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WGU C180 Practice Test

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Tyler has major depression. He has decided it is time to seek therapy. Tyler is working on identifying his negative thinking and developing healthier, more accurate thinking. Which type of therapy?

a)

Psychodynamic therapy

b)

Cognitive therapy

c)

Behavioral therapy

d)

Humanistic therapy

2.

Rhonda has developed a conditioned response of anxiety to hearing music by the rock band The Rolling Stones. If she were to have the same response to any rock and roll music, this would be called:

a)

Positive Reinforcement

b)

Negative Punishment

c)

Extinction

d)

Generalization

3.

The fundamental attribution error occurs when we overestimate the ______ and underestimate the _______.

a)

a person's situation, person's disposition

b)

In-Group bias, Social Facilitation

c)

Person's disposition, person's situation

d)

Social facilitation, in-group bias

4.

Arvind has driven his car so many times it's almost automatic, like muscle memory. Which type of memory does this most closely reflect?

a)

Conscious

b)

Explicit

c)

Implicit

d)

Semantic

5.

Matt is very afraid of heights. The psychologist tells him that his anxiety disorder can be defined as an irrational and overt fear reaction, usually connected to a specific trigger. Which anxiety disorder does Matt have?

a)

Panic disorder

b)

Generalized anxiety disorder

c)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

d)

Phobia

6.

Damion realizes that he does way better on his online proctored exams when he takes exams at the kitchen table, the same place where he studies and learns course material. This better memory retrieval can be explained by:

a)

Encoding memory

b)

Sensory Memory

c)

Context-dependent memory

d)

State-dependent memory

7.

On a busy highway, a car is on the side of the road, broken down as cars drive by and no one stops to help and no one calls 911. What is this an example of:

a)

Group think

b)

Social facilitation

c)

Bystander effect

d)

Frustration-aggression hypothesis

8.

Nancy gets $1 every time she takes out the trash. Nancy's parents are using:

a)

negative reinforcement

b)

negative punishment

c)

positive punishment

d)

positive reinforcement

9.

What type of research design looks for associations between variables?

a)

Descriptive

b)

Correlational

c)

Experimental

d)

Cross-sectional

10.

Aaron was playing football when he suffered head trauma. He now struggles with hearing and producing language properly. Which of the following lobes most likely sustained the most damage during the incident?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

11.

What is the name of the chemical that relays signals across the synapses to the next neuron?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Neurotransmitter

c)

Dendrite

d)

Neural Button

12.

Dr. Pete predicts that participating in an after school reading program will improve students reading scores at the end of the school year. This prediction is his:

a)

hypothesis

b)

theory

c)

population

d)

Sample

13.

Arjun is anxious a lot more than he would like to be. He worries most every day, and it makes him hard to function sometimes. Which anxiety disorder does Arjun most likely have?

a)

Panic disorder

b)

Generalized anxiety disorder

c)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

d)

Phobia

14.

If Albert does not invite fans of the Los Angeles Rams to his Superbowl party, this behavior is an example of:

a)

Prejudice

b)

Discrimination

c)

Stereotyping

d)

none of the above

15.

If a person is described as moody and hostile, which of the Big Five personality traits would best describe the primary trait of this person?

a)

Agreeableness

b)

Neuroticism

c)

Conscientiousness

d)

Extroversion

16.

Mike takes away his daughter's iPad when she gets in trouble at school. This might be an example of:

a)

Negative Reinforcement

b)

Negative Punishment

c)

Positive Reinforcement

d)

Positive Punishment

17.

Amanda does remember Lake Tahoe, and she also remembers going on the boat. Which part of Amanda's brain is involved in having these long term memories?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Amygdala

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Cerebellum

18.

What part of the brain connects the two hemispheres?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Corpus Callosum

c)

Amygdala

d)

Frontal lobe

19.

What is an independent variable?

a)

The factor that the researcher changes, controls, or uses to group participants to test its effect on another variable.

b)

The outcome (result) that is measured to see if it changes in response to the independent variable.

c)
  1. The factor that is tested to see if it causes a change in the dependent variable.

d)
  1. The variable whose value does not depend on any other variable in the experiment. 

20.

What is a dependent variable?

a)

The factor that the researcher changes, controls, or uses to group participants to test its effect on another variable.

b)

The outcome (result) that is measured to see if it changes in response to the independent variable.

c)

The variable that is measured in an experiment to see if it changes in response to the independent variable.

d)
  1. Any variable that remains constant throughout the entire experiment and never changes.

21.

According to the session, which strategy helps reduce the effects of memory decay?

a)

Rehearsing and reviewing regularly

b)

Linking ideas to emotions

c)

Studying in noisy environments

d)

Testing yourself only once

22.

A person cannot recall events from before a car accident. This is an example of:

a)

Flashbulb memory

b)

Anterograde amnesia

c)

Retrograde amnesia

d)

Implicit memory

23.

Which scenario illustrates proactive interference?

a)

Using your old email password instead of your new one

b)

Forgetting your friend’s name at a party

c)

Remembering your wedding day in great detail

d)

Getting distracted during a lecture

24.

What type of forgetting occurs when new information disrupts your ability to recall old information?

a)

Retroactive interference

b)

Decay

c)

Retrograde amnesia

d)

Proactive interference

25.

A student remembers more facts during an exam because the room smells like the candle they used while studying. This is an example of:

a)

Context-dependent memory

b)

State-dependent memory

c)

Flashbulb memory

d)

Retroactive interference

26.

If you're asked to write down everything you remember from a lecture without any prompts, you're relying on:

a)

Recall

b)

Semantic memory

c)

Recognition

d)

Flashbulb memory

27.

Which of the following is an example of implicit memory?

a)

Typing on a keyboard without thinking

b)

Remembering your high school graduation

c)

Recalling the capital of France

d)

Memorizing a list of vocabulary words

28.

Sensory memory is best described as:

a)

A brief, initial stage of memory lasting only moments

b)

A permanent store of life events

c)

A memory system with unlimited capacity

d)

A type of implicit memory

29.

You study psychology by connecting new terms to personal experiences. This method improves memory because it:

a)

enhances meaningful encoding

b)

reduces decay

c)

uses shallow processing

d)

avoids interference

30.

Which of the following best describes the process of encoding?

a)

Taking in and processing information

b)

Storing information for future use

c)

Accessing information from memory

d)

Forgetting irrelevant information

31.

Whenever Marcus cleans up after dinner, his parents stop nagging him. He now cleans up more regularly. This is an example of:

a)

Negative reinforcement

b)

Negative punishment

c)

Positive reinforcement

d)

Positive punishment

32.

After arriving late to practice several times, Mia had to run five extra laps. She now makes sure to arrive on time. This is an example of:

a)

Positive punishment

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Negative punishment

d)

Negative reinforcement

33.

Every time Casey takes the stairs instead of the elevator, she avoids the loud buzzing noise near the elevator doors. This makes her more likely to take the stairs in the future. This is an example of:

a)

Negative reinforcement

b)

Negative punishment

c)

Positive reinforcement

d)

Positive punishment

34.

After Alex lied about finishing their homework, their parents took away their video game privileges for the weekend. This is an example of:

a)

Negative punishment

b)

Negative reinforcement

c)

Positive punishment

d)

Positive reinforcement

35.

Jalen kept interrupting in class, so the teacher gave him extra homework. He interrupted less the next day. This is an example of:

a)

Positive punishment

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Negative punishment

d)

Negative reinforcement

36.

When Maya finished all her chores without being asked, her parents gave her extra screen time. This encouraged her to do her chores again the next day. This is an example of:

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Positive punishment

c)

Negative reinforcement

d)

Negative punishment

37.

What is a token economy?

a)

A system where tokens are earned and traded for rewards

b)

A financial reward system for adults

c)

A chart that tracks behavior goals

d)

A therapy that replaces unwanted thoughts

38.

Why is partial reinforcement more resistant to extinction?

a)

The behavior is not reinforced every time, so it's more persistent

b)

It builds weaker associations

c)

It delays rewards

d)

It uses primary reinforcers

39.

Which reinforcement schedule builds behavior quickly but is easily extinguished?

a)

Continuous reinforcement

b)

Partial reinforcement

c)

Delayed reinforcement

d)

Random reinforcement

40.

Which of the following is a primary reinforcer?

a)

Food

b)

Praise

c)

Money

d)

Stickers

41.

A teen loses their phone after staying out past curfew. This is an example of:

a)

Negative punishment

b)

Negative reinforcement

c)

Positive punishment

d)

Positive reinforcement

42.

Which term describes removing something unpleasant to increase a behavior?

a)

Negative reinforcement

b)

Positive punishment

c)

Negative punishment

d)

Positive reinforcement

43.

What is the goal of punishment in operant conditioning?

a)

To decrease a specific behavior

b)

To teach new behavior

c)

To increase desirable behavior

d)

To ignore unwanted behavior

44.

In Skinner’s operant conditioning experiments, what increased the rate of lever pressing in rats?

a)

Providing a pellet after pressing the lever

b)

Shocking the rat

c)

Removing food

d)

Playing loud noises

45.

Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?

a)

A child receives candy for doing chores

b)

A student is scolded for being late

c)

A teen loses their video game privileges

d)

A dog stops barking when the doorbell noise ends

46.

Thorndike’s “Law of Effect” suggests that:

a)

Behaviors followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to recur

b)

All behavior is learned through observation

c)

Consequences have no effect on future behavior

d)

Reinforcement only works with humans

47.

In a food aversion example, the conditioned response would be:

a)

Feeling nauseated at the sight of the food

b)

Eating spoiled food

c)

The bacteria in the hamburger

d)

Throwing away the hamburger

48.

In classical conditioning, what type of behavior is typically involved?

a)

Involuntary and automatic

b)

Conscious and deliberate

c)

Accidental and random

d)

Aggressive and emotional

49.

Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning?

a)

A child flinches when they hear the dentist’s drill

b)

A student studies hard to earn an A

c)

A dog rolls over to get a treat

d)

A person checks their phone after hearing a text notification

50.

Which of the following best describes extinction?

a)

The conditioned response weakens when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus

b)

The behavior becomes stronger with repetition

c)

The response shifts to another stimulus

d)

The response spreads to new stimuli

51.

Generalization occurs when:

a)

A learned response spreads to similar stimuli

b)

A response fades over time

c)

A behavior is repeated voluntarily

d)

A behavior is reinforced

52.

In the Little Albert experiment, what was the conditioned stimulus?

a)

White rat

b)

Loud noise

c)

Crying

d)

Rabbit

53.

After repeated pairings with food, a bell causes a dog to salivate. In this example, the bell is a:

a)

Conditioned Stimulus

b)

Conditioned Response

c)

Unconditioned Stimulus

d)

Unconditioned Response

54.

Which of the following is an example of an unconditioned stimulus?

a)

The smell of food

b)

A bell before feeding

c)

A leash on the floor

d)

A treat after a trick

55.

Who is most associated with the discovery of classical conditioning?

a)

Ivan Pavlov

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

John Watson

d)

Albert Bandura

56.

In classical conditioning, learning occurs through the association of:

a)

Two stimuli

b)

A behavior and its consequence

c)

Two voluntary behaviors

d)

A reward and punishment

57.

You're taking deep breaths and focusing on them. As you try to relax, which of the following parts of the body are you attempting to activate?

a)

Parasympathetic nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

Pancreas

d)

Thyroid

58.

Which of the following parts of the body is responsible for activating your startle response?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Pancreas

d)

Thyroid

59.

The brain is a part of which component of the nervous system?

a)

Central Nervous System

b)

Somatic Nervous System

c)

Peripheral Nervous System

d)

Endocrine Nervous System

60.

Which of the glands in the endocrine system is called the "master gland"?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Pancreas

c)

Thyroid

d)

Ovaries and testes (gonads)

61.

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the endocrine system?

a)

A messenger system comprised of feedback loops between glands and the substances they excrete.

b)

A system of organs that regulate your thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

c)

A messenger system comprised of feedback loops between organs and glands.

d)

The body’s major regulatory and communication system.

62.

Growth hormone deficiency (GHD), also known as dwarfism, is a condition caused by insufficient amounts of growth hormone in the body. Which of the following glands is most likely involved in this condition?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Pancreas

c)

Thyroid

d)

Testes and ovaries (gonads)

63.

During puberty, large levels of hormones called androgens and estrogens are released by the endocrine system. Which gland or glands are most involved in the release of these hormones?

a)

Testes and ovaries (gonads)

b)

Pituitary

c)

Adrenal

d)

Thyroid

64.

A counseling psychologist is most likely to:

a)

Help clients manage stress, relationships, or life transitions

b)

Prescribe medications to treat mental illness

c)

Study how memory works in the brain

d)

Conduct research on animal learning

65.

The cognitive revolution introduced a focus on:

a)

Memory and mental processes

b)

Cultural norms

c)

Drug-based treatments

d)

Reflexes and conditioning

66.

Which school of thought highlights free will and self-actualization?

a)

Humanistic Psychology

b)

Behaviorism

c)

Psychodynamic Theory

d)

Structuralism

67.

Which psychologist emphasized unconscious processes and childhood experiences?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

Carl Rogers

c)

B.F. Skinner

d)

William James

68.

The phrase “the whole is greater than the sum of its parts” best represents which approach?

a)

Gestalt Psychology

b)

Functionalism

c)

Behaviorism

d)

Cognitive Psychology

69.

According to behaviorists, psychology should focus on:

a)

Observing and measuring behaviors

b)

Cultural and social norms

c)

Personal growth and self-actualization

d)

Introspection and inner thoughts

70.

Who is most associated with functionalism?

a)

William James

b)

Sigmund Freud

c)

Max Wertheimer

d)

Wilhelm Wundt

71.

Structuralism is most concerned with:

a)

The elements and structure of mental processes

b)

The unconscious mind and its desires

c)

Observable behaviors in response to stimuli

d)

Helping people reach their full potential

72.

Which method is central to the practice of psychology as a science?

a)

The scientific method

b)

Guesswork

c)

Personal intuition

d)

Case Study

73.

What is psychology primarily defined as?

a)

The scientific study of the mind and behavior

b)

The study of emotions and dreams

c)

The study of brain chemistry and illness

d)

The study of personality and intelligence

74.

Which psychological perspective emphasizes the importance of the unconscious mind and childhood experiences in shaping personality?

a)

Humanism

b)

Structuralism

c)

Psychodynamic

d)

Behaviorism

75.

A researcher is conducting a study to see if a new drug causes a reduction in anxiety. Which type of research approach must they use to establish this cause-and-effect relationship?

a)

Correlational

b)

Descriptive

c)

Case Study

d)

Experimental

76.

The structure that is primarily responsible for memory formation in the brain is the:

a)

Amygdala

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Thalamus

77.

Which type of therapist would provide a client with unconditional positive regard and empathy to help them achieve self-actualization?

a)

Cognitive Therapist

b)

Behavioral Therapist

c)

Psychodynamic Therapist

d)

Humanistic (Insight-Oriented) Therapist

78.

If a scatterplot shows that as the number of hours studied increases, exam scores tend to increase as well, this illustrates a:

a)
  • Negative Correlation

b)
  • Zero Correlation

c)

Positive Correlation

d)
  • Causal Relationship

79.

In the context of the nervous system, the "fight or flight" response is primarily activated by the:

a)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

b)

Somatic Nervous System

c)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

d)

Sympathetic Nervous System

80.

A memory of a personally experienced event, such as a high school graduation or a recent vacation, is known as a(n):

a)

Semantic Memory

b)

Implicit Memory

c)

Episodic Memory

d)

Flashbulb Memory

81.

Which term describes the discomfort experienced when an individual holds two conflicting thoughts or beliefs?

a)

Self-Fulfilling Prophecy

b)

Cognitive Dissonance

c)

Fundamental Attribution Error

d)

Implicit Prejudice

82.

A client with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is told to touch a doorknob (the trigger) but is then prevented from washing their hands (the compulsive behavior). This behavioral therapy technique is called:

a)

Systematic Desensitization

b)

Stimulus Control

c)

Exposure with Response Prevention

d)

Behavior Modification

83.

According to the Big Five personality model, the acronym OCEAN represents:

a)

Optimism, Consciousness, Excitement, Affiliation, Neuroticism

b)
  • Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, Confluence

c)

Openness, Curiosity, Extraversion, Affiliation, Neuroticism

d)

Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism

84.

The phenomenon where an individual's performance on an easy task improves when an audience is present is known as:

a)

Group Polarization

b)

Social Loafing

c)

Groupthink

d)

Social Facilitation

85.

GABA is an important neurotransmitter known for its:

a)
  • Excitatory effects on learning and memory

b)

Role in movement, pleasure, and reward

c)

Influence on mood, sleep, and appetite

d)

Inhibitory effect, calming the nervous system

86.

The main difference between the Independent Variable (IV) and the Dependent Variable (DV) is:

a)

The DV is manipulated, and the IV is used to group participants.

b)

The IV is a broader explanation, and the DV is a testable prediction.

c)

The IV is manipulated, and the DV is measured to see if it changes.

d)

The IV is the control group, and the DV is the experimental group.

87.

Learning where a behavior is influenced by its consequences (rewards or punishments) is the definition of:

a)

Classical Conditioning

b)
  • Social Learning

c)

Operant Conditioning

d)
  • Cognitive Learning

88.

What are the three levels of analysis used to examine the causes and influences of psychological disorders?

a)

Level of the Culture, Society, and Self

b)

Level of the Environment, Thoughts, and Emotions

c)

Level of the Brain, Person, and Group

d)

Level of the Conscious, Preconscious, and Unconscious

89.

What is the smallest amount of a stimulus that a person can detect 50% of the time?

a)
  • Difference Threshold

b)
  • Dichotic Listening

c)
  • Cocktail Party Phenomenon

d)

Absolute Threshold

90.

When you interpret an object by relying on your prior knowledge, experiences, and expectations rather than just the raw sensory data, you are using:

a)

Bottom-Up Processing

b)

Top-Down Processing

c)

Sensation

d)

Dichotic Listening

91.

The ability to focus on one voice in a crowded, noisy environment (like a busy restaurant) is an example of the:

a)

Absolute Threshold

b)

Sensation vs. Perception distinction

c)

Cocktail Party Phenomenon

d)

Top-Down Processing

92.

A severe psychological disorder characterized by distorted thinking, hallucinations, and delusions is defined as:

a)

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

b)

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

c)

Bipolar Disorder

d)

Schizophrenia

93.

The Diathesis-Stress Model explains that a psychological disorder is triggered by the combination of a predisposition (diathesis) and what other factor?

a)

Biological influence (Genetics)

b)

Specific factors (Stress)

c)

Sociocultural factors (Environment)

d)

Cognitive factors (Thoughts)

94.

Which cluster of personality disorders is characterized by emotional or dramatic behaviors?

a)

Cluster A (Odd, eccentric)

b)

Cluster B (Emotional, dramatic)

c)

Cluster C (Anxious, fearful)

d)
  • Cluster D (Psychotic, disorganized)

95.

Which type of medication is considered the safest and first-line treatment option for anxiety-related disorders?

a)

Benzodiazepines (e.g., Xanax)

b)

SNRIs (e.g., Effexor)

c)

SSRIs (e.g., Zoloft, Lexapro)

d)

Antipsychotics (e.g., Risperidone)

96.

What is the first goal of Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT)?

a)
  • To change distorted thinking patterns

b)

To facilitate personal growth and self-actualization

c)
  • To integrate mindfulness and interpersonal effectiveness

d)

To help clients achieve emotional and behavioral stability (e.g., reducing self-harm)

97.

When a person experiences improvement after receiving a treatment with no active medical ingredients, simply because they believe it will help, they are experiencing the:

a)

Therapeutic Alliance

b)
  • State-Dependent Effect

c)

Placebo Effect

d)
  • Regression toward the Mean

98.

Which type of therapy focuses on identifying and challenging distorted thinking and replacing it with more realistic, positive thoughts?

a)

Humanistic Therapy

b)

Behavioral Therapy

c)

Cognitive Therapy

d)

EMDR

99.

What is the difference between a Panic Disorder and a Panic Attack?

a)

A Panic Attack is characterized by chronic worry, while a Panic Disorder is a specific fear.

b)

A Panic Attack is a sudden intense fear episode, while Panic Disorder is characterized by repeated Panic Attacks.

c)

A Panic Disorder is a mild form of GAD, while a Panic Attack is linked to a specific phobia.

d)

A Panic Disorder is treated with exposure therapy, while a Panic Attack is treated with medication.

100.

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is primarily used as a biologically based treatment for which condition?

a)
  • Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

b)
  • Generalized Anxiety Disorder

c)
  • Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

d)

Severe, treatment-resistant depression

101.

What is the function of the dendrite in a neuron?

a)

Sends information to other neurons

b)

Releases neurotransmitters into the synapse

c)

Holds genetic information

d)

Receives information from other neurons

102.
Lance is in cross country runner.  He tends to run faster when he is running with someone than when he is running alone.  This is an example of...
a)
social facilitation
b)
bystander effect
c)
foot-in-the-door phenomenon
d)
mere exposure effect
103.
Prejudice is a(n) _____ while discrimination is a(n) _____.
a)
behavior; attitude
b)
instinct; choice
c)
attitude; behavior
d)
choice; instinct