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Final Concepts

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Biology is best described as the study of

a)

the physical laws of the universe.

b)

the living world.

c)

geological formations.

d)

atomic structure.

2.

Which choice below represents the correct classification scheme of taxonomy?

a)

kingdom → phylum → domain → class → order → family → genus → species

b)

domain → kingdom → phylum → class → order → family → genus → species

c)

domain → kingdom → phylum → class → family → order → species → genus

d)

phylum → domain → kingdom → order → class → genus → family → species

3.

The lowest level of biological organization that can perform all activities required for life is a/an

a)

Organelle—for example, a chloroplast.

b)

Tissue—for example, nervous tissue.

c)

Organism—for example, a fungus, dog, human, or maple tree.

d)

Cell—for example, a skin cell.

4.

What are the two domains of prokaryotic organisms?

a)

Bacteria and Archaea

b)

Bacteria and Monera

c)

Eukarya and Bacteria

d)

Archaea and Eukarya

5.

Which compounds contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms, making them very hydrophobic?

a)

sucrose

b)

ethanol

c)

hydrocarbons

d)

fatty acids

6.

Peptide bonds are found in polymers of which class of biological macromolecules?

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

7.

What is the pH of urine with [H+]=1×105 mol/L[H^+] = 1 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{mol/L} ?

a)

0.00001

b)

0.5

c)

10

d)

5

8.

What is the term used for a change in a protein's three-dimensional shape when exposed to adverse environmental conditions?

a)

condensation

b)

renaturation

c)

stabilization

d)

denaturation

9.

Thalidomide and L-dopa are examples of pharmaceutical drugs that occur as enantiomers, or molecules that

a)

are mirror images of one another.

b)

have identical three-dimensional shapes.

c)

differ in the location of their double bonds.

d)

lack an asymmetric carbon.

10.

Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?

a)

water's change in density when it freezes

b)

water's high surface tension

c)

water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air

d)

the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds during vaporization

11.

All organisms are composed of at least one cell. This is a central part of the

a)

Fluid-Mosaic Model

b)

Laws of Thermodynamics

c)

Cell Theory

d)

Theory of Endosymbiosis

12.

Animal cells have all of the following components EXCEPT

a)

plasma membrane

b)

cell walls

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

13.

Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the plasma membrane?

a)

phospholipids and proteins

b)

proteins and cellulose

c)

phospholipids and cellulose

d)

nucleic acids and proteins

14.

Secretion of proteins is accomplished by what process?

a)

exocytosis

b)

pinocytosis

c)

phagocytosis

d)

osmosis

15.

The electrochemical gradient across the plasma membrane of most of the cells in the human body is established and maintained by the Na+-K+ pump moving ions AGAINST THEIR CONCENTRATION GRADIENTS. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

16.

Which of the following is a correct statement about diffusion?

a)

A carrier protein must be present for it to occur.

b)

It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.

c)

It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration.

d)

It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration.

17.

Which of the following are NOT found on/in any prokaryotic cell?

a)

capsule

b)

nucleic acids

c)

membrane-bound organelles

d)

cell walls

18.

What are the membrane structures that function in active transport?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

cholesterol

c)

cytoskeleton filaments

d)

integral proteins

19.

The second law of thermodynamics states that all energy conversions are inefficient, and some energy is always lost as which biologically unusable form?

a)

chemical energy

b)

potential energy

c)

thermal energy (heat)

d)

ATP

20.

Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is correct?

a)

ribosomes: secretion of lipids

b)

cell wall: support, protection

c)

chloroplasts: chief sites of cellular respiration

d)

lysosomes: formation of ATP

21.

A red blood cell placed into a hypotonic solution will potentially undergo which of the following processes?

a)

plasmolysis

b)

crenation

c)

hemolysis

d)

nothing

22.

Zn2+ (zinc), an inorganic metal ion, is normally present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The Zn2+ most likely functions as a:

a)

noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme

b)

competitive inhibitor of the enzyme

c)

coenzyme derived from a vitamin

d)

cofactor necessary for enzyme activity

23.

White blood cells and amoebas engulf bacteria through what process?

a)

exocytosis

b)

osmosis

c)

pinocytosis

d)

phagocytosis

24.

Which organelle maintains turgor pressure inside plant cells?

a)

central vacuole

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

chloroplast

d)

cell wall

25.

The reaction shown below is performed by baker's yeast (S. cerevisiae). C6H12O6    2C2H5OH  +  2CO2  +  2 ATP\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\;\rightarrow\;2C_2H_5OH\; +\; 2CO_2\; +\; 2\ ATP} Which of the following is true about this reaction?

a)

This process requires O2.

b)

This process occurs anaerobically.

c)

Human muscle cells also perform this reaction.

d)

Yeast cells do not produce carbon dioxide during this reaction.

26.

Which of the following processes produces the most ATP molecules when one glucose molecule is completely broken down during aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

oxidative phosphorylation

b)

lactic acid fermentation

c)

citric acid cycle

d)

glycolysis

27.

Which curve represents the profile of an enzyme taken from a bacterial species that lives in hot springs at temperatures of approximately 75°C?

a)

curve 1

b)

curve 2

c)

curve 3

d)

curve 4

e)

curve 5

28.

Which curve represents the profile of an enzyme taken from the human stomach where conditions are strongly acidic?

a)

curve 1

b)

curve 2

c)

curve 3

d)

curve 4

e)

curve 5

29.

Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction? C6H12O6  +  6 O2    6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  Energy\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2\; \rightarrow\; 6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; Energy}

a)

C6H12O6 is oxidized, and O2 is reduced.

b)

O2 is reduced, and CO2 is oxidized.

c)

C6H12O6 is reduced, and CO2 is oxidized.

d)

None of the above answer choices are correct.

30.

Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of stages for aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis → oxidative phosphorylation → citric acid cycle

b)

oxidative phosphorylation → citric acid cycle → glycolysis

c)

citric acid cycle → glycolysis → oxidative phosphorylation

d)

glycolysis → citric acid cycle → oxidative phosphorylation

31.

For questions 31–36, use the reactions below. Reaction A: C6H12O6  +  6 O2    6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  32 ATP\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2\; \rightarrow\; 6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; 32\ ATP} Reaction B: 6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  light energy    C6H12O6  +  6 O2\mathrm{6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; light\ energy\; \rightarrow\; C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2} Which reaction shows the chemical equation for photosynthesis?

a)

Reaction A

b)

Reaction B

c)

both

d)

neither

32.

For questions 31–36, use the reactions below. Reaction A: C6H12O6  +  6 O2    6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  32 ATP\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2\; \rightarrow\; 6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; 32\ ATP} Reaction B: 6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  light energy    C6H12O6  +  6 O2\mathrm{6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; light\ energy\; \rightarrow\; C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2} Which reaction shows the chemical equation for cellular respiration?

a)

Reaction A

b)

Reaction B

c)

both

d)

neither

33.

For questions 31–36, use the reactions below. Reaction A: C6H12O6  +  6 O2    6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  32 ATP\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2\; \rightarrow\; 6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; 32\ ATP} Reaction B: 6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  light energy    C6H12O6  +  6 O2\mathrm{6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; light\ energy\; \rightarrow\; C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2} Which reaction is catabolic?

a)

Reaction A

b)

Reaction B

c)

both

d)

neither

34.

For questions 31–36, use the reactions below. Reaction A: C6H12O6  +  6 O2    6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  32 ATP\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2\; \rightarrow\; 6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; 32\ ATP} Reaction B: 6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  light energy    C6H12O6  +  6 O2\mathrm{6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; light\ energy\; \rightarrow\; C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2} Which reaction is anabolic?

a)

Reaction A

b)

Reaction B

c)

both

d)

neither

35.

For questions 31–36, use the reactions below. Reaction A: C6H12O6  +  6 O2    6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  32 ATP\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2\; \rightarrow\; 6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; 32\ ATP} Reaction B: 6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  light energy    C6H12O6  +  6 O2\mathrm{6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; light\ energy\; \rightarrow\; C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2} Which reaction is exergonic?

a)

Reaction A

b)

Reaction B

c)

both

d)

neither

36.

For questions 31–36, use the reactions below. Reaction A: C6H12O6  +  6 O2    6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  32 ATP\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2\; \rightarrow\; 6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; 32\ ATP} Reaction B: 6 CO2  +  6 H2O  +  light energy    C6H12O6  +  6 O2\mathrm{6\ CO_2\; +\; 6\ H_2O\; +\; light\ energy\; \rightarrow\; C_6H_{12}O_6\; +\; 6\ O_2} Which reaction is endergonic?

a)

Reaction A

b)

Reaction B

c)

both

d)

neither

37.

What are the three components of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

phosphate, deoxyribose, nitrogenous base (A, T, C, or G)

b)

phosphate, ribose, nitrogenous base (A, U, C, or G)

c)

phosphate, deoxyribose, nitrogenous base (A, U, C, or G)

d)

phosphate, ribose, nitrogenous base (A, T, C, or G)

38.

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a)

Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.

b)

The double helical nature of DNA creates uneven strands.

c)

The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs opposite to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.

d)

One strand contains only purines, and the other contains only pyrimidines.

39.

DNA replication is best described as ________.

a)

conservative

b)

dispersive

c)

semiconservative

d)

All choices are correct

40.

What is the direction of DNA synthesis?

a)

3' to 3'

b)

5' to 3'

c)

5' to 5'

d)

3' to 5'

41.

Which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of a DNA strand in prokaryotes?

a)

Primase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase III

d)

DNA Ligase

42.

All three domains of life use the same genetic code. This illustrates what property of the code?

a)

It is semiconservative

b)

It is universal

c)

It is redundant

d)

It is antiparallel

43.

Given the DNA template strand sequence 3' TAC TGC GGT TCA CGG 5', what mRNA sequence would result if this DNA sequence were transcribed?

a)

5' ATG ACG CCA AGU GCC 3'

b)

3' AUG AGG GGA AGU GCC 5'

c)

3' AUG ACG CCA AGU GCC 5'

d)

5' AUG ACG CCA AGU GCC 3'

44.

Using the DNA template strand sequence 3' TAC TGC GGT TCA CGG 5' and the standard genetic code, the amino acid sequence coded for by the resulting mRNA would be

a)

Met - Arg - Trp - Tyr - His

b)

Met - Thr - Pro - Ser - Ala

c)

Met - Ala - Thr - Ile - Val

d)

Met - Thr - Ala - Ile - Val

45.

For the DNA template strand sequence 3' TAC TGC GGT TCA CGG 5', what anticodon would be on the tRNA that brings in the fifth amino acid from the left?

a)

CGG

b)

AGU

c)

GCC

d)

CCC

46.

According to the original Central Dogma of Molecular Biology, which of the following correctly describes the flow of genetic information in all living organisms?

a)

RNA → protein → DNA

b)

protein → RNA → DNA

c)

DNA → RNA → protein

d)

DNA → protein → RNA

47.

Which of the following findings changed our understanding of the central dogma of molecular biology?

a)

the discovery of telomeres

b)

the discovery of the structure of DNA

c)

the discovery of the structure of RNA

d)

the discovery of RNA viruses (like HIV) that synthesize DNA using reverse transcriptase

48.

What causes translation to terminate?

a)

The 5' poly-A tail is synthesized.

b)

The 3' cap is detected by the ribosome.

c)

A methionine is reached.

d)

A stop codon in the mRNA is reached.

49.

Use the following information: As a genetic counselor, you meet with Sam and Dianne, who have both tested positive as carriers for the recessive allele (p) that causes phenylketonuria (PKU). What are the genotypes of the parents who have come into your office?

a)

Sam is PP, and Dianne is pp.

b)

Sam and Dianne are both Pp.

c)

Sam and Dianne are both PP.

d)

Sam is Pp, and Dianne is pp.

50.

Use the following information: As a genetic counselor, you meet with Sam and Dianne, who have both tested positive as carriers for the recessive allele (p) that causes phenylketonuria (PKU). What is the chance that their first child will have PKU?

a)

1/4 (25%)

b)

3/4 (75%)

c)

1/2 (50%)

d)

no chance

e)

4/4 (100%)

51.

Use the following information: As a genetic counselor, you meet with Sam and Dianne, who have both tested positive as carriers for the recessive allele (p) that causes phenylketonuria (PKU). What is the chance that their first child will not be affected by PKU?

a)

1/4 (25%)

b)

3/4 (75%)

c)

1/2 (50%)

d)

no chance

e)

4/4 (100%)

52.

Eye color, skin color, and height in humans are controlled by multiple genes. These traits demonstrate which of the following?

a)

monohybrid ratios

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

nondisjunction

d)

polyploidy

53.

A species of tulip can have either yellow or red flowers. If we cross a homozygous yellow flower plant with a homozygous red flower plant, all of the offspring have red flowers. Based on that result, which of the following is true?

a)

The red allele is dominant.

b)

The yellow allele is dominant.

c)

The red and yellow alleles exhibit incomplete dominance.

d)

The red and yellow alleles exhibit codominance.

54.

Use the following information: Huntington's disease is caused by a dominant allele (H). Jane is heterozygous for the Huntington's allele. What is Jane's genotype?

a)

She has Huntington's disease.

b)

HH

c)

She does not have Huntington's disease.

d)

Hh

55.

Use the following information: Huntington's disease is caused by a dominant allele (H). Jane is heterozygous for the Huntington's allele. What is Jane's phenotype?

a)

She has Huntington's disease.

b)

HH

c)

She does not have Huntington's disease.

d)

Hh

56.

Use the following information: Huntington's disease is caused by a dominant allele (H). Jane is heterozygous for the Huntington's allele. Jane wants to have a child with Jack. Jack is homozygous recessive for the gene in question. What are the chances they will have a child with Huntington's disease?

a)

0%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

100%

e)

50%

57.

Use the following information: In pea plants, the yellow seed color allele (Y) is dominant over the green seed color allele (y). You have a pea plant of unknown genotype that produces yellow seeds. You want to perform a test cross to determine the genotype of this plant. In the scenario above, you are test-crossing your plant of unknown genotype to a plant that has what genotype and phenotype?

a)

yy, yellow seeds

b)

YY, green seeds

c)

Yy, yellow seeds

d)

yy, green seeds

58.

Use the following information: In pea plants, the yellow seed color allele (Y) is dominant over the green seed color allele (y). You have a pea plant of unknown genotype that produces yellow seeds and perform a test cross to determine the genotype of this plant. Which set of results from the test cross would indicate that the pea plant with unknown genotype is heterozygous (Yy)?

a)

808 offspring with yellow seeds, 0 offspring with green seeds

b)

406 offspring with yellow seeds, 402 with green seeds

c)

Either outcome above indicates that the unknown pea plant is heterozygous.

59.

There are two alleles for the single gene which controls the shape of a species of radish: long and round (spherical). If we cross a homozygous long radish with a homozygous round radish, all of the baby radishes are oval. Based on that result, which of the following is true?

a)

The long allele is dominant.

b)

The round allele is dominant.

c)

The oval allele is dominant.

d)

The long and round alleles exhibit incomplete dominance.

60.

A human egg cell containing 22 autosomes but no sex chromosomes (O) is fertilized by a human sperm cell containing 22 autosomes and an X chromosome. The resulting zygote will

a)

have Klinefelter syndrome (XXY).

b)

have Down syndrome.

c)

have Turner syndrome (XO).

d)

have 46 chromosomes.

61.

Use the following information: A woman who has type A blood has a daughter who is type O and a son who is type B. Which of the following is the only possible genotype for the son?

a)

I^B i

b)

ii

c)

I^B I^B

d)

IAIBI^A I^B

62.

Use the following information: A woman who has type A blood has a daughter who is type O and a son who is type B. Which of the following is the only possible genotype for the mother?

a)

I^B i

b)

ii

c)

I^A I^A

d)

I^A i

63.

Use the following information: A woman who has type A blood has a daughter who is type O and a son who is type B. Which of the following is a possible genotype/phenotype for the father of the two children?

a)

I^A I^B, type AB

b)

I^B i, type B

c)

I^B I^B, type B

d)

ii, type O

64.

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive trait. A woman is a carrier for hemophilia A, and her husband is a hemophiliac. Assume N is the dominant allele and n is the recessive allele. What are the genotypes of the mother and the father, respectively?

a)

XNX^N XnX^n and XnYX^nY

b)

XNX^N and XNYX^N Y

c)

XnXnX^nX^n and XNYX^NY

d)

XNX^N XnX^n and XNYX^N Y

65.

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive trait. A woman is a carrier for hemophilia A, and her husband is a hemophiliac. What is the chance that the son they plan to have will be a hemophiliac?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

66.

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive trait. A woman is a carrier for hemophilia A, and her husband is a hemophiliac. What is the chance that the daughter they plan to have will be a carrier?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

67.

A human male will inherit which of the following from his mother?

a)

All of his X chromosome genes

b)

None of his Y chromosome genes

c)

Half of his autosomal alleles

d)

All of the above

68.

The SRY gene is best described by which of the following?

a)

A gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers the formation of testes and a penis during embryonic development

b)

A gene required for general development in both sexes, and individuals lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood

c)

An autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome

d)

A gene present on the X chromosome that triggers formation of the ovaries and a clitoris during embryonic development

69.

The failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division is called what?

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Crossing over

c)

Synapsis

d)

Inversion

70.

Down syndrome results from an extra copy of which chromosome?

a)

Chromosome 2

b)

Chromosome 21

c)

X chromosome

d)

Chromosome 13

71.

The pedigree shows the inheritance of a human biochemical disorder called alkaptonuria in which affected individuals accumulate a dark-colored substance (alkapton) in urine and certain tissues. Shaded symbols indicate affected individuals. Based on the pedigree, what is the most likely inheritance pattern for alkaptonuria?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

X-linked dominant

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

X-linked recessive

72.

Your class obtains three corn cobs and counts the number of purple and yellow kernels on each cob as summarized:

If corn kernel color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles (R = dominant purple, r = recessive yellow), which parental cross could have produced these cobs as offspring?

a)

RR × RR

b)

Rr × Rr

c)

rr × rr

d)

Rr × rr

73.

A pedigree for a bobcat population indicates the occurrence of long claws, a trait controlled by a single autosomal gene with two alleles (B = dominant allele, produces long claws; b = recessive allele, produces short claws). Which of the following represents an individual female bobcat with long claws in the pedigree?

a)

I-4

b)

II-5

c)

III-1

d)

III-3

74.

In the bobcat pedigree where long claws are dominant (B) and short claws are recessive (b), which of the following represents an individual male bobcat with short claws?

a)

I-4

b)

II-5

c)

III-1

d)

III-3

75.

In the bobcat pedigree where long claws are dominant (B) and short claws are recessive (b), what is the genotype of individual I-4?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

Unable to determine from the pedigree

76.

In the bobcat pedigree where long claws are dominant (B) and short claws are recessive (b), what is the genotype of individual II-3?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

Unable to determine from the pedigree

77.

In the bobcat pedigree where long claws are dominant (B) and short claws are recessive (b), what is the genotype of individual II-5?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

Unable to determine from the pedigree

78.

Tay-Sachs disease is a fatal genetic disorder caused by a mutation in an autosomal gene coding for a lysosomal enzyme. A couple, neither of whom suffer from the disorder, have three children; one child was diagnosed with Tay-Sachs at birth, while the other two have normal phenotypes. Determine the genotypes of the parents and indicate the pattern of inheritance displayed by the disorder (T = dominant allele, t = recessive allele).

a)

Parents: TT × Tt; Pattern: autosomal dominant

b)

Parents: TT × TT; Pattern: autosomal dominant

c)

Parents: Tt × Tt; Pattern: autosomal recessive

d)

Parents: Tt × tt; Pattern: autosomal recessive

79.

In fruit flies, grey body color is dominant over black body color, and long wings are dominant over short wings (G = grey body color allele, g = black body color allele; L = long wing allele, l = short wing allele). You perform a cross with two parental flies, each of which has a grey body color and long wings. You obtain the following results when you analyze the phenotypes of the offspring: 18 with grey bodies and long wings, 6 with black bodies and long wings, 6 with grey bodies and short wings, and 2 with black bodies and short wings. Based on this information, what are parental genotypes?

a)

GgLl X GgLl

b)

GgLl X ggll

c)

GGLL X ggll

d)

GgLl X GGLL

80.

What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?

a)

Traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the result of "blending."

b)

Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 generation than do dominant ones.

c)

Genes are composed of DNA.

d)

There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.

81.

Mendel continued some of his experiments into the F2 or F3 generation in order to:

a)

distinguish which alleles were segregating

b)

obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics

c)

observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear

d)

observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear

82.

Use the following description and the Punnett square to answer. In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding, dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in a Punnett square in which the four boxes are labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4 to represent the genotypes produced. Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?

a)

2 and 3

b)

1, 2, and 3

c)

1 only

d)

4 only

83.

Use the following description and the Punnett square to answer. In a plant where gene locus D controls leaf color, D produces dark green leaves and dd produces light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant crossed with a light-leaved plant yields F1 plants that self-pollinate, producing an F2 shown in a Punnett square with boxes labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4 for the genotypes. Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?

a)

2 and 3

b)

1

c)

1, 2, and 3

d)

2, 3, and 4

84.

Use the following description and the Punnett square to answer. In a plant where allele D produces dark leaves and dd produces light leaves, a true-breeding dark-leaved plant crossed with a light-leaved plant yields F1 plants that self-pollinate, producing an F2 shown in a Punnett square with boxes labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4. Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants that will be true-breeding?

a)

1 and 4 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

1 only

d)

1, 2, 3, and 4

85.

Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6,022 yellow and 2,001 green (8,023 total). Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship of the allele for green seeds to the allele for yellow seeds?

a)

The two alleles exhibit incomplete dominance.

b)

The two alleles are codominant.

c)

The green allele is recessive to the yellow allele.

d)

The green allele is dominant to the yellow allele.

86.
What process is found in both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism?
a)
the Kreb's cycle
b)
oxidative phosphorylation
c)
the citric acid cycle
d)
glycolysis
87.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Organisms interact but do not affect their environment

b)

A typical human liver cell has one set of chromosomes

c)

RNA is the only type of genetic material found in the living system

d)

All forms of life employ the same genetic code (DNA)

88.

Use your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules and how they dissolve other substances to answer the question. What is the best explanation of the solute molecule (in the center), given the orientation of water molecules around it?

a)

negatively charged

b)

nonpolar

c)

without charge

d)

positively charged

89.

Thalidomide and L-dopa are examples of pharmaceutical drugs that occur as enantiomers. L-dopa is the effective drug used to treat Parkinson's disease. The other enantiomer, D-dopa, is biologically inactive. Which of the following correctly describes enantiomers?

a)

have identical three-dimensional shapes allowing both to be effective in treating Parkinson's disease

b)

are mirror images of one another, causing one to become inactive and not function properly due to incorrectly facing functional groups

c)

are cis-trans isomers, caused by a double bond

d)

are mirror images of one another and have the same biological activity

90.
Given the structural formulas below, which 2 formulas represent compounds that are isomers of each other?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and D
d)
C and D
91.

An example of a Hydrogen Bond is the bond between

a)

the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2)

b)

Na+ and Cl- in salt

c)

the H of one water molecule is attracted to the O of another water molecule

d)

C and H bonded in Methane (CH4)

92.

How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?

a)

The polar heads interact with water; the nonpolar tails do not.

b)

Phospholipids do not interact with water because water is polar and lipids are nonpolar.

c)

The polar heads avoid water; the nonpolar tails attract water (because water is polar and opposites attract).

d)

Phospholipids dissolve in water.

93.
The bond that joins amino acids are called:
a)
Peptide Bonds
b)
Ester Bonds
c)
Glycosidic Linkages
d)
Phosphodiester Bonds
94.

Organelle that contains digestive enzymes

a)

nuclear pore

b)

peroxisome

c)

lysosome

d)

vesicle

e)

nuclear envelope

95.

The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and, therefore, abundant in liver cells?

a)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

nuclear envelope

d)

Golgi apparatus

96.

Which illustration best represents active transport?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

97.

White blood cells engulf bacteria using ________.

a)

pinocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

osmosis

d)

receptor-mediated exocytosis

98.

Which line represents an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? 

a)

Line 1

b)

Line 2

99.

A weightlifter is using heavy weights in short bursts for a competition. Because his muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much ATP the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his muscles. Which of the following processes is most likely going on in the muscles of the weightlifter as he competes in his event?

a)

As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration (fermentation), which allows the cell to make small amounts of ATP in the absence of oxygen.

b)

As the cells run out of oxygen, they die off gradually and the weightlifter's muscles have fewer contracting muscle cells.

c)

The cells will never run out of oxygen if the weightlifter is breathing.

d)

As the cells run out of oxygen, they will continue to make the same amount of ATP, since oxygen is not required to make ATP.

100.
If the delta G of a reaction is negative, which response shows the best conclusion for that reaction? 
a)
The reaction will release more energy than was needed to form the reaction.
b)
Energy from the reaction can be used to do work. 
c)
Energy is absorbed by the reaction which then can be used to power other reactions. 
d)
Energy is absorbed within the reaction and distributed unevenly throughout the molecule. 
101.
If the delta G of a reaction is negative, which response shows the best conclusion for that reaction? 
a)
The reaction will release more energy than was needed to form the reaction.
b)
Energy from the reaction can be used to do work. 
c)
Energy is absorbed by the reaction which then can be used to power other reactions. 
d)
Energy is absorbed within the reaction and distributed unevenly throughout the molecule. 
102.

Which of the following is a product of the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

CO2

b)

O2

c)

C6H1206

d)

H2O

103.

Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin Cycle?

a)

CO2 and glucose

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

ADP, P and NADP+

d)

H2Oand O2

104.

A series of enzymes catalyzes the above reaction. Product Z binds to enzyme 1 (which converts W to X). It binds at a location far from the active site. This binding decreases the activity of enzyme 1.

The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway (such as Product Z above)

temporarily inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is known as

a)

Feedback inhibition, in which the end product binds to an earlier enzyme and temporarily decreases its activity to regulate the pathway.

b)

Irreversible inhibition, in which the product permanently binds and deactivates the enzyme in the pathway.

c)

Metabolic activation, in which the product increases the activity of an earlier enzyme to speed up the pathway.

d)

Allosteric activation, in which the product binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active site and increases its activity.

105.

What type of biological molecule is Rubisco?

a)

A carbohydrate substrate, which is acted upon by another enzyme to produce G3P.

b)

An enzyme, which catalyzes the fixation of CO₂ to RuBP in the Calvin cycle.

c)

A coenzyme, which transfers electrons or functional groups during photosynthesis.

d)

An inorganic cofactor, such as Mg²⁺, required for enzyme activity

106.

What is the function of Rubisco in this cycle shown here?

a)

Rubisco is the enzyme that catalyzes the fixation of carbon dioxide to RuBP, initiating the conversion of CO₂ into organic molecules like G3P.

b)

Rubisco splits water molecules during the light reactions to produce electrons, protons, and oxygen.

c)

Rubisco regenerates ATP from ADP and phosphate during chemiosmosis in the Calvin cycle.

d)

Rubisco converts G3P directly into glucose in a single step after carbon fixation.

107.

The reaction shown below is performed by baker's yeast (S. cerevisiae). Which of the following is true about this reaction?

C6H12O6 --> 2C2H5OH + 2 CO2 + 2ATP

Glucose --> Ethanol

a)

This process requires O₂, which acts as the final electron acceptor in the formation of ethanol and CO₂.

b)

Yeast cells do not produce carbon dioxide during this reaction, as CO₂ is not a byproduct of fermentation.

c)

Human muscle cells also perform this reaction to produce ethanol and CO₂ during exercise.

d)

This process occurs anaerobically, allowing yeast to regenerate NAD⁺ so glycolysis can continue in the absence of oxygen.

108.

Which of the following is true for anabolic reactions?

a)

They are spontaneous and breakdown molecules.

b)

They are nonspontaneous and breakdown molecules.

c)

They are spontaneous and build molecules.

d)

They are nonspontaneous and build molecules.

109.

Where are ATP synthase complexes located in plant cells?

a)

thylakoid membrane only

b)

thylakoid membrane and plasma membrane

c)

thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane

d)

inner mitochondrial membrane only

110.

The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + Pi can best be described as an ________________ reaction that ______________ energy.

a)

exergonic; releases

b)

endergonic; requires

c)

exergonic; requires

d)

endergonic; releases