)

oral contraceptives

b)

oral rehydration therapy

c)

obesity

d)

occupational hazards

2.

Quarantine was originally introduced as a protection against which of the following diseases?

a)

plague

b)

Tb

c)

AIDS

d)

Malaria

3.

Which of the following is not included among the tropical diseases targeted for research and training by WHO?

a)

A) Trypanosomiasis

b)

B) Filariasis

c)

C) Schistosomiasis

d)

D) Onchocerciasis

4.

The term Emporiatrics refers to the study of:

a)

occupational disease

b)

air pollution

c)

environmental factors

d)

health of travellers

5.

The Planning cycle has several steps. Which of the following sequences is correct?A:Monitoring and evaluation B. Programming and implementation C. Assessment of resources D. Analysis of existing health situation

a)

ABCD

b)

DCBA

c)

DBCA

d)

CDBA

6.

A public health officer is planning to implement a new vaccination program in a rural district. Before proceeding, she wants to evaluate whether the expected economic gains—such as reduced treatment costs and increased productivity—justify the investment. Which evaluation method should she use to compare the program’s economic benefits with its costs?

a)

cost benefit analysis

b)

cost effective analysis

c)

cost accounting

d)

network analysis

7.

Time taken for any project is estimated by

a)

work sampling

b)

input output analysis

c)

network analysis

d)

systems analysis

8.

The most important epidemiological tool for assessing disability of child population is:

a)

A) Binet and Simon IQ test

b)

B) Activities of daily living scale

c)

C) PQLI

d)

D) Wings comprehensive handicap’s behaviour and skills (HBS) schedule

9.

The Maslow hierarchy is:

a)

A) Safety, Self-actualization, Belonging, Esteem, Physiological

b)

B) Safety, Physiological, Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization

c)

C) Self-actualization, Physiological, Safety, Belonging, Esteem

d)

D) Physiological, Safety, Belonging, Esteem, Self-actualization

10.

What is the colour coding of bags in hospitals to dispose of human anatomical wastes, such as body parts?

a)

Yellow

b)

Black

c)

Red

d)

Blue

11.

cardiac pacemaker is discarded into:

a)

Yellow bag

b)

red bag

c)

blue cardboard box

d)

puncture proof

12.

An 11-year-old child presented with fever and sore throat. To diagnose the condition, a throat swab was obtained and sent for culture. After collection, the throat swab should be discarded in which colour-coded bag according to biomedical waste management?

a)

blue

b)

red

c)

yellow

d)

white

13.

Arrange the following phases of the disaster cycle in a logical sequence:

a)

A) Disaster impact – mitigation – rehabilitation – response

b)

B) Disaster impact – response – rehabilitation – mitigation

c)

C) Rehabilitation – response – disaster impact – mitigation

d)

D) Response – disaster impact – rehabilitation – mitigation

14.

During a disaster, rapidly classifying the injured based on the severity of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention is part of:

a)

search, rescue and first aid

b)

triage

c)

tagging

d)

disaster mitigation

15.

In drought, a commonly noticed vitamin deficiency is

a)

vitamin A

b)

vitamin C

c)

vitamin D

d)

vitamin K

16.

In Kerala floods, doxycycline is distributed for prophylaxis along with

a)

A) Zinc phosphide

b)

B) Malathion

c)

C) Lindane

d)

D) Paris green

17.

Family, which lags behind the rest of the community, is known as:

a)

communal family

b)

elementary family

c)

problem family

d)

broken family

18.

Scales used for assessing the socioeconomic status of the population are all except:

a)

A) Modified Uday-Pareek Scale

b)

B) Modified Kuppuswamy scale

c)

C) Likert scale

d)

D) BG Prasad scale

19.

Which of the following statements is true about Net Protein Utilisation (NPU)?

a)

A) It is the ratio of energy from protein to total energy intake multiplied by 100

b)

B) It is the ratio of total nitrogen retained to total nitrogen intake multiplied by 100

c)

C) It is the amount of one amino acid per gram of protein divided by the amount of same amino acid per gram of egg protein

d)

D) If the NPU is high the amount of protein requirement is high

20.

Which of the following will cause lathyrism?

a)

kesari dhal

b)

mung dhal

c)

jhunjhuna

d)

gondhli

21.

Epidemic dropsy is caused by:

a)

A) Sanguinarine

b)

B) BOAA

c)

C) Pyruvic acid

d)

D) Mustard oil

22.

A 54-year-old male from Chhattisgarh is having progressive motor paresis and leg stiffness. What history will you inquire about to make a diagnosis?

a)

A) Vaccination history

b)

B) History of fever

c)

C) Past history of similar illness

d)

D) Diet history

23.

A farmer reports that his wife experienced vomiting and allergic reactions after eating bajra with black discolouration. Which is the best way to segregate the black bodies from the bajra?

a)

A) Sieving

b)

B) 10% sodium chloride solution

c)

C) Distilled water

d)

D) 20% sodium chloride solution

24.

In cancer screening, what is the term for the time interval between the earliest point a disease can be detected and the point at which it is usually diagnosed clinically?

a)

lead time

b)

screening time

c)

serial interval

d)

generation time

25.

Example of multiphasic screening is:

a)

A) Chest X-ray for TB in large populations

b)

B) Annual health check-ups

c)

C) Pap smear in women above 40 years

d)

D) Random blood sugar during antenatal visits

26.

A screening test was carried out among 114 people, of which 15 had the disease. 22 people tested positive for the disease among which 14 had the disease. What is the sensitivity of the test?

a)

37%

b)

63%

c)

93%

d)

100%

27.

Which of the following is not a component of the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)?

a)

A) Infant Mortality Rate

b)

B) Life expectancy at one year

c)

C) Maternal Mortality Rate

d)

D) Literacy rate

28.

A 32-year-old public health officer is designing an intervention program to eliminate measles in a rural community with 95% vaccination coverage. Which of the following factors would contribute most to disease elimination in this population?

a)

A) Herd immunity from high vaccine coverage

b)

B) Isolation of symptomatic cases

c)

C) Quarantine of exposed contacts

d)

D) None of the above

29.

In a community health survey, which of the following diseases would most appropriately represent the ‘tip of the iceberg’ phenomenon of disease occurrence?

a)

A) Malaria

b)

B) Measles

c)

C) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)

d)

D) Rabies

30.

A country undergoing rapid industrialization shows a declining trend in infectious diseases but rising rates of cardiovascular diseases and diabetes. This shift in disease patterns is best described as:

a)

A) Paradoxical transition

b)

B) Reversal of transition

c)

C) Epidemiological transition

d)

D) Demographic transition

31.

Which of the following diseases is known as ‘Barometer of Social Welfare’?

a)

A) Tuberculosis

b)

B) Cholera

c)

C) Leprosy

d)

D) Malaria

32.

A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhoea is an example of which epidemic?

a)

A) Common source, single exposure

b)

B) Common source, continuous exposure

c)

C) Slow epidemic

d)

D) Propagated epidemic

33.

All are true regarding a propagated epidemic except:

a)

A) Progresses slowly

b)

B) No secondary waves

c)

C) Person-to-person transmission

d)

D) Spread depends on herd immunity

34.

True about the point source epidemic is:

a)

A) Occurs in more than 1 incubation period

b)

B) Occurs in one incubation period

c)

C) The exposure is continuous

d)

D) The epidemic curve falls very slowly

35.

A 75-year-old lady, Geetha, had Type 2 DM since 1979. She developed diabetic nephropathy in 2004, which finally resulted in acute renal failure on September 1, 2014. She also had a BMI of 32. She developed cardiorespiratory arrest and died on 7 September 2014. Her underlying cause of death and significant condition are respectively:

a)

A) Cardiorespiratory arrest and Type 2 DM

b)

B) Diabetic nephropathy and ARF

c)

C) Acute renal failure and Diabetic Nephropathy

d)

D) Type 2 DM and Obesity

36.

In establishing a causal association, the most essential criterion is:

a)

A) Consistency of the relationship

b)

B) Temporal relationship

c)

C) Duration of relationship

d)

D) Strength of the relationship

37.

Current smokers are at higher risk for developing lung cancer as compared to ex-smokers; the criticality of causality is satisfied here:

a)

A) Temporal relationship

b)

B) Consistency

c)

C) Strength of association

d)

D) Reversibility or reversible association

38.

Which anti-TB drug causes visual disturbances?

a)

INH

b)

rifampicin

c)

ethambutol

d)

streptomycin

39.

Which among the following is the NTEP software used to monitor TB control program?

a)

A) NIKSHAY

b)

B) NISCHAY

c)

C) e-DOTS

d)

D) NIRBHAI

40.

Which of the following can cause contraceptive failure while using OCP in a patient on ATT?

a)

A) INH

b)

B) Rifampicin

c)

C) Streptomycin

d)

D)Ethambutol

41.

A patient diagnosed to have both HIV and TB, which of the drug regimens should be followed?

a)

A) Start ART first followed by ATT

b)

B) Start ATT first followed by ART

c)

C) Start ART and ATT together

d)

none

42.

All of the following are criteria regarding the Bedaquiline Conditional Access Programme under RNTCP except

a)

A) Age below 5 years can be included

b)

B) Postmenopausal female can be included

c)

C) Patients with stable controlled arrhythmia can be included

d)

D) Pregnant females are excluded

43.

The Avahan program is a combined prevention approach for:

a)

A) Malaria

b)

HIV

c)

Tb

d)

Kala azar

44.

Exposure to which of the following fluids will require post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV?

a)

Tear

b)

urine

c)

sweat

d)

menstrual blood

45.

A child presents with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, fever and rash that started behind the ears and spreads to the chest and body. What is the diagnosis?

a)

measles

b)

rubella

c)

dengue

d)

chickenpox

46.

Drug of choice for H1N1 influenza treatment is:

a)

zanamavir

b)

oseltamavir

c)

acyclovir

d)

interferon

47.

Which of the following is true about chickenpox?

a)

A) Caused by HHV-3

b)

B) Scab is infective

c)

C) Chickenpox vaccine is a killed vaccine

d)

D) Secondary attack rate is 70%

48.

Drug of choice for severe and complicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria:

a)

A) Parenteral quinine

b)

B) Parenteral artemisinin

c)

C) Either parenteral quinine or parenteral artemisinin

d)

D) Mefloquine

49.

Vector of Zika Virus:

a)

A) Culex

b)

B) Aedes aegypti

c)

C)Sandfly

d)

D)Louse

50.

The most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria is –

a)

spleen rate

b)

infant parasite rate

c)

parasite density index

d)

slide positivity rate

51.

All of the following diseases are covered under Mission Indradhanush, EXCEPT:

a)

Measles

b)

TB

c)

Tetanus

d)

Meningococcus

52.

Which of the following statements about the pentavalent vaccine is correct?

a)

A) It is given as a 0.5 ml IM injection at 6, 10, and 14 weeks of age

b)

B) The vaccine is administered in the deltoid muscle in infants

c)

C) The pentavalent vaccine is recommended only up to 6 months of age

d)

D) If a child misses the first dose, the vaccine cannot be given later

53.

Besides influenza vaccine, which of the following vaccine-preventable diseases is commonly recommended for immunisation in the elderly

a)

Diptheria

b)

Meningococci

c)

Rota virus infection

d)

Zoster

54.

According to WHO, what is the cut-off for visual acuity for blindness?

a)

A) 6/60

b)

B) 3/60

c)

C) 1/60

d)

D) Perception of light

55.

According to GLOBOCAN 2022 India, which are the most common cancers among men & women respectively?

a)

A) Ca lung, Ca cervix

b)

B) Ca lung, Ca breast

c)

C) Ca oral cavity, Ca endometrium

d)

D) Ca oral cavity, Ca breast

56.

Which of the following is a minor criterion for diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever in low-risk populations?

a)

A) Carditis

b)

B) Erythema marginatum

c)

C) Subcutaneous nodules

d)

D) Polyarthralgia

57.

Which of the following does NOT belong to Step-3 procedure under WHO STEPS approach for NCD surveillance?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

cholestrol

c)

urine sugar

d)

fasting blood sugar

58.

Practical Approach to Lung Health (PAL) includes all except:

a)

A) Tuberculosis

b)

B) Bronchial asthma

c)

C) COPD

d)

D) Carcinoma lung

59.

Oral abortifacient is contraindicated in all the following except:

a)

A) IUD in place

b)

B) Chronic adrenal failure

c)

C) Inherited porphyria

d)

D) Pregnancy of 10 weeks duration

60.

Folic acid dosage for a woman with h/o first child born with some neural tube defect:

a)

1mg

b)

4mg

c)

0.1mg

d)

0.5mg

61.

A 32-year-old male presents with multiple painless, beefy-red, granulomatous ulcers in the inguinal region that bleed easily on contact. The patient reports a recent sexual encounter during travel to a tropical region. He is diagnosed as having Donovanosis. Which of these is the causative organism?

a)

A) T. pallidum

b)

B) Chlamydia trachomatis

c)

C) Herpes simplex

d)

D) Klebsiella granulomatis

62.

For a case presenting with Trachoma in a PHC OPD, SAFE strategy was applied. Which one of the following is not a component of SAFE strategy?

a)

A) Surgery for trichiasis

b)

B) Antibiotics

c)

C) Face cleaning

d)

D) Evaluation of control program

63.

A 2-year-old boy of weight 12 kg presents to clinic with xerophthalmia and Bitot’s spots on the eyes. He is diagnosed as having vitamin A deficiency, what is oral dose of vitamin A to be administered in this case?

a)

A) 50,000 I.U

b)

B) 1 lakh I.U

c)

C) 1.5 lakh I.U

d)

D) 2 lakh I.U

64.

The Chance of Vertical transmission of HIV from mother to child is highest with:

a)

A) Elective caesarean section

b)

B) High viral RNA load

c)

C) Breast feeding

d)

D) Term delivery

65.

A female presented to the clinic with anogenital warts. On gene study, it was found that she is at high risk of Cervical cancer. Which strain of HPV is most likely responsible for high risk of Cervical cancer?

a)

A) HPV 1

b)

B) HPV 5

c)

C) HPV 11

d)

D) HPV 18

66.

You are Medical officer at PHC. What will be your advice regarding an economical method for Mass drug administration for Iron deficiency anaemia in the catchment population?

a)

A) Ferrous sulphate

b)

B) Intravenous iron

c)

C) Ferrous fumarate – Folic acid – Vitamin B12 – Vitamin C

d)

D) Iron(III)-hydroxide polymaltose complex

67.

If the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India is 2.2, the expected Crude Birth Rate (CBR) would be:

a)

A) 18.6 per 1,000 population

b)

B) 19.2 per 1,000 population

c)

C) 22.4 per 1,000 population

d)

D) 26.2 per 1,000 population

68.

Which of the following demographic indicators includes the mortality rate in its calculation?

a)

TFR

b)

NRR

c)

GFR

d)

GRR

69.

The completed family size may be estimated by:

a)

birth rate

b)

death rate

c)

total fertility rate

d)

age specific fertility rate

70.

Demographic gap means:

a)

A) Difference between the male and female population

b)

B) Difference between birth rate and death rate

c)

C) Difference between age-specific birth rate and age-specific death rate

d)

D) Difference between male and female life expectancy

71.

The contraction of the demographic gap starts in:

a)

stage 1

b)

late stage 2

c)

early stage 3

d)

stage 4

72.

The number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 live births is referred to as:

a)

A) Maternal Mortality Rate

b)

B) Maternal Mortality Ratio

c)

C) Infant Mortality Rate

d)

D) Perinatal Mortality Rate

73.

The most sensitive measure of growth is:

a)

A) Height

b)

B) Head circumference

c)

C) Weight

d)

D) Developmental milestones

74.

Which is the most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status of the body?

a)

A) Hb level

b)

B) Serum iron

c)

C) Serum transferrin saturation

d)

D) Serum ferritin

75.

A 26-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy works as a school teacher and walks about 2 km daily. She is otherwise healthy and consumes a normal mixed Indian diet. What is the recommended additional caloric intake for her during pregnancy?

a)

add 350kcal

b)

add 500kcal

c)

add 600kcal

d)

same diet

76.

Which of the following statements about water hardness is incorrect?

a)

A) Carbonate hardness is mainly due to calcium and magnesium bicarbonates

b)

B) Permanent hardness is caused by calcium and magnesium sulphates, chlorides, and nitrates

c)

C) One milliequivalent per litre of hardness equals 100 mg of CaCO3

d)

D) Water is considered very hard when hardness exceeds 6 mEq/L

77.

Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

sulfur dioxide

c)

ozone

d)

nitrogen dioxide

78.

All of the following are types of mechanical ventilation except

a)

exhaust ventilation

b)

plenum ventilation

c)

balanced ventilation

d)

cross ventilation

79.

the cooling power of air is best measure by

a)

kata thermometer

b)

hygrometer

c)

anemometer

d)

sling's psychrometer

80.

Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by mosquito

a)

dengue fever

b)

malaria

c)

japanese encephalitis

d)

Kyasanur forest disease