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Exam 4

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cow is in dorsal recumbency during surgery, what will happen?

a)

Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch.

b)

Improved cardiac output.

c)

Enhanced gastrointestinal motility.

d)

Increased renal perfusion.

2.

In OVH, left side ovary is bleeding. For better visualization, what should be done?

a)

Move descending colon to the right.

b)

Increase intra-abdominal pressure.

c)

Clamp the right ovary.

d)

Suction the bladder.

3.

In a dog, history of skin lesions and pus is noted (pyoderma), what is the etiology?

a)

Staphylococcus pseudointermedius.

b)

Escherichia coli.

c)

Candida albicans.

d)

Microsporum canis.

4.

Teeth overlapped in deciduous teeth remnant, which animal is this seen in?

a)

Ferret.

b)

Dog.

c)

Cat.

d)

Rabbit.

5.

For control of bleeding of a small vessel, which instrument is used?

a)

Halsted mosquito forceps.

b)

Allis tissue forceps.

c)

Babcock forceps.

d)

Kocher's forceps.

6.

In caudectomy in dogs, which arteries are ligated?

a)

Two lateral and one ventral.

b)

Two dorsal and one ventral.

c)

One lateral and two dorsal.

d)

Three ventral.

7.

Normal heart sounds in horses: How many are there?

a)

Up to four normal heart sounds, though it is also normal to hear only two or three.

b)

Only two normal heart sounds can ever be heard.

c)

Exactly three normal heart sounds are always present.

d)

Up to five normal heart sounds are commonly heard.

8.

When is an endotracheal tube removed?

a)

High-volume, low-pressure cuff.

b)

When the patient is able to maintain their airway independently.

c)

When the patient is fully conscious and can follow commands.

d)

When the risk of airway obstruction has resolved.

9.

What is the treatment for acute glaucoma?

a)

Demecarium bromide.

b)

Paracetamol.

c)

Amoxicillin.

d)

Ibuprofen.

10.

Chronic ear infection, not cured with local topical antibiotic, what is the next step?

a)

Use systemic / oral antibiotics.

b)

Increase the dose of topical antibiotics.

c)

Stop all antibiotics and observe.

d)

Use only ear drops for pain relief.

11.

Enzootic hemorrhagic disease in deer is transmitted by what?

a)

Biting mites (Culicoides).

b)

Mosquitoes.

c)

Ticks.

d)

Fleas.

12.

Which parameter to check for acute acidosis in herd?

a)

Drop in milk production.

b)

Increase in body weight.

c)

Improved feed efficiency.

d)

Higher fertility rate.

13.

What is the role of hypothyroidism in diarrhea?

a)

Hypomotility, absorption-secretion permeability.

b)

Increased gut motility and secretion.

c)

Enhanced enzyme production in the intestine.

d)

Stimulation of bile acid synthesis.

14.

Complication of laryngoplasty (tie-back)?

a)

Aspiration pneumonia.

b)

Laryngeal paralysis.

c)

Tracheal collapse.

d)

Esophageal obstruction.

15.

Calf premature birth and had respiratory distress, what is the cause?

a)

Increase in alveolar surface tension.

b)

Decrease in alveolar surface tension.

c)

Increase in surfactant production.

d)

Normal lung development.

16.

External parasite in sheep?

a)

Sheep keds and biting lice.

b)

Liver fluke.

c)

Roundworm.

d)

Tapeworm.

17.

Brucella in sheep causes what?

a)

Epididymitis.

b)

Mastitis.

c)

Foot rot.

d)

Pneumonia.

18.

Bladder rupture suspected, compare between what?

a)

Serum and abdominal fluid.

b)

Urine and cerebrospinal fluid.

c)

Blood and synovial fluid.

d)

Saliva and pleural fluid.

19.

Eosinophils and nervous signs in llamas, what is the cause?

a)

Meningeal worm (Parelaphostrongylus tenuis).

b)

Listeriosis (Listeria monocytogenes).

c)

Rabies virus infection.

d)

Polioencephalomalacia.

20.

Dust bath for which animals? Sand bath for which animals?

a)

Dust bath for chinchillas or hamster. Sand bath for rats or gerbils.

b)

Dust bath for rabbits or guinea pigs. Sand bath for cats or dogs.

c)

Dust bath for parrots or finches. Sand bath for turtles or snakes.

d)

Dust bath for horses or cows. Sand bath for pigs or sheep.

21.

Enrofloxacin ear drops (solution water / aqueous form) used for what?

a)

Pseudomonas otitis treatment.

b)

Hypertension management.

c)

Diabetes control.

d)

Asthma prevention.

22.

Complication for patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

a)

Hyperthyroidism.

b)

Mitral valve prolapse.

c)

Diabetes mellitus.

d)

Cholelithiasis.

23.

Pregnancy diagnosis in cow fetal membrane slip, question about the name of the membrane?

a)

Chorioallantois membrane.

b)

Amnion membrane.

c)

Yolk sac membrane.

d)

Placental membrane.

24.

Where can urolith (renal calculi) be found in steer?

a)

Sigmoid flexure.

b)

Rumen.

c)

Abomasum.

d)

Trachea.

25.

Long case with intermittent vomiting, what is the diagnosis?

a)

Pancreatitis.

b)

Gastritis.

c)

Appendicitis.

d)

Peptic ulcer.

26.

Mirror effect seen in what?

a)

Liver / Diaphragm interphase.

b)

Renal cortex.

c)

Splenic hilum.

d)

Pancreatic duct.

27.

Murmur in 6 months old cat, presented for OVH and has a congenital defect, ejection murmur on the right side and scapula lining, what is the defect?

a)

Ventricular septal defect.

b)

Patent ductus arteriosus.

c)

Mitral valve dysplasia.

d)

Pulmonic stenosis.

28.

Importance of the femoral triangle?

a)

Circulation and hip dysplasia.

b)

Respiratory function and lung capacity.

c)

Vision and eye movement.

d)

Hearing and balance.

29.

Kids have a raccoon at home, which nematode should they be careful about?

a)

The raccoon roundworm, Baylisascaris procyonis.

b)

Toxocara canis

c)

Trichinella spiralis

d)

Ascaris lumbricoides

30.

Treatment for adult heartworm in dogs?

a)

Melarsomine.

b)

Ivermectin.

c)

Amoxicillin.

d)

Prednisone.

31.

Bronchodilators in cats?

a)

Albuterol and salbutamol.

b)

Amoxicillin and clavulanate.

c)

Furosemide and spironolactone.

d)

Metronidazole and enrofloxacin.

32.

Overexposure in radiographs, what to do?

a)

Decrease KVP.

b)

Increase KVP.

c)

Increase exposure time.

d)

Increase mA.

33.

Dog with normal appetite and losing weight, what is the diagnosis?

a)

Pancreatic acinar atrophy.

b)

Diabetes mellitus.

c)

Hypothyroidism.

d)

Cushing's disease.

34.

Hyaluronic acid role is what?

a)

Lubricates bone.

b)

Increases blood sugar.

c)

Promotes hair growth.

d)

Strengthens teeth.

35.

Mechanism of action of Ondansetron?

a)

Antagonist serotonin.

b)

Agonist dopamine.

c)

Inhibitor acetylcholine.

d)

Blocker histamine.

36.

Low palmar block → ________.

a)

Metacarpophalangeal.

b)

Carpometacarpal.

c)

Interphalangeal.

d)

Radiocarpal.

37.

Long case of horse, it mentions rail track appearance → ________.

a)

Dermatophilus congolensis.

b)

Streptococcus equi.

c)

Clostridium tetani.

d)

Bacillus anthracis.

38.

Acetaminophen causes → ________.

a)

Intravascular hemolysis.

b)

Hepatic steatosis.

c)

Renal calculi.

d)

Pulmonary fibrosis.

39.

Dog treated for osteosarcoma and had cardiovascular disease, what drug is contraindicated?

a)

Doxorubicin.

b)

Carboplatin.

c)

Cyclophosphamide.

d)

Methotrexate.

40.

Which disease requires isolation of infected animal?

a)

Strangles.

b)

Mastitis.

c)

Foot rot.

d)

Milk fever.

41.

Trilostane mechanism of action → Decreases ACTH and ________.

a)

Adrenal atrophy.

b)

Cortisol synthesis.

c)

Renal excretion.

d)

Thyroid hormone release.

42.

Pain in cat → ________.

a)

Head down.

b)

Tail up.

c)

Eyes wide open.

d)

Purring.

43.

Sudden paresis in hindlimbs in dog → T13-L1 → ________.

a)

Intervertebral disc disease.

b)

Hip dysplasia.

c)

Cervical spondylomyelopathy.

d)

Patellar luxation.

44.

Detection of leukosis by → ________.

a)

Serological (ELISA/AGID).

b)

Physical examination.

c)

Radiological imaging.

d)

Urine analysis.

45.

Cat treated from lymphocytic plasmocytic enteritis and suffered ataxia, what drug caused it?

a)

Corticosteroids.

b)

Metronidazole.

c)

Enrofloxacin.

d)

Amoxicillin.

46.

Dogs with cold extremities after surgery, can’t walk from anesthesia, pale mucous membranes and increased CRT →

a)

Internal hemorrhage.

b)

Hypothermia.

c)

Allergic reaction.

d)

Respiratory distress.

47.

Antibiotic use before fracture surgery in dogs → ________.

a)

Cephalosporin.

b)

Amoxicillin.

c)

Metronidazole.

d)

Enrofloxacin.

48.

Systolic murmur loudest in the cranial right side to the sternum → ________.

a)

Tricuspid valve.

b)

Mitral valve.

c)

Pulmonic valve.

d)

Aortic valve.

49.

Veterinarian did a serology test for bovine viral diarrhea in a herd and measured amount of milk the same day. What’s the name of the test?

a)

Cross-sectional study.

b)

Longitudinal study.

c)

Case-control study.

d)

Randomized controlled trial.

50.

Hypercholesterolemia cause → ________.

a)

Liver disease.

b)

Kidney failure.

c)

Diabetes mellitus.

d)

Hypertension.

51.

During rectal palpation the veterinarian grasp something in the pelvic inlet, what is it?

a)

Pelvic flexure.

b)

Cecum.

c)

Urinary bladder.

d)

Rectum.

52.

What do you need to take into consideration when preparing for anesthesia of a patient with mast cell tumor?

a)

Increased capillary permeability.

b)

Decreased heart rate.

c)

Reduced liver enzyme activity.

d)

Lowered blood glucose levels.

53.

Which transducer is used to diagnosed tendon injury in a horse?

a)

8 MHz linear transducer.

b)

2 MHz sector transducer.

c)

5 MHz convex transducer.

d)

10 MHz phased array transducer.

54.

To reduce signs of respiratory airway obstruction in horses → ________.

a)

Dust control environment.

b)

Increase stable humidity.

c)

Feed more grain.

d)

Limit exercise.

55.

Blindness, ataxia and seizure in a cow → ________.

a)

Lead toxicity.

b)

Copper deficiency.

c)

Rabies infection.

d)

Grass tetany.

56.

Appetite stimulant in cats → ________.

a)

Mirtazapine.

b)

Prednisolone.

c)

Metronidazole.

d)

Enrofloxacin.

57.

5-year-old cat with blood in urine and abdominal mass → ________.

a)

Pyometra.

b)

Cystitis.

c)

Renal failure.

d)

Diabetes mellitus.

58.

Ruffles feather in parrot → ________.

a)

Circovirus.

b)

Salmonella.

c)

Psittacosis.

d)

Aspergillosis.

59.

Cyanosis on gums of a puppy cause → ________.

a)

Teratology of Fallot or patent ductus arteriosus.

b)

Distemper infection.

c)

Parvovirus infection.

d)

Nutritional deficiency.

60.

Calculi (struvite) on ultrasound and normal urinary bladder, what diet is it recommended?

a)

Non-acidifying and low protein diet.

b)

High protein and acidifying diet.

c)

High calcium and high protein diet.

d)

Acidifying and high fat diet.

61.

Treatment of Potomac horse fever → ________.

a)

Oxytetracycline.

b)

Penicillin.

c)

Amoxicillin.

d)

Metronidazole.

62.

Causative agent of ORF (contagious ecthyma) in sheep → ________.

a)

Parapox virus.

b)

Herpesvirus.

c)

Retrovirus.

d)

Adenovirus.

63.

Hematuria, pyuria and protein urea with urine pH more than 8.5 in cattle → ________.

a)

Bovine contagious pyelonephritis.

b)

Leptospirosis.

c)

Brucellosis.

d)

Babesiosis.

64.

Which animal does not have a nuchal ligament?

a)

Cat.

b)

Horse.

c)

Cow.

d)

Dog.

65.

Predisposing factor for exudative dermatitis → ________.

a)

Sarcoptic.

b)

Demodectic.

c)

Fungal.

d)

Allergic.

66.

Coccidiosis causes bloody diarrhea in → ________.

a)

Calves.

b)

Goats.

c)

Horses.

d)

Dogs.

67.

Abdomen suture → ________.

a)

Simple interrupted.

b)

Continuous locking.

c)

Mattress suture.

d)

Subcuticular suture.

68.

Drug of choice for atrial fibrillation in horse → ________.

a)

Quinidine.

b)

Digoxin.

c)

Lidocaine.

d)

Propranolol.

69.

Tuberculosis tail fold test hypersensitivity → ________.

a)

Type IV.

b)

Type I.

c)

Type II.

d)

Type III.

70.

Abaxial nerve block desensitizes → ________.

a)

From the fetlock down.

b)

From the hock up.

c)

Only the hoof wall.

d)

Only the pastern region.

71.

Low four point will desensitize → ________.

a)

Metacarpophalangeal joint.

b)

Carpal joint.

c)

Fetlock joint.

d)

Elbow joint.

72.

Which cranial nerve has just sensory supply?

a)

Cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear).

b)

Cranial nerve III (oculomotor).

c)

Cranial nerve V (trigeminal).

d)

Cranial nerve VII (facial).

73.

Anesthesia in ferret → ________.

a)

Reduces PCV.

b)

Increases heart rate.

c)

Enhances appetite.

d)

Improves vision.

74.

If there is a lesion in first and secondary mammary gland, which lymph node to access?

a)

Axilla.

b)

Inguinal.

c)

Popliteal.

d)

Cervical.

75.

Paravertebral nerve block

a)

T13, L1, L2.

b)

T10, T11, T12.

c)

L3, L4, L5.

d)

S1, S2, S3.

76.

Acid fast organism and clinical signs

a)

Cryptosporidium.

b)

Giardia.

c)

Entamoeba histolytica.

d)

Trichomonas vaginalis.

77.

Control for Aleutian mink disease

a)

Test and cull.

b)

Vaccinate all animals.

c)

Increase feed supply.

d)

Reduce water intake.

78.

A cat has eaten a bat, what to do?

a)

Euthanize.

b)

Monitor the cat for symptoms.

c)

Give the cat water.

d)

Take the cat for a walk.

79.

Cribbing in horse, which teeth are affected?

a)

Incisors.

b)

Canines.

c)

Premolars.

d)

Molars.

80.

Suture material for intestine and urinary bladder

a)

Monofilament, absorbable and synthetic (Maxon or PDS).

b)

Silk, non-absorbable and braided.

c)

Catgut, absorbable and natural.

d)

Polypropylene, non-absorbable and synthetic.

81.

Decreased milk production in cattle

a)

Ergot toxicity.

b)

Bloat.

c)

Foot rot.

d)

Mastitis.

82.

A picture of a ferret where there is a tooth behind the canine tooth

a)

Deciduous teeth.

b)

Molars.

c)

Premolars.

d)

Incisors.

83.

Acetaminophen causes

a)

Heinz bodies in RBCs.

b)

Methemoglobinemia.

c)

Sickle cell formation.

d)

Howell-Jolly bodies in RBCs.

84.

Bronchodilator used before surgery

a)

Theophylline.

b)

Aspirin.

c)

Paracetamol.

d)

Atropine.

85.

Joint swelling → ?

a)

Umbilical scan.

b)

X-ray of the joint.

c)

Blood sugar test.

d)

ECG.

86.

Rumen acidosis →

a)

Rumen ulcers.

b)

Bloat.

c)

Milk fever.

d)

Ketosis.

87.

HCO3 low and O2 low

a)

Metabolic acidosis.

b)

Respiratory alkalosis.

c)

Metabolic alkalosis.

d)

Respiratory acidosis.

88.

Ruminal acidosis causes

a)

Rumen ulcers.

b)

Liver fluke infestation.

c)

Bloat due to gas accumulation.

d)

Foot rot.

89.

Hyponatremia → ?

a)

Addisons disease.

b)

Cushings syndrome.

c)

Hyperaldosteronism.

d)

Diabetes insipidus.

90.

Nonregenerative, normocytic, normochromic anemic

a)

Chronic kidney disease.

b)

Iron deficiency anemia.

c)

Hereditary spherocytosis.

d)

Acute blood loss.

91.

Animal (3 months old) becomes lethargic and ataxic after meal

a)

Hyperammonemia (Portosystemic shunt).

b)

Hypoglycemia (Juvenile diabetes).

c)

Parvoviral infection.

d)

Congenital hypothyroidism.

92.

Hyperadrenocorticism, the liver is enlarged due to

a)

Glycogen.

b)

Fatty infiltration.

c)

Fibrosis.

d)

Amyloidosis.

93.

During recovery from anesthesia, physiological mechanism in a cat

a)

Mitotic pupil.

b)

Dilated pupil.

c)

Rapid heart rate.

d)

Increased salivation.

94.

Diazepam causes deteriorating effects in which animal?

a)

Horse.

b)

Dog.

c)

Cat.

d)

Rabbit.

95.

While labelling, what do you label for food animal?

a)

Milk/meat withdrawal period.

b)

Animal's age.

c)

Animal's breed.

d)

Animal's vaccination status.

96.

While labeling, it is recommended to write

a)

Keep out of children, don’t keep in direct sunlight.

b)

Store in refrigerator, shake well before use.

c)

Use within 24 hours, keep away from water.

d)

For external use only, avoid contact with eyes.

97.

Iguana anesthesia

a)

Alfaxalone.

b)

Ketamine.

c)

Isoflurane.

d)

Propofol.

98.

Latent carriers of malignant catarrhal fever (MCF)

a)

Sheep.

b)

Cattle.

c)

Goats.

d)

Pigs.

99.

Corneal ulcer swab shows gram positive rods

a)

Tetracycline, atropine and cyclosporine.

b)

Acyclovir, prednisolone and timolol.

c)

Ciprofloxacin, pilocarpine and azathioprine.

d)

Amphotericin B, tropicamide and methotrexate.

100.

For cranial cruciate ligament surgery, when do you give the antibiotics?

a)

IV, 30 minutes before.

b)

Oral, 2 hours before.

c)

IV, immediately after surgery.

d)

IM, 1 hour before.